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CCP 5 - Pharmaceutical Microbiology & Parasitology (Lec) > FINAL 09 - Parasitology > Flashcards

FINAL 09 - Parasitology Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

A symbiotic relationship in which one animal, the parasite, lives at the expense of the other animal, the host

A

Parasitism

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2
Q

Cannot survive without a host (Types of parasite)

A

Obligate parasite

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3
Q

Has free-living forms or can act as commensal (Types of parasite)

A

Facultative parasite

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4
Q

Within the host; infection (Types of parasite)

A

Endoparasite

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5
Q

The surface of the host; infestation (Types of parasite)

A

Ectoparasite

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6
Q

Where the adult parasite lives and undergoes sexual reproduction; obligatory to life cycle (Types of host)

A

Definitive/primary host

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7
Q

Where the larval stage lives and undergoes asexual reproduction; obligatory to life cycle (Types of host)

A

Intermediate/secondary host

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8
Q

Where the larval stage without further development; not obligatory to life cycle (Types of host)

A

Parenteric/transport/carrier host

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9
Q

Additional source of infection; not obligatory to life cycle (Types of host)

A

Reservoir/temporary host

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10
Q

Accidentally harbors the parasite; cannot transmit parasite to definitive host (Types of host)

A

Accidental/dead-end host

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11
Q

Stage at which the parasite is transmitted to a host (Stages of parasite)

A

Infective stage

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12
Q

Stage at which the parasite is detected in a specimen from a host (Stages of parasite)

A

Diagnostic stage

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13
Q

Referred to as “first animals”; are unicellular eukaryotes that inhabit water and soil

A

Protozoa

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14
Q

Uses pseudopodia or protoplasmic flow for movement (Examples of protozoa)

A

Amebae

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15
Q

Uses flagella for movement (Examples of protozoa)

A

Flagellates

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16
Q

Uses cilia for movement; denucleated (Examples of protozoa)

A

Ciliates

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17
Q

Are nonmotile intracellular parasites; has a complex life cycle, alternating between sexual and asexual reproductive stages (Examples of protozoa)

A

Apicomplexa

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18
Q

Involves multiple fission (Asexual protozoan reproduction)

A

Schizogony

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19
Q

Involves fusion of two cells (Sexual protozoan reproduction)

A

Conjugation

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20
Q

Involves production of haploid gametes and fusion to a diploid zygote (Sexual protozoan reproduction)

A

Gametogony

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21
Q

Vegetative, growing, and motile form (Protozoan stages)

A

Trophozoite

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22
Q

Dormant, resistant, and usually infectious form (Protozoan stages)

A

Cyst

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23
Q

Reproductive structure formed by members of Apicomplexa

A

Oocyst

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24
Q

The only common pathogenic protozoan found in the duodenum and jejunum of humans; referred to as “old man’s eyeglasses” due to its leaf/heart shape (Intestinal protozoa)

A

Giardia lamblia/G. duodenalis/G. intestinalis

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25
Q

Characterized by irritation and low-grade inflammation of the duodenal or jejunal mucosa; presence of H2S odor in stool or breath (Clinical findings of Giardia lamblia)

A

Giardiasis

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26
Q

2 diagnosic tests for Giardia lamblia (ES)

A

Enterotest/Duodenal capsule/String test, Stool exam

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27
Q

Is an intestinal and tissue ameba; trophozoite is the only form present in tissues; causes amebiasis (Intestinal protozoa)

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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28
Q

2 types of amebiasis (IE)

A

Intestinal, Extraintestinal

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29
Q

Amebiasis characterized by diarrhea, abdominal cramps, N/V, tenesmus (Types of amebiasis)

A

Intestinal amebiasis

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30
Q

Severe dysentery characterized by abdominal tenderness, fulminating dysentery, dehydration, and incapacitation

A

Amebic dysentery

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31
Q

Granulomatous mass that is sometimes formed due to intestinal amebiasis

A

Ameboma

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32
Q

Amebiasis that spreads via metastasis and rarely by direct extension; includes amebic hepatitis and pulmonary amebiasis (Types of amebiasis)

