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Fracture Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The 42-year-old female patient is asking why her clavicular fracture has a deformity which on Xray shows a displacement of the outer and middle thirds of the bone. You explain to her that there is a muscle in the area which can pull the clavicle and cause displacement of the fracture. What is this muscle?

a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Deltoids
c. Upper trapezius
d. Scalenus anticus

A

a. Sternocleidomastoid

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2
Q
  1. Bones of the upper limb unite earlier than that of the lower limb due to their size. The average time of healing for the bones of the upper limb is weeks.

a. 1-6
b. 9-24
c. 12-18
d. 3-12

A

d. 3-12

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3
Q
  1. A 30-year-old sustained a tri-malleolar fracture of the ankle. The forces involved in this type of fracture include abduction/lateral rotation force and _____.

a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Adduction
d. plantarflexion

A

c. Adduction

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4
Q
  1. The 14-year-old male patient came into the clinic with a referral from the orthopedic service. His diagnosis is a Monteggia fracture. What does this comprise?

a. Fracture of the ulna with ulnar subluxation
b. Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation
c. Fracture of the radius with radial head subluxation
d. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna

A

b. Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation

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5
Q
  1. These fractures are more stable than most fractures. This is called fractures.

a. Compound
b. Greenstick
c. Impacted
d. Avulsion

A

c. Impacted

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6
Q

6.What are the principles of fixation in fracture healing? These are the following EXCEPT

a. A small amount of movement at a fracture site may actually encourage fracture healing
b. Rigid fixation may lessen the stimulus for callus formation
c. Adequate fixation prevents impairment of the blood supply necessary for fracture healing
d. Any amount of movement is not allowed to maintain fracture fixation
e. Scapular fracture

A

d. Any amount of movement is not allowed to maintain fracture fixation

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7
Q
  1. The 15-year-old male patient who sustained a calcaneal fracture of both feet, after jumping off a 10-foot-high fence, underwent surgery by open reduction and internal fixation. He is then referred for Rehabilitation. What is the most important movement (s) of the foot which should be regained?

a. Inversion and eversion
b. Abduction and adduction
c. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
d. Pronation and supination

A

a. Inversion and eversion

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8
Q
  1. The 67-year-old male patient came in with a diagnosis of avulsion fracture of the anterior iliac spine of the pelvis. What muscle might have caused this fracture?

a. Iliopsoas
b. Vastus medialis
c. Tensor fascia lata
d. Rectus femoris

A

d. Rectus Femoris

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9
Q
  1. Fracture of the ulna with radial head subluxation is called fracture.

a. Bankart
b. Galeazzi
c. Monteggia
d. Hutchinson

A

c. Monteggia

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10
Q
  1. The Colles fracture of your 66-year-old female patient is noted by the orthopedic surgeon to have overlapping of the fragments which has led to a shortening. This is called:

a. None of the answers
b. Malunion
c. Non-union
d. delayed union

A

b. Malunion

Remember: Mali- union

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11
Q
  1. The 26-year-old with distal radial and ulnar fractures, is referred for ROM exercises. What movement/s should be focused on during therapy, to prevent permanent forearm tightness and contracture which is common in this type of fracture:

a. Wrist dorsi and palmar flexion
b. Flexion and extension
c. Pronation and supination
d. Wrist radial and ulnar deviation

A

c. Pronation and supination

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12
Q
  1. TRUE of Stress Fracture of the Metatarsal bone:
    a. Usually involves the fourth and fifth metatarsal bones
    b. Temporary exhaustion of the musculotendinous support of the foot
    c. Result from repeated stresses associated with walking
    d. Onset of pain and tenderness precedes the xray changes by 1-2 weeks
A

c. Result from repeated stresses associated with walking

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13
Q
  1. The main causes of delayed union in a fracture are the following EXCEPT:

a. Poor blood supply in the area
b. Presence of infection
c. Use of internal fixation
d. Bone gap is too wide
e. All of the answers are correct

A

e. All of the answers are correct

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14
Q
  1. The 76-year-old female patient sustained a hip fracture after a fall from her bed. Xray’s show a femoral neck fracture and is advised surgery to avoid a complication common to this area. What is this complication?

