MIDTERM 07 - Mycobacteria and Atypical Pneumonia Flashcards

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1
Q

Are rod-shaped, obligate aerobic bacteria; is an acid-fast bacteria that cannot be classified as gram-positive or gram-negative

A

Mycobacteria

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2
Q

Bacteria that resist decolorization by acid or alcohol

A

Acid fast bacteria

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3
Q

Cultured using inspissated egg media (ex. Lowenstein-Jensen); causes primary complex, latent TB, and reactivation/secondary TB (Mycobacterium species)

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis/Koch’s bacillus

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4
Q

Media that contains salts, glycerol, and complex organic substances; used to culture Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Inspissated egg media (Ex. Lowenstein-Jensen)

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5
Q

Responsible for acid fastness (Mycobacterium tuberculosis virulence factors)

A

Lipids

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6
Q

Can cause granuloma formation; resists drying (Mycobacterium tuberculosis virulence factors)

A

Mycolic acid

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7
Q

Inhibits migration of leukocytes; causes chronic granulomas (Mycobacterium tuberculosis virulence factors)

A

Cord factor

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8
Q

Induces caseous necrosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis virulence factors)

A

Phosphatides

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9
Q

Elicit tuberculin reaction and antibody production (Mycobacterium tuberculosis virulence factors)

A

Proteins

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10
Q

Characterized by granuloma (tubercle) formation due to migration of macrophages (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Primary complex

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11
Q

Characterized by dormancy of bacilli in the granuloma (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Latent TB

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12
Q

Characterized by reactivation of dormant bacilli due to depressed cell-mediated immunity or reinfection (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Reactivation/Secondary TB

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13
Q

Refers to the spread of Mycobacterium tuberculosis through regional lymph nodes

A

Lymphatic spread

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14
Q

Refers to the spread of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to all organs (Miliary distribution)

A

Hematogenous spread

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15
Q

Occurs usually in childhood; usually involves the base of the lungs (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Primary complex

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16
Q

Has no clinical manifestations; host is noninfectious (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Latent TB

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17
Q

May be due to tubercle bacilli that have survived the primary lesion; usually involves the apex of the lung, where O2 tension is the highest (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Reactivation/Secondary TB

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18
Q

Due to dormant bacilli in the primary lesion; more common (Causes of Reactivation/Secondary TB)

A

Endogenous

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19
Q

Due to reinfection (Causes of Reactivation/Secondary TB)

A

Exogenous

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20
Q

Characterized by fatigue, weakness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

A

Tuberculosis (Koch’s disease)

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21
Q

Characterized by chronic cough and hemoptysis (Types of tuberculosis)

A

Pulmonary TB

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22
Q

Involves ≥2 adjacent vertebral bodies (Types of tuberculosis)

A

Spinal TB (Pott’s disease)

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23
Q

Characterized by bloodstream dissemination and infection of many organs (Types of tuberculosis)

A

Miliary TB

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24
Q

Used to test for tuberculosis; patient is examined within 48-72 hours after injection; a positive result is an induration/wheal formation

A

Tuberculin skin test (TST)/Mantoux test

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25
Q

Derivative that is obtained by chemical fractionation of old tuberculin (A concentrated filtrate of broth in which tubercle bacilli have grown for 6 weeks); injected on the inner surface of the forearm

A

Purified protein derivative (PPD)

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26
Q

Diagnosis for tuberculosis with a low sensitivity (40-60%); 2 sputum specimens are collected early in the morning

A

Acid fast smear/AFB microscopy/Ziehl-Neelsen method

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27
Q

Diagnosis for tuberculosis that has a high sensitivity but poor specificity; for diagnosis of PTB in children who cannot expectorate (<5 y/o)

A

Chest X-ray

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28
Q

Used for rapid diagnosis of TB with high specificity and sensitivity

A

Gene Xpert MTB/RIF

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29
Q

An intradermal, attenuated vaccine derived from Mycobacterium bovis that is given at birth and is used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis prevention

A

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine

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30
Q

Meaning of DOTS (Mycobacterium tuberculosis treatment)

A

Directly Observed Treatment, Short Course

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31
Q

4 drugs that are 1st line agents used for treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (RIPE/HRZE)

A

Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

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32
Q

Tuberculosis that is resistant to one 1st line agent (Types of resistant tuberculosis)

A

Monoresistant TB

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33
Q

Tuberculosis that is resistant to rifampicin (Types of resistant tuberculosis)

A

Rifampicin resistant (RR) tuberculosis

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34
Q

Tuberculosis that is resistant to >1 1st line agent other than isoniazid and rifampicin combined (Types of resistant tuberculosis)

A

Poly-drug resistant tuberculosis

35
Q

Tuberculosis that is resistant to at least both isoniazid and rifampicin (Types of resistant tuberculosis)

A

Multi-drug resistant tuberculosis

36
Q

Often found within the endothelial cells of blood vessels or in mononuclear cells; transmitted through respiratory droplets and requires prolonged and close contact (Mycobacterium species)

A

Mycobacterium leprae

37
Q

Characterized by insidious onset, skin lesions, and neurologic disturbance (Clinical findings of Mycobacterium leprae)

A

Leprosy (Hansen’s disease)

38
Q

Is progressive and malignant; characterized by nodular skin lesions with abundant acid-fast bacilli (Types of leprosy)

A

Lepromatous leprosy

39
Q

Is benign and nonprogressive; characterized by a small number of macular skin lesions with few bacilli (Types of leprosy)

