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MICROPARA > M5 PART 1-3 > Flashcards

M5 PART 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

gram-positive spore-forming bacilli

A

Bacillus
Clostridium

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2
Q

gram-positive spore-forming bacilli

aerobes

A

Bacillus

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3
Q

gram-positive spore-forming bacilli

anaerobes

A

Clostridium

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4
Q
  • resting cells
  • dormant
  • highly resistant
  • are formed when their environment is depleted
  • resistant to heat so kahit lutuin buhay pa rin
A

ENDOSPORES

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5
Q
  • a classical disease in the history of microbiology that is caused by Bacillus anthracis
  • important disease of animals & occasionaly humans
  • has potent toxins and is a major potential agent of bioterrorism & biologic warfare
A

ANTHRAX

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6
Q

causes food poisoning & occasionally eye or other localized infections

A

Bacillus cereus

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7
Q

Bacillus species

Large, ____, Gram-positive rods in chains

A

aerobic

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8
Q

Bacillus species

Possess virulence ____

A

PLASMIDS

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9
Q

Bacillus species

  • most of this genus are ____, prevalent in soil, water, and air, and on vegetation
  • they feed on decaying matter
A

SAPROPHYTIC

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10
Q

Bacillus species

Forms nonhemolytic gray to white colonies
(____)

A

MEDUSA HAIR, CURLED HAIR

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11
Q

Bacillus species

Spores are located ___

A

CENTRALLY

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12
Q

Bacillus anthracis

Cell wall is made up of amino acid: ______

A

poly-γ-D-glutamic acid

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13
Q

Bacillus anthracis

Disease: ____

A

ANTHRAX

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14
Q
  • commonly found in animals (herbivores)
  • has capsule
  • non motile
  • antiphagocytic
A

Bacillus anthracis

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15
Q

a disease of the herbivores
* ex. cow when eating grass can acquire from soil & can hawa from animal to humans

A

ANTHRAX

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16
Q

Bacillus anthracis

Pathogensis: based primarily on the production of ____

A

ANTHRAX TOXIN

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17
Q

Bacillus anthracis | ANTHRAX TOXIN

causes edema (swelling)

A

EDEMA FACTOR (EF)

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18
Q

Bacillus anthracis | ANTHRAX TOXIN

causes death of the cell by necrosis o hypoxia

A

LETHAL FACTOR (LF)

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19
Q

Bacillus anthracis | ANTHRAX TOXIN

  • a protein that binds to specific cell receptors
  • forms a membrance channel so that EF & LF can enter the cell
A

PROTECTIVE ANTIGEN (PA)

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20
Q

cell death

A

NECROSIS

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21
Q

cell does not have oxygen

A

HYPOXIA

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22
Q

Bacillus anthracis

  • is usually acquired by the entry of spores through the injured skin
  • form accounts for over 95% of anthrax cases
  • forms black eschar
  • A pruritic papule develops 1-7 days after entry of the spores
A

CUTANEOUS ANTHRAX

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23
Q

Bacillus anthracis

  • rare case of anthrax in humans
  • can be accumulated from food contaminated by anthrax
  • abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea
A

GASTROINTESTINAL ANTHRAX

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24
Q
  • Wool sorter’s disease: from wool of sheep
  • severe case of anthrax
  • 5% of anthrax cases
  • once inhaled, mapunta sa alveoli of lungs, then papasok sa blood and then kakalat infection can be systemic
  • mediastinal widening: important diagnostic criterion (by xray)
A

INHALATION ANTHRAX

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25
Q

Bacillus anthracis

  • among persons who inject heroin contaminated with anthrax spores
  • resembles cutaneous anthrax
  • characterized by extensive, painless subcutaneous edema and the notable absence of the eschar
A

INJECTION ANTHRAX

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25
Q

Bacillus anthracis

Drug of Choice

A

Ciprofloxacin

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26
Q
A
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27
Q

Bacillus anthracis

Vaccine

A

AVA Biothrax Vaccine

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28
Q

Bacillus anthracis

Prophylaxis (prevention)