a. Avascular necrosis
b. Malunion
c. Osteomyelitis
d. Delayed union

A

a. Avascular necrosis

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15
Q
  1. The 16-year-old patient sustained a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. In the Rehabilitation and care of this patient over the next few weeks, you will need to watch out for several complications of this fracture mainly the following EXCEPT:

a. All of the answers are correct
b. Volkmann’s contracture
c. Myositis ossificans
d. Cubitus valgus

A

a. All of the answers are correct

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16
Q
  1. A shell, frequently made from plaster or fiberglass, that encases a limb or, in some cases, large portions of the body) to stabilize and hold anatomical structures—most often a broken bone (or bones), in place until healing is confirmed is an example of an

a. Internal fixator
b. External fixator
c. Either
d. Neither

A

b. External fixator

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17
Q
  1. All of the following are clinical presentation in patients with osteoporosis, except

a. Presence of fracture
b. Dowager’s hump posteriorly
c. Codfish vertebra in radiographs
d. Rib hump anteriorly

A

d. Rib hump anteriorly

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18
Q
  1. Metaphyseal chondrodysplasia has similarity to what condition?

a. Scurvy
b. Beri-Beri
c. Ricket’s disease
d. B and C

A

c. Ricket’s disease

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19
Q
  1. Specific classification for femoral neck fracture

a. Gustillo Anderson
b. Salter Haris
c. Garden
d. Le Fort

A

c. Garden

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20
Q
  1. Another name of this condition would be spotted bones

a. Osteopoikilosis
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Osteopetrosis
d. None of these

A

a. Osteopoikilosis

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21
Q
  1. It happens when healing occurs beyond the expected time

a. Delayed union
b. Nonunion
c. Malunion
d. none of these

A

a. Delayed union

22
Q
  1. These are transverse or oblique channels that transmit blood to the haversian system

a. lamellae
b. lacunae
c. Volkman’s canal
d. All of these

A

c. Volkman’s canal

23
Q
  1. Salter-Harris Grade II

a. Results from crushing of part of the growth plate
b. Involves the plate and a small portion of the metaphysis
c. Stage where there is growth arrest
d. Traverses the bony epiphysis and involves the cartilage plate
e. None of these

A

b. Involves the plate and a small portion of the metaphysis

24
Q
  1. This structure is involved in Jefferson’s fracture

a. Vertebral body of C1
b. Vertebral body of C2
c. Neural arch of C2
d. All of these
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

25
Q
  1. Which among the following fractures heals the fastest

a. Oblique
b. transverse
c. Comminuted
d. Spiral

A

d. Spiral

26
Q
  1. When an injured site is immobilized in a cast, the following statements are true in the care of a casted LE, except:

a. Flexing and extending the toes is an exercise to test nerve function
b. To check for circulation, briefly press on the large toenail until it turns white. Let go, and observe for the normal pink color to return
c. Occasionally, when the skin under the cast feel itchy, an object may be inserted to relieve the itch
d. If toes are cold cover them, notify the doctor if it doesn’t feel warm

A

c. Occasionally, when the skin under the cast feel itchy, an object may be inserted to relieve the itch

27
Q
  1. 35-55% of a transradial amputation is categorized as
    a. Short above elbow
    b. Short below elbow
    c. Very short above elbow
    d. Very short below elbow
A

b. Short below elbow

28
Q
  1. This phase begins after osteoblasts are being recruited

a. Activation
b. Formation
c. Resorption
d. Reformation

A

b. Formation

29
Q
  1. Garden fracture III
    a. Incomplete
    b. Complete, fully displaced
    c. Complete, partially displaced
    d. Complete, undisplaced
    e. None of these
A

c. Complete, partially displaced

30
Q
  1. Most common birth fracture
    a. Femoral
    b. Radial
    c. Humeral
    d. Clavicular
A

d. Clavicular

31
Q
  1. True about comminuted fracture

a. Bones are separated into several fragments
b. This is due to strong pull muscles
c. Bone is crushed and broken down into powder like substance
d. Forms an angle and its due to torsional forces

A

a. Bones are separated into several fragments

32
Q
  1. Main en trident is a deformity seen in patients with achondroplasia that is characterized by a gap in between

a. 1st and 2nd digit
b. 2nd and 3rd digit
c. 3rd and 4th digit
d. 4th and 5th digit