A

Extraintestinal amebiasis

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33
Q

Most common kind of extraintestinal amebiasis; is progressive, nonsuppurative, destructive w/o compression, and formation of a wall

A

Amebic hepatitis

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34
Q

Entamoeba histolytica causes __________ ucler

A

Flask-shaped ulcer

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35
Q

A human commensal; is nonpathogenic (Other intestinal amebae)

A

Entamoeba dispar

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36
Q

Is not a symbiont (Other intestinal amebae)

A

Entamoeba moshkovskii

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37
Q

Is small and nonpathogenic (Other intestinal amebae)

A

Entamoeba hartmanni

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38
Q

Is nonpathogenic (Other intestinal amebae)

A

Entamoeba coli

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39
Q

2 intestinal sporozoan that infects the immunocompromised; causes cryptosporidiosis (CH, CP)

A

Cryptosporidium hominis, Cryptosporidium parvum

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40
Q

Characterized by severe, intractable watery diarrhea; is self-limited in immunocompetent hosts (Clinical findings of Cryptosporidium sp.)

A

Cryptosporidiosis

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41
Q

An intestinal sporozoan; causes cyclosporiasis (Intestinal protozoa)

A

Cyclospora cayetanensis

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42
Q

Characterized by self-limited diarrhea, anorexia, fatigue, and weight loss in immunocompetent hosts; prolonged in immunocompromised (Clinical findings of Cyclospora cayetensis)

A

Cyclosporiasis

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43
Q

An intestinal sporozoan; predominantly an infection of people in the developing world and a common presentation of HIV/AIDS; causes cystoisosporiasis (Intestinal protozoa)

A

Cystoisospora belli

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44
Q

Cystoisospora belli is previously called as __________

A

Isospora belli

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45
Q

Is self limited in immunocompetent individuals and results to prolonged illness in immunocompromised individuals (Clinical findings of Cystoisospora belli)

A

Cystoisosporiasis

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46
Q

The only ciliate protozoan parasite of humans; the largest protozoan parasite of humans; causes balantidiasis (Intestinal protozoa)

A

Balantidium coli

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47
Q

Usually asymptomatic; characterized by mucosal ulcers and submucosal abscesses, resembling lesions in amebiasis (Clinical findings of Balantidium coli)

A

Balantidiasis

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48
Q

A genitourinary flagellate; is anaerobic; causes trichomoniasis (Sexually transmitted protozoa)

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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49
Q

Usually asymptomatic or mild; more common in women than men (Clinical findings of Trichomonas vaginalis)

A

Trichomoniasis

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50
Q

Causes African trypanosomiasis; transmitted through inoculation of metacyclic trypomastigotes by tsetse fly (Trypanosoma species)

A

Trypanosoma brucei

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51
Q

Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted through inoculation of metacyclic trypomastigotes by __________

A

Tsetse fly

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52
Q

Characterized by cutaneous, hemolymphatic, and CNS stage (Clinical findings of Trypanosoma brucei)

A

African trypanosomiasis

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53
Q

Causes Chagas disease; transmitted through inoculation of metacyclic trypomastigotes in the feces of reduviid bugs (Trypanosoma species)

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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54
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted through inoculation of metacyclic trypomastigotes in the feces of __________

A

Reduviid bugs

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55
Q

Characterized by Chagoma and Romaña sign in acute stages and chagasic cardiomyopathy and megacolon in chronic stages (Clinical findings of Trypanosoma cruzi)

A

Chagas disease

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56
Q

Subcutaneous inflammatory nodule at the site of inoculation (Acute stage of Chagas disease)

A

Chagoma

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57
Q

Unilateral swelling of the eyelids (Acute stage of Chagas disease)

A

Romaña sign

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58
Q

Characterized by small, red papule, rolled-edge ulceration, and depressed, unpigmented scar (Clinical findings of Leishmania)

A

Cutaneous leishmaniasis

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59
Q

Characterized by small, red papule, itchy, ulcerated vesicle, and degeneration of cartilaginous and soft tissues in nasal and buccal mucosa (Clinical findings of Leishmania)