A

3 doses of biothrax vaccine
ciprofloxacin or doxycycline for 60 days

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29
Q

Bacillus cereus is also known as

A

FRIED RICE BACILLI

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30
Q

BACILLUS SPECIES

  • causes food poisoning
  • 2 distinct forms: emetic & diarrheal
  • 1-5 hours incubation period
  • hemolytic (destroys RBC)
  • motile
A

BACILLUS CEREUS

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31
Q

incubation period of Bacillus cereus

A

1-5 hours

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32
Q

Bacillus cereus

  • seen in fried rice, pasta, milk
  • nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps
A

EMETIC TYPE

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33
Q

Bacillus cereus

  • meat dishes & sauces
  • profuse diarrhea with abdominal pain & cramps
A

DIARRHEAL TYPE

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34
Q

B. cereus produce toxins that cause disease that is more of ____ than a food-borne infection

A

INTOXICATION

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35
Q

Bacillus cereus

EYE INFECTIONS

A

severe keratitis
endophthalmitis

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36
Q

Bacillus cereus

other clinical findings

A

ENDOCARDITIS
OSTEOMYELITIS
PNUEMONIA
CNS INFECTIONS

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37
Q

Bacillus cereus

catheter-associated ____

CLINICAL FINDINGS

A

BACTEREMIA

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38
Q

Bacillus cereus | TREATMENT

Foodborne infection

A
  • self limiting
  • stay hydrated – drink ORS
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39
Q

how to make ORS oral rehydration salts

A

6 tsp sugar, half level tsp salt, 1L water

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40
Q

Bacillus cereus | TREATMENT

Non-foodborne infection:
▪ ____ or ____ with or
without an aminoglycoside

A

Vancomycin
Clindamycin

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41
Q

Bacillus cereus | TREATMENT

Non-foodborne infection:
▪ ____ - wound infections

A

Ciprofloxacin

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42
Q
  • large, anaerobic, gram +
  • saprophytes
  • spore is placed centrally, subterminal (gitna ng dulo at central), or terminally (dulo)
  • can ferment variety of sugars & digest proteins
A

CLOSTRIDIUM SPECIES

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43
Q

Clostridium species

Large, ____, Gram-positive ____rods

A

Anaerobic, motile

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44
Q

Clostridium species

Spore is placed

3

A

centrally, subterminally, terminally

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45
Q

Clostridium species

can ____ variety of ____ and ____

A

ferment variety of sugars & digest proteins

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46
Q
  • causes botulism
  • produce 7 antigenic varieties of toxin
  • toxin is potent
  • found in soil, occasionally in animal feces
  • highly resistant to heat, withstanding 100ºC for several hours
A

CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM

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47
Q

Clostridium botulinum

Disease:

A

BOTULISM

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48
Q

Clostridium botulinum

Antigenic varieties affecting humans:

A

types A,B,E & F

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49
Q

Clostridium botulinum

Botulinum toxin blocks the release of
____ resulting to _____

A

ACETYLCHOLINE, FLACCID PARALYSIS

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50
Q

clostiridia grow well on what culture media

A

BLOOD-ENRICHED MEDIA

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51
Q

some clostiridia form colonies that ____ on the agar surface

A

spread or swarm

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52
Q

many clostiridia produce a zone of ____ on blood agar

A

β-hemolysis

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53
Q

characteritically produces a double zone of β-hemolysis around colonies

A

Clostiridium perfringens

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54
Q

Clostridium botulinum

types that have been associated with variety of foods

A

A & B

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55
Q

Clostridium botulinum

types that have been predominantly associated with fish products

A

E

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56
Q

Clostridium botulinum

type that produces limberneck in birds

A

C

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57
Q

Clostridium botulinum

type that causes botulism in mammals

A

D

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58
Q

Clostridium botulinum

type that is not associated with disease

A

G

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59
Q

Clostridium botulinum

once acquired -> go blood -> go brain (which part of the brain?)