A

c. 3rd and 4th digit

33
Q
  1. This type of achondroplasia presents with a proximally set hitchhiker’s thumb

a. Diastrophic dwarfism
b. Pseudochondroplasia
c. Hypochondroplasia
d. Chondroectodermal dysplasia

A

a. Diastrophic dwarfism

34
Q
  1. Recommended stump shape for below knee amputation

a. Cylindrical
b. Conical
c. Spherical
d. Cuboidal

A

a. Cylindrical

Remember: Busy Ako (B-Cy A-Co)

35
Q
  1. This is the type of amputation that creates a crude pinching mechanism by separation of the distal ends of the forearm

a. Krukenberg amputation
b. Cineplastic amputation
c. Guilotine amputation
d. A and C
e. B and C

A

a. Krukenberg amputation

Remember: CRUDEkenberg

36
Q
  1. A crack or avulsion seen along the cortex of the bone can be classified as

a.Simple
b.Compound
c. Complete
d. Incomplete

A

d. Incomplete

37
Q
  1. Common fracture in children

a. Nightstick
b. Greenstick
c. Roland
d. Jones

A

b. Greenstick

38
Q
  1. All of the following are common findings in patient with osteogenesis imperfecta, except:
    a. Wedge-wood blue sclera
    b. Deafness
    c. Brittle bones
    d. Auditory hypersensitivity
A

d. Auditory hypersensitivity

39
Q
  1. The sequence in bone remodeling are as follows

a. Quiescence, Activation, Resorption, Remodeling, Formation
b. Quiescence Reversal, Activation, Formation
c. Quiescence Activation, Reversal, Resorption, Formation
d. Quiescence, Activation, Resorption, Reversal, Formation

A

d. Quiescence, Activation, Resorption, Reversal, Formation

40
Q
  1. Fracture of the ala of the pelvis

a. Duverney
b. Kienboch
c. Smith
d. Malgaine

A

a. Duverney

41
Q
  1. Salter Harris grading where growth arrest starts
    a. Grade 1
    b. Grade 2
    c. Grade 3
    d. Grade 4
A

d. Grade 4

42
Q
  1. Percentage for standard above elbow amputation

a. 0-20
b. 20-50
c. 35-55
d. 50-90

A

d. 50-90

43
Q
  1. Benneth Fracture

a. Avulsion of the 1st MCP
b. Comminution of the 1st MCP
c. Avulsion of the 5th MCP
d. Comminution of the 5th MCP

A

a. Avulsion of the 1st MCP

44
Q
  1. Mode of transmission in patient with achondroplasia

a. Droplet
b. Contact
c. Autosomal dominant
d. X-linked recessive

A

c. Autosomal dominant

45
Q
  1. The adhesive rubber tips of skin traction can handle weight

a. 5-6 kg
b. 10-12kgs
c. 6-8 kg
d. none of these

A

d. none of these

46
Q
  1. This is the classification of fractures that describes extent of wound coverage

a. Salter-Harris classification
b. Le Fort
c. Gustillo Anderson
d. Garden Classification

A

c. Gustillo Anderson

Remember: NaGUSgusan –> wound

47
Q
  1. Refers to the shaft of the bone
    a. Diaphysis
    b. epiphysis
    c. Metaphysis
    d. metaphyseal plate
A

a. Diaphysis

Remember: BoDi (body)

48
Q
  1. It is the only X-linked Disorder among the mucopolysaccharides

a. MPS I Hunter’s
b. MPS II Hurler’s
c. MPS I Hurler’s
d. MPS II Hunter’s

A

d. MPS II Hunter’s

49
Q
  1. Osteoporosis is a silent disease. It is assessed and diagnosed once fractures are already evident.

a. Both statements are correct
b. Both statements are incorrect
c. Only the first statement is correct
d. Only the second statement is correct

A

a. Both statements are correct

50
Q
  1. According to Wolff’s Law, every change in form & function is followed by definite change in its internal architecture. This allows the bone to adapt to certain stresses that is being applied to it.
    a. Both statements are correct
    b. Both statements are incorrect
    c. Only the first statement is correct
    d. Only the second statement is correct
A

a. Both statements are correct

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