A

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

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60
Q

Characterized by post-kala-azar dermal leishmanoid, which are reddish, depigmented nodules (Clinical findings of Leishmania)

A

Visceral leishmaniasis

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61
Q

Leishmania is transmitted through inoculation of promastigote by __________

A

Sandfly

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62
Q

Diagnostic test for Leishmania

A

Amastigotes biopsy

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63
Q

A free-living ameba; an ameboflagellate; causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) (Tissue ameba)

A

Naegleria fowleri

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64
Q

Naegleria fowleri is also known as __________

A

Naegleria aerobia

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65
Q

An acute, fulminant, rapidly fatal illness characterized by headache and caused by swimming in warm freshwater (Clinical findings of Naegleria fowleri)

A

Primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)

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66
Q

2 free-living ameba; often associated with immunocompromised individuals; causes granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE) (Tissue ameba) (AB)

A

Acanthamoeba castellani, Balamuthia mandrillaris

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67
Q

Is chronic; characterized by confusion, headache, and seizure (Clinical findings of Acanthamoeba castellani and Balamuthia mandrillaris)

A

Granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE)

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68
Q

A corneal inflammation and opacity; is present in granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE) (Clinical findings of Acanthamoeba castellani and Balamuthia mandrillaris)

A

Acanthamoeba kerititis

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69
Q

Plasmodium vivax (Human or primate malaria)

A

Human malaria

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70
Q

Plasmodium falciparum (Human or primate malaria)

A

Human malaria

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71
Q

Plasmodium malariae (Human or primate malaria)

A

Human malaria

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72
Q

Plasmodium ovale (Human or primate malaria)

A

Human malaria

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73
Q

Plasmodium knowlesi (Human or primate malaria)

A

Primate malaria

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74
Q

Blood sporozoan; transmitted through injection of sporozoites via the bite of female Anopheles mosquito (Blood and tissue sporozoa)

A

Plasmodium sp.

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75
Q

Dormant liver forms of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale; can develop into merozoites

A

Hypnozoites

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76
Q

Number one killer of all parasitic diseases; characterized by periodic paroxysms (Clinical findings of Plasmodium sp.)

A

Malaria

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77
Q

Cytoplasmic Schuffner dots; enlarged host cells (Plasmodium species) (PV, PO)

A

Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale

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78
Q

Band-shaped trophozoite (Plasmodium species)

A

Plasmodium malariae

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79
Q

Small, often multiply infected rings; banana-shaped gametocytes (Plasmodium species)

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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80
Q

Recurrence that takes place after complete initial clearing of the erythrocytic infection; happens with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

A

Relapse

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81
Q

Recurrence of symptoms in a patient whose bloodstream infection has previously been at such a low level as not to be clinically demonstrable or cause symptoms; happens with all Plasmodium species

A

Recrudescence

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82
Q

Causes benign tertian malaria and tertian ague (q48h) (Plasmodium species)

A

Plasmodium vivax

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83
Q

Causes mild tertian malaria (q48h); rarest (Plasmodium species)

A

Plasmodium ovale

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84
Q

Causes aestivoautumnal, malignant tertian, and subtertian malaria (q36-48h); most common and most severe; shortest incubation period (Plasmodium species)

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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85
Q

Most common plasmodium species in the Philippines

A

Plasmodium falciparum

86
Q

Causes quartan malaria (q72h); longest incubation period (Plasmodium species)

A

Plasmodium malariae

87
Q

Causes quotidian malaria (q24h) (Plasmodium species)

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

88
Q

__________ such as G6PD deficiency, thalassemia, and sickle cell anemia, serves as protective conditions against malaria

A

Hemolytic states

89
Q

__________ is an antigen that acts as a receptor for invasion by the human malarial parasites

A

Duffy antigen

90
Q

A blood sporozoa; causes babesiosis (Blood and tissue sporozoa)

A

Babesia microti

91
Q

An intracellular infection of RBCs that is mostly asymptomatic; characterized by malaise, anorexia, nausea, fatigue, and fever (Clinical findings of Babesia microti)

A

Babesiosis

92
Q

Babesia microti is transmitted through the introduction of sporozoites via __________ bite

A

Tick/Ixodes sp.