A

presynapse, presynaptic membranes

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60
Q

Clostridium botulinum

  • inhibits the release of acetylcholine at the synapse
  • resulting in lack of muscle contraction & paralysis
  • by the L chain of botulinum toxin
A

PROTEOLYSIS of the target SNARE proteins

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61
Q

Clostridium botulinum

SNAP PROTEINS

A

synaptobrevin
SNAP 25
syntaxin

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62
Q

most toxic substances known

A

C. botulinum toxins

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63
Q

Clostridium botulinum

what is needed to release acetylcholine

A

FUSION (snare proteins)

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64
Q

Clostridium botulinum

  • canned good bacilli
  • commonly seen in spiced, smoked, vacuum packed (because it has anaerobic environment)
  • Botulism characterized by weakness of the eye muscles, drooping eyelids
  • usual cause of death is respiratory related
  • the effect is from head to toe (ulo muna pababa)
A

FOOD BOTULISM

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65
Q

Clostridium botulinum

  • most frequent vehicle is honey
  • the infant develops FLOPPY BABY SYNDROME
  • Adults with gastrointestinal anatomical abnormalities or functional disorders may develop this
A

INFANT BOTULISM

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66
Q

Clostridium botulinum

  • result of tissue contamination with spores
  • seen primarily in injection drug users
A

WOUND BOTULISM

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67
Q

Clostridium botulinum

TREATMENT & PREVENTION

A
  • Respiratory support
  • Trivalent antitoxin (ABE)
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68
Q

Clostridium botulinum

TREATMENT & PREVENTION:
for infants

A

botulinum immune globulin (BIG)

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69
Q
  • causes tetani
  • Non communicable
  • all share a common O antigen
  • all produce the same type of antigenic type of neurotoxin
  • uncontrollable muscle spasms
A

CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI

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70
Q

Clostridium tetani

Disease

A

TETANUS

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71
Q

Clostridium tetani

Neurotoxin produced:

A

TETANOSPASMIN

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72
Q

Clostridium tetani

blocks the release of inhibitory mediators resulting to hyperreflexia, muscle
spasms

A

TETANUS TOXIN

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73
Q

Clostridium tetani

tetanus toxin blocks the release of ____ resulting to _____

A

inhibitory mediators
hyperreflexia, muscle spasms

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74
Q

Clostridium tetani

forced grin

A

Risus sardonicus

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75
Q

Clostridium tetani

lock jaw

A

Trismus

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76
Q

Clostridium tetani

severe case of tetanus

A

OPSITHOTONOS

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77
Q

Clostridium tetani

tetanus vaccine

A

DPT

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78
Q

Clostridium tetani

TREATMENT

A

muscle relaxants, sedation & assisted ventilation
IV tetanus antitoxin

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79
Q

Clostridium tetani

ANTIBIOTIC

A

PENICILLIN

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80
Q

Clostridium tetani

PREVENTION

A
  • wound cleaning & debridement
  • Tetanus antitoxins & toxoid booster w penicillin (passive-active immunity)
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81
Q

Clostridium perfringens

Diseases

A

Gas gangrene
Food poisoning

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82
Q

Clostridium perfringens

Toxins porduced

A
  • Alpha toxin
  • Theta toxin
  • Epsilon
  • DNase and hyaluronidase
  • Enterotoxin
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83
Q

Clostridium perfringens | TOXINS

hemolytic & necrotizing effect

A

ALPHA TOXIN (lecithinase)

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84
Q

Clostridium perfringens | TOXINS

the alpha toxin is a

A

lecithinase

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85
Q

Clostridium perfringens | TOXINS

forms pores in cell membranes

A

theta toxin

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86
Q

Clostridium perfringens | TOXINS

edema & hemorrhage

A

Epsilon toxin

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87
Q

Clostridium perfringens | TOXINS

causes the spread of bacteria

A

DNase & hyaluronidase

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88
Q

Clostridium perfringens | TOXINS

  • food poisoning
  • meat dishes
A

Enterotoxin

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89
Q

Clostridium perfringens

  • spores reach the traumatized tissue or from the intestinal tract
  • necrosis
  • in large wounds cause by accidents
  • vegetative cells multiply, ferments carbohydrates, and produce gas
A

GAS GANGRENE

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90
Q

Clostridium perfringens

Gas gangrene is also known as

A

Clostridial myonecrosis

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90
Q

Clostridium perfringens

  • diarrhea & cramps
  • source: poultry products
  • enterotoxin (targets GI tract)
A