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

40
Q

Uses scrapings from skin or nasal mucosa or biopsy of earlobe skin; used for diagnosing Mycobacterium leprae

A

AFB smear/Ziehl-Neelsen method

41
Q

Drug of choice for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Dapsone

42
Q

Treatment for lepromatous leprosy (DRC)

A

Dapsone + Rifampin + Clofazimine

43
Q

Treatment for tuberculoid leprosy (DR)

A

Dapsone + Rifampin

44
Q

Infrequently causes disease in immunocompetent humans; one of the most common infections of bacterial origin in patients with AIDS and cystic fibrosis (Mycobacterium species)

A

Mycobacterium avium complex (M. avium intracellulare)

45
Q

Causes TB-like disease; is the source of Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine (Mycobacterium species)

A

Mycobacterium bovis

46
Q

Clinical and laboratory findings are limited to the lungs; responds to β-lactam antibiotics (Types of pneumonia)

A

Typical pneumonia

47
Q

Systemic findings with pulmonary competent; does not respond to β-lactam antibiotics (Types of pneumonia)

A

Atypical pneumonia

48
Q

3 bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia (LMC)

A

Legionella pneumophila, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophyla pneumoniae

49
Q

A fastidious, aerobic gram-negative bacteria that caused an outbreak of pneumonia in persons attending an American Legion convention in Philadelphia in 1976 (Types of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia)

A

Legionella pneumophila

50
Q

Legionella pneumophila is cultured using __________ agar

A

Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar

51
Q

Is an atypical pneumonia characterized by lobal, segmental, or patchy pulmonary infiltration (Clinical findings of Legionella pneumophila)

A

Legionnaires disease

52
Q

Named after the clinical syndrome that occurred in an outbreak in Michigan; characterized by fever and chills, myalgia, malaise, and headache (Clinical findings of Legionella pneumophila)

A

Pontiac fever

53
Q

The smallest organisms that are free living in nature and self-replicating on laboratory media; has no cell wall and requires sterol in the plasma membrane (Types of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia)

A

Mycoplasma sp.

54
Q

Mycoplasma sp. is cultured using ____________, which has a “fried-egg” apperance

A

Horse serum and yeast extract

55
Q

Is a mild disease; characterized by malaise, fever, headache, sore throat, and cough, and there may be blood-streaked sputum and chest pain (Clinical findings of Mycoplasma pneumoniae)

A

Walking pneumonia

56
Q

Causes postpartum fever and uterine tube infections (Examples of cell-wall defective bacteria)

A

Mycoplasma hominis

57
Q

Causes nongonococcal and nonchlamydial urethritis in men (Examples of cell-wall defective bacteria)

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

58
Q

Causes chronic nongonococcal urethritis, cervicitis, endometritis, salpingitis, and infertility (Examples of cell-wall defective bacteria)

A

Mycoplasma genitalium

59
Q

Is a long chain of fatty acids that is 78-90 carbons long; a virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Mycolic acid

60
Q

Mycolic acid is a long chain of fatty acids that is __________ to __________ carbons long

A

78-90 carbons

61
Q

Complex characterized by Ghon lesion/focus and regional lymphadenopathy present in primary complex

A

Ghon complex

62
Q

Process of leukocytes migrating from the blood circulation to specific sites

A

Diapedesis

63
Q

Lesion that is a calcified granuloma visible under x-ray

A

Ghon lesion/focus

64
Q

Other name for Anti-TB drugs

A

Anti-Koch’s drugs

65
Q

Tuberculin skin test (TST) is examined __________ to __________ hours after injection

A

48-72 hours

66
Q

The body’s reaction to tuberculin skin test (TST) is due to __________

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

67
Q

Tuberculin skin test (TST) is an indicator of __________ and __________ (LP)

A

Latent TB, Past infection

68
Q

Tuberculin skin test (TST) may be negative upon __________ treatment

A

Isoniazid

69
Q

__________ is the first-line diagnostic test of active TB recommended by WHO

A

Gene Xpert MTB/RIF

70
Q

The immunity conferred by the BCG vaccine decreases after __________ to __________ years

A

15-20 years

71
Q

Term used to describe abundant acid-fast bacilli

A

Multibacillary

72
Q

Term used to describe few bacilli

A

Paucibacillary

73
Q

Leprosy that has a negative lepromin skin test result

A

Lepromatous leprosy

74
Q

Leprosy that has a positive lepromin skin test result

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

75
Q

Other name for Mycobacterium avium complex

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare

76
Q

Other name for isoniazid

A

Isonicotinic acid hydrazide

77
Q

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis; side effects include peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and seizures (1st line agents for TB)

A

Isoniazid

78
Q

Antidote for isoniazid overdose

A

Vitamin B6/Pyridoxine

79
Q

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; side effects include red-orange discoloration of body fluid, and hepatotoxicity (1st line agents for TB)

A

Rifampicin

80
Q

Its mechanism of action is unknown; is most dominant side effect is hepatotoxicity (1st line agents for TB)

A

Pyrazinamide

81
Q

Inhibits arabinogalactan synthesis; its side effect includes dose-dependent retrobulbar neuritis, which leads to red-color blindness (1st line agents for TB)

A

Ethambutol

82
Q

The gold standard for Mycobacterium tuberculosis diagnosis

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

83
Q

Culture medium used for Legionella pneumophila that contains a-ketoglutarate, L-cysteine, and iron

A

Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar

84
Q

Culture medium for Mycoplasma sp. that has a fried-egg appearance

A

Horse serum and yeast extract