93
Q

Diagnostic test for Babesia microti; used to detect intracellular tetrads of merozoites

A

Maltese cross

94
Q

A tissue sporozoan that is spore-producing; its hosts include cats and members of Felidae family; causes toxoplasmosis (Blood and tissue sporozoa)

A

Toxoplasma gondii

95
Q

Is an intracellular infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii; has two types (Clinical findings of Toxoplasma gondii)

A

Toxoplasmosis

96
Q

2 types of toxoplasmosis (CP)

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis, Postnatal toxoplasmosis

97
Q

Is a major cause of blindness; characterized by stillbirths, chorioretinitis, and intracerebral calcifications (Types of toxoplasmosis)

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

98
Q

Characterized by retinitis or chorioretinitis, encephalitis, and pneumonitis in the immunosuppressed (Types of toxoplasmosis)

A

Postnatal toxoplasmosis

99
Q

2 types of helminths (RF)

A

Roundworms, Flatworms

100
Q

2 classes of flatworms (FT)

A

Flukes, Tapeworms

101
Q

Are elongated and tapered at both ends, round in cross section, and unsegmented (Examples of helminths)

A

Nematodes

102
Q

Nematodes complete their life cycle in __________ host only

A

One (1)

103
Q

2 nematodes that complete their life cycle in 2 hosts (FD)

A

Filarial nematodes, Dracunculus medinensis

104
Q

Are dorsoventrally flattened in cross-section, and hermaphroditic with a few exceptions (Examples of helminths)

A

Platyhelminths

105
Q

Are flattened and leaf shaped with two muscular suckers (Examples of helminths)

A

Trematodes

106
Q

Trematodes complete their life cycle in __________ definitive host and __________ intermediate hosts

A

One (1) definitive host, Two (2) intermediate hosts

107
Q

Are flat and ribbon like; has no mouth or digestive tract (Examples of helminths)

A

Cestodes

108
Q

Composed of segments; each contain male and female reproductive structures (Parts of cestodes)

A

Proglottids

109
Q

Has suckers, hooks, or structures for attachment to intestinal wall (Parts of cestodes)

A

Scolex

110
Q

Cestodes complete their life cycle in __________ hosts

A

Two (2)

111
Q

__________ is a cestode that completes its life cycle in 1 host

A

Hymenolepis nana

112
Q

__________ is a cestode that completes its life cycle in 3 hosts

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

113
Q

Also known as pinworm; causes pruritus ani and is due to the ingestion of parasitic eggs (Examples of intestinal nematodes)

A

Enterobius vermicularis

114
Q

Common name of Enterobius vermicularis

A

Pinworm

115
Q

Happens especially at night; caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to the eggs that are laid around the perianal region by female worms (Clinical findings of Enterobius vermicularis)

A

Pruritus ani

116
Q

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is diagnosed using the __________ technique

A

Scotch tape technique

117
Q

__________ of Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) happens when the eggs hatch and enter the anus

A

Retroinfection

118
Q

Also known as whipworm; is a soil-transmitted helminth that is acquired through the ingestion of eggs (Examples of intestinal nematodes)

A

Trichuris trichiura

119
Q

Common name of Trichuris trichiura

A

Whipworm

120
Q

Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) is diagnosed using the __________ technique

A

Kato-Katz technique

121
Q

Is a soil-transmitted helminth that is acquired through the ingestion of eggs; the larva may migrate to the lungs (Examples of intestinal nematodes)

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

122
Q

2 common names of Ascaris lumbricoides (CG)

A

Common roundworm, Giant intestinal roundworm

123
Q

The most common helminthic infection; involves the obstruction of bowel and bile/pancreatic ducts (Clinical findings of Ascaris lumbricoides)

A

Ascariasis

124
Q

Characterized by cough, eosinophilia, and pulmonary infiltrates; happens when larvae migrates to the lungs (Clinical findings of Ascaris lumbricoides)