FOOD POISONING

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91
Q

Clostridium perfringens

TREATMENT

A
  • surgical debridement
  • hyperbaric oxygen
  • penicillin G antibiotics
  • polyvalent toxin
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91
Q

all that can cause food poisoning has

A

ENTEROTOXIN

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92
Q

Clostridium perfringens

TREATMENT:
food poisoning

A

symtpomatic treatment

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93
Q

common cause of nosicomial infection (hospital acquired)

A

CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICILE

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94
Q

Clostridium difficile

  • seen in patients w diarrhea & have been giving antibiotics
  • produces potent enterotoxins (A & B)
  • once produce enterotoxin, causes pseuodmembrane (inflammation of the membrane)
A

PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS

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95
Q

Clostridium difficile

  • characetrized by **mild to moderate diarrhea **
  • less severe than Pseudomembranous colitis
A

ANTIBIOTIC-ASSOCIATED DIARRHEA

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96
Q

in Clostridium difficile, diarrhea may be

A

WATERY or BLOODY

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97
Q

Clostridium difficile

the very first antibiotics that has been found to cause Psuedomembranous colitis

A

CLINDAMYCIN

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98
Q

Clostridium difficile | TREATMENT

____ offending antibiotics

A

discontinue

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99
Q

Clostridium difficile | TREATMENT

new antibiotics that can be administered:
Metronidazole, ____, or

A

vancomycin
fidaxomicin

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100
Q

Clostridium difficile

a succesful & routine method for the treatment of Pseudomembranus colitis

A

FECAL TRANSPLANT

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101
Q
  • club shaped rods that form metachromatic granules — can store phosphate
  • arranged in palusades or in V or L shaped
  • forms black colonies on tellurite media
  • chinese-letter arrangement of cells Loffler’s serum medium
  • 4 biotypes
  • aerobic, pleomorphic (shape can vary)
  • non motile
A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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102
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Shape:

A

club-shaped rods

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103
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Arrangement:

A

palusades or in V or L shaped

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104
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Forms black colonies on what media

A

tellurite media

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105
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Chinese-letter arrangement of cells what media

A

Loffler’s serum medium

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106
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

how many biotypes

A

4

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107
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • is a polypeptide with 2 fragments
  • heat-labile, single chain
  • inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor-2 (EF-2)
A

diphtheria toxin

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108
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

2 fragments of diptheria toxin

A

fragment A & B

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109
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylation of ____

A

elongation factor-2 (EF-2)

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110
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • what fragment allows the entry of toxin
  • for binding
A

fragment B

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111
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae | TRUE OR FALSE

all diphtheria had toxin

A

FALSE

some diphtheria are non toxinogenic

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112
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

where does the diphtheria toxin reside

A

upper respiratory tract

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113
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Role of bacteriophage

A

carries the code for diphtheria toxin

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114
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

acquisition happens in the presence of

A

bacteriophage

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115
Q

virus-infecting bacteria

A

bacteriophage

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116
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • acquired through airborne droplet
  • has a chance to be a systemic infection
  • a pseudomembrane is formed (commonly over tonsils down to the larynx)
  • enlargement of regional lymph node & marked edema in the neck can cause a bull neck appearance
  • Mycoarditis (necrosis in heart muscle) accompanied by arrhythmias & circulatory collapse
  • nerve weakness or paralysis of the soft palate, eye muscles, or etremities
A

Respiratory diphtheria

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117
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Respiratory diphtheria can be acquired through

A

airborne droplet

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118
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

what is formed in respiratory diphtheria

A

psueudomembrane

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119
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

common location of pseudomembrane

RESPIRATORY DIPHTHERIA

A

over tonsils down to the larynx

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120
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

enlargement of regional lymph node & marked edema in the neck can cause what appearance

RESPIRATORY DIPHTHERIA

A

bull neck appearance

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121
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • wound or skin diptheria
  • a membrane may be formed on an infected wound that fails to heal
  • localized infection
  • occurs chiefly in tropics
  • absorption of toxin is usually slight and the systemic effects are negligible
  • matagal mag heal
  • does not typically invade deep tissues & practically never enters the bloodstream
A