A

Löffler syndrome

125
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides (common roundworm) is diagnosed using the __________ technique

A

Kato-Katz

126
Q

2 soil-transmitted helminths that is transmitted through the percutaneous entry of filariform larvae from soil; the larvae may migrate to the lungs (Examples of intestinal nematodes) (AN)

A

Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus

127
Q

2 common names of Ancyclosotoma duodenale and Necator americanus (ON)

A

Old world hookworm, New world hookworm

128
Q

Characterized by erythema and intense pruritus (Clinical findings of Ancyclostoma duodenale and Necator americanus)

A

Ground itch

129
Q

Happens when the larvae migrates to the lungs (Clinical findings of Ancyclostoma duodenale and Necator americanus)

A

Löffler syndrome

130
Q

Ancyclostoma duodenale and Necator americanus is diagnosed using the __________ technique

A

Kato-Katz technique

131
Q

An intestinal and tissue nematode transmitted through percutaneous entry of filariform larvae from soil; the larvae may migrate to the lungs and heart (Examples of intestinal nematodes)

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

132
Q

Common name of Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Human threadworm

133
Q

Characterized by severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, GI bleeding, nausea, and vomiting (Clinical findings of Strongyloides stercoralis)

A

Strongyloidiasis

134
Q

Happens when the larvae migrates to the lungs (Clinical findings of Strongyloides stercoralis)

A

Löffler syndrome

135
Q

Are the largest intracellular parasites; transmitted through the ingestion of encysted larvae from improperly cooked pork (Examples of intestinal nematodes)

A

Trichinella spiralis

136
Q

Characterized by myalgia and weakness due to the encystment in muscle tissue (Clinical findings of Trichinella spiralis)

A

Trichinosis/Trichinellosis

137
Q

Happens when the larvae migrates to the lungs (Clinical findings of Trichinella spiralis)

A

Löffler syndrome

138
Q

First discovered in Ilocos Sur; caused by ingestion of larvae from raw fish (Examples of intestinal nematodes)

A

Capillaria philippinensis

139
Q

Characterized by diarrhea and protein-losing enteropathy (Clinical findings of Capillaria philippinensis)

A

Intestinal capillariasis

140
Q

3 nematodes that reside in the lymphatic system; the death of these worms induce inflammatory response (Examples of filarial nematodes) (WB, BM, BT)

A

Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, Brugia timori

141
Q

Characterized by lymphangitis, fever, painful lymph nodes, edema, elephantiasis, and hydrocele (Clinical findings of Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, Brugia timori)

A

Lymphatic filariasis

142
Q

Involves morbid gross enlargement of limbs, breasts, and genitalia (Clinical findings of Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, Brugia timori)

A

Elephantiasis

143
Q

Involves swelling in the scrotum when fluid collects in the thin sheath surrounding a testicle (Clinical findings of Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, Brugia timori)

A

Hydrocele

144
Q

Transmitted through the injection of filariform larvae by black fly (Simulium); causes Onchocerciasis (Examples of filarial nematodes)

A

Onchocerca volvulus

145
Q

Characterized by changes in skin pigment, loss of elastic fivers, “hanging groin”, and severe pruritus (Clinical findings of Onchocerca volvulus)

A

Onchocerciasis

146
Q

Characterized by visual clouding, photophobia, and retinal damage (Clinical findings of Onchocerca volvulus)

A

River blindness

147
Q

Transmitted through the injection of filariform larvae by mango fly (Chrysops); causes Loiasis (Examples of filarial nematodes)

A

Loa loa (African eye worm)

148
Q

Characterized by Calabar swellings, subconjunctival migration of an adult worm, and conjunctival irritation (Clinical findings of Loa loa)

A

Loiasis

149
Q

A tissue nematode that causes Drancunculiasis; caused by ingestion of L3 larvae in copepods in contaminated water (Examples of blood and tissue nematodes)

A

Dracunculus medinensis

150
Q

Characterized by cutaneous blisters, secondary bacterial infection, sepsis, gangrene, and anaphylaxis (Examples of blood and tissue nematodes)