CUTANEOUS DIPHTHERIA

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122
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

diphtheria occurs only in persons who possess NO ____

A

antitoxin antibodis (IgG)

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123
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

antitoxin

A

Diphtheria antitoix (IM or IV)

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124
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

ANTIMICROBIAL DRUGS

A

Penicillin
Macrolides

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125
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Vaccine

A

Diphtheria toxoid (DPT)

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126
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Diphtheria toxoid is produced in what animal

A

horse

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127
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

test that detects the immunity to diphtheria

A

Schick test

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128
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Schick test:
check for reaction after how many days

A

4 - 7 days

129
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Schick test:
if there is NO immunity, there will be ____

A

inflammation

130
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Schick test:
if there is immunity, what will be observed

A

no inflammation

131
Q

Corynebacterium species are typically ____ (motility) and ____ (catalase)

A

nonmotile
catalase +

132
Q

Corynebacterium

grow slowly on sheep blood agar

A

lipophilic corynebacteria

133
Q
  • a psychotroph
  • most common cause of food spoilage in refrigerated environments
  • exhibits tumbling end-over-end motility but is temperature dependent (22-28C)
  • motile
  • β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate
  • facultative anaerobe & catalase positive (kaya mag produce ng catalase enzyme)
  • had **13 **serovars based on O (seen in cell wall) & H (in flagella) antigens
A

Listeria monocytogenes

134
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Pyschrophile or Psychrotoph?

A

psychrotoph

135
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Motility

A

tumbling end-over-end motility

136
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

oxygen requirement

A

facultative anaerobe

137
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

catalase

A

positive

138
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

temperature needed

A

22 - 28°C

139
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

type of hemolysis

A

β-hemolysis

140
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

produce β-hemolysis on what type of culture media

A

blood agar plate

141
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

how many serovars

A

13

142
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Virulence factors

A
  • Internalins A and B
  • Listeriolysin O
  • Act A
  • Filopods
  • Siderophores

I Am Bad Like Omg, Acting lang Filipino kaSi

143
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

  • has cell wall surface proteins called
  • these interact with E-cadherin, a receptor on epithelial cells, promoting phagocytosis into the epitheial cells
A

internalins A & B

144
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

after phagocytosis, the bacterium is enclosed in a phagolysosome, where the low pH activated the bacterium to produce ____

A

Listeriolysin O

145
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

  • a listerial surface protein
  • induces host cell actin polymerization, which propels them to the cell membrane
A

Act A

146
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

elongated protrusions

A

Filopods

147
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

allows the adherence and entrance of bacteria & will be phagocytized by the phagolysosome

A

Internalins A & B

148
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

environment inside phagolysosome is acidic, allowing the secretion of ____ which punctured the phagolysosome releasing back the bacteria to the cytoplasm & replicated

(cannot be digested anymore kz sira na un phagolysosome)

A

Listeriolysin O

149
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

will propell the organism so that it would move & infect another cell

(itulak sa ibang cell na pede i-infect)

A

Act A protein

150
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

the panunulak of Act A protein will cause the formation of a bubble called

A

Filopod

151
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | VIRULENCE FACTORS

steal iron from the cell

A

Siderophores

152
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Transmission

A

Vertical transmission

across the placenta to the fetus or during dlivery

153
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

two forms of perinatal human listeriosis

A

early-onset
late-onset

154
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | PERINATAL HUMAN LISTERIOSIS

early-onset is also called

A

garnulomatosis infantseptica

155
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | PERINATAL HUMAN LISTERIOSIS

  • the result of infection in uterus
  • a disseminated form of the disease
  • characterized by neonatal sepsis (death, overreaction of cells), pustular lesions, and granulomas (nagkakabukol ang organs)
A

Early-onset syndrome
granulomatosis infantseptica

156
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | PERINATAL HUMAN LISTERIOSIS

  • development of meningitis between birth and the third week of life
  • nahawa ang baby during delivery
  • mother is asymptomatic or mild influenza-like symptoms
A

Late-onset syndrome

157
Q

Listeria monocytogenes | CLINICAL FINDINGS

  • mild
  • self-limiting; lasting 1-3 days
  • incubation period: 6 - 48 hours
  • fever, chills, headache, myalgias, abdominal pain, & diarrhea
A

Gastroenteritis

158
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

  • can develop Listeria meningoencephalitis
  • more on brain infections
A

IMMUNOCOMPROMISED

159
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Vaccine

A

NO vaccine available

160
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Antibiotics:
for meningitis & sepsis

A

Ampicillin w/ or w/o gentamicin

161
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Antibiotics:
CNS infections for patients allergic to penicillin

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

162
Q
  • short chains or nonbranching filaments
  • disease of animals → erysipelas
  • disease of humans → erysipeloid
  • madalas nakukuha sa SWINE
  • α-hemolytic on blood agar
  • catalase negative
  • distributed in land & sea animals
A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

163
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

may be α-hemolytic on what type of culture media

A

blood agar

164
Q

what is produced when Erysipelothrix is grown on triple sugar iron agar (TSI)

A

hydrigen sulfide
H2S

165
Q

what will be the color of TSI when H2S is produced

A

butt black

166
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is resistant to what drug

A

vancomycin

167
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

  • most common E. rhusiopathiae infection in humans
  • usually occurs in fingers by direct inoculation at the site of a cut or abrasion
  • called as seal finger or whale finger
  • incubation: 2-7 days
  • lesion is raised, well circumcised, violaceous in color
  • pus is not present
  • persons with greatest risk: fishermen, fish handlers, bucthers
A

ERYSIPELOID

168
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Treatment of erysipeloid

A

can resolve without treatment

169
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

erysipeloid is acquired by

A

direct inoculation from animals or animal products

170
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Rare infections

A

diffuse cutaneous form
bacteremia w/ or w/o endocarditis

171
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

drug of choice for erysipeloid

A

Penicillin G

172
Q
  • coccoid organisms that are modified acid-fast
  • salmon pink smooth colonies
  • common cause of necrotizing pneumonia
  • present in soil & dung of herbivores
  • cause disease in cattle, sheep, and swine
  • can cause severe pulmonary & extrapulmonary infections in foals
A

Rhodococcus equi

173
Q

Rhodococcus equi

modified ____ when stained by Kinyoun method

A

acid-fast positive

174
Q
  • thin, branching, beaded aerobic bacteria
  • filamentous organisms with hyphae-like branching
  • weakly acid fast
  • opportunistic pathogens
  • found in soil & water
  • initiated by inhalation
  • catalase positive
  • produce urease
  • cause systemic disease primarily in immunocompromised patients
A

Nocardia

175
Q

Nocardia

oxygen requirement

A

aerobic

176
Q

Nocardia

component of cell wall

A

mycolic acid

177
Q

Nocardia

what type of pathogen

A

opportunistic

178
Q

Nocardia

main clinical presentation

A

Pulmonary nocardiosis

179
Q

Nocardia

primary route of bacterial exposure

A

inhalation

180
Q

Nocardia

associated with most primary cutaneous infections that usually result from trauma

A

Nocardia brasiliensis

181
Q

Nocardia

drug of choice

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

182
Q

Nocardia

species are best identified after recovery on routine media by ____

A

molecular methods

183
Q

Nocardia

usual pathologic process

A

abscess formation

184
Q
  • short or club shaped, long thin, beaded filaments
  • branched or unbranched
  • aerotolerant
  • produce colonies on agar that resemble molar teeth
A

Actinomyces

185
Q

Actinomyces

disease

A

Actinomycosis

186
Q

Actinomyces

shape

A

club-shaped

187
Q

Actinomyces

  • a chronic suppurative and granulomatous infection
  • produces pyogenic lesions
  • inititated by trauma
  • causes swelling and may spread to neighboring organs, including bones
A

Actinomycosis

188
Q

Actinomyces

  • presents as swollen, erythematosus prcoess in the jaw area
  • known as lumpy jaw
  • mas becomes fluctuant, producing draining fistulas
  • disease will extend to contiguous tissue, bone, and lymph nodes of the head & neck
A

Cervicofacial