A

Drancunculiasis

151
Q

Refers to zoonotic larval nematode infections

A

Larva migrans

152
Q

Transmitted through percutaneous entry of larvae; causes erythema and papules, and serpiginous tracts of red inflammation (Types of larva migrans)

A

Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM)/Creeping eruptions

153
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM) is caused by __________

A

Ancylostoma caninum (Dog hookworm)

154
Q

Transmitted through ingestion of eggs from raw or undercooked fish dishes; causes extreme abdominal pain and small bowel obstruction (Types of larva migrans)

A

Visceral larva migrans (VLM)

155
Q

Visceral larva migrans (VLM) is caused by __________

A

Anisakis (Herringworm)

156
Q

Characterized by impaired vision and blindness (Types of larva migrans)

A

Ocular larva migrans (OLM)

157
Q

Characterized by serious motor dysfunction and blindness (Types of larva migrans)

A

Neural larva migrans (NLM)

158
Q

Toxocara canis is also known as __________

A

Dog roundworm

159
Q

Toxocara cati is also known as __________

A

Cat roundworm

160
Q

Baylisascaris procyonis is also known as __________

A

Raccoon roundworm

161
Q

Is the largest human trematode; transmitted through ingestion of metacercariae encysted on aquatic vegetation (Examples of intestinal trematodes)

A

Fasciolopsis buski

162
Q

Common name of Fasciolopsis buski

A

Giant intestinal fluke

163
Q

Is the smallest human trematode; transmitted through ingestion of metacercariae encysted in undercooked fishes (Examples of intestinal trematodes)

A

Heterophyes heterophyes

164
Q

Characterized by mucous diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain (Clinical findings of Heterophyes heterophyes)

A

Heterophyiasis

165
Q

2 tissue trematodes that causes fibrosis and hyperplasia of bile duct; transmitted through ingestion of metacercariae encysted in freshwater fishes (Examples of intestinal trematodes) (CO)

A

Clonorchis sinensis, Opisthorchis viverrini

166
Q

2 common names of Clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis viverrini (CS)

A

Chinese liver fluke, Southeast Asian liver fluke

167
Q

Characterized by atrophy of liver parenchyma, portal fibrosis, jaundice, and liver cirrhosis (Clinical findings of Clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis viverrini)

A

Chronic cholangitis

168
Q

A tissue trematode; transmitted through ingestion of metacercariae encysted on aquatic vegetation (Examples of intestinal trematodes)

A

Fasciola hepatica

169
Q

Common name of Fasciola hepatica

A

Sheep liver fluke

170
Q

Characterized by inflammation, edema, and fibrosis of bile duct (Clinical findings of Fasciola hepatica)

A

Fascioliasis

171
Q

A tissue trematode; transmitted through ingestion of metacercariae encysted in crustacean hosts (Examples of intestinal trematodes)

A

Paragonimus westermani

172
Q

Common name of Paragonimus westermani

A

Human lung fluke

173
Q

Transmitted through percutaneous entry of cercariae during contact with water; associated with schistosome eggs (Examples of helminths)

A

Schistosoma

174
Q

Common name of schistosoma

A

Blood flukes

175
Q

Includes S. mansoni (Intermediate hosts of schistosoma)

A

Biomphalaria

176
Q

Includes S. japonicum (Intermediate hosts of schistosoma)

A

Oncomelania

177
Q

Includes S. haematobium, S. intercalatum, and S. guineensis (Intermediate hosts of schistosoma)

A

Bulinus

178
Q

Characterized by a migratory phase, acute phase, and chronic phase (Clinical findings of Schistosoma)

A

Schistosomiasis

179
Q

Characterized by headache, chills, fever, diarrhea, and eosinophilia; present in the acute phase of schistosomiasis (Clinical findings of Schistosoma)

A

Katayama/Snail fever

180
Q

An intestinal cestode; transmitted through ingestion of cysticerci from beef (Examples of cestodes)

A

Taenia saginata

181
Q

Common name of Taenia saginata

A

Beef tapeworm

182
Q

An intestinal and tissue cestode; causes intestinal taeniasis and cysticercosis (Examples of cestodes)

A

Taenia solium

183
Q

Common name of Taenia solium

A

Pork tapeworm

184
Q

Characterized by vague abdominal discomfort, indigestion, nausea, diarrhea, and weight (Clinical findings of Taenia solium)

A

Intestinal taeniasis

185
Q

Due to cysticerci in tissues when eggs are ingested (Clinical findings of Taenia solium)

A

Cysticercosis

186
Q

Most common site of cysticercosis; mostly asymptomatic

A

Subcutaneous nodules

187
Q

Characterized by acute myositis (Types of cysticercosis)

A

Muscular cysticercosis

188
Q

Most common and serious form; characterized by headache, nausea, vomiting, mental disturbances, and seizures (Types of cysticercosis)

A

Neurocysticersosis

189
Q

Characterized by blurred vision or loss of vision, iritis, uveitis, and palpebral conjunctivitis (Types of cysticercosis)

A

Ocular cysticercosis

190
Q

An intestinal cestode that is the longest tapeworm (>10 cm); is leaf-shaped; transmitted through ingestion of plerocercoids from fish (Examples of cestodes)

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

191
Q

Common name of Diphyllobothrium latum

A

Broad fish tapeworm

192
Q

Is the smallest human cestode (4 cm), the most common cestode infection in humans, and the only cestode that complete its life cycle in one host, which is humans (Examples of cestodes)

A

Hymenolepis nana

193
Q

Common name of Hymenolepis nana

A

Dwarf tapeworm

194
Q

Is usually asymptomatic or only causes minor intestinal disturbance; characterized by nausea, anorexia, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and irritability (Clinical findings of Hymenolepis nana)

A

Hymenolepiasis

195
Q

An intestinal cestode; a cestode of rodents infrequently seen in humans and frequently found in rodents (Examples of cestodes)

A

Hymenolepis diminuta

196
Q

Common name of Hymenolepis diminuta

A

Rat tapeworm

197
Q

Disease caused by the ingestion of cysticercoid in infected arthropods (Clinical findings of Hymenolepis diminuta)

A

Hymenolepiasis

198
Q

An intestinal cestode that infects canids, felids, and pet owners; transmitted through ingestion of cysticercoid in infected fleas (Examples of cestodes)

A

Dipylidium caninum

199
Q

Common name of Dipylidium caninum

A

Dog tapeworm

200
Q

A tissue cestode that is a small, 3-segmented tapeworm; humans serve as accidental hosts; transmitted through ingestion of eggs from dog feces (Examples of cestodes)

A

Echinococcus granulosus

201
Q

Common name of Echinococcus granulosus

A

Hydatid worm

202
Q

Cyst that is due to larval stage; is fluid-filled and can metastasize to other sites (Clinical findings of Echinococcus granulosus)

A

Hydatid cyst

203
Q

In a pinworm infection, ____________ may happen when the eggs hatch and reenter the anus

A

Retroinfection

204
Q

Most infections are acquired by ingestion of the egg or ___________ stage, with the exception of hookworms, threadworms, and schistosomes

A

Larval stage

205
Q

In __________ infections, the pathology is generally associated with the adult stage

A

Trematode infections

206
Q

__________ is a cardinal feature of a tissue infection by parasitic worms

A

Eosinophilia

207
Q

A morbid, gross enlargement of limbs, breasts, and genitalia, which is an immunopathologic response to long-continued filarial infection

A

Elephantiasis

208
Q

Most helminths do not multiply by asexual replication with the exception of __________, which multiplies asexually within hydatid cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

209
Q

The only intracellular helminth is __________, whose larval stage is intracellular within a muscle cell (known as a nurse cell)

A

Trichinella

210
Q

__________ is a term used when the larval stage of a nematode that normally infects an animal host migrates throughout human tissues

A

Larva migrans

211
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum causes __________ anemia because it absorbs vitamin B12

A

Megaloblastic anemia

CCP 5 - Pharmaceutical Microbiology & Parasitology (Lec) (39 decks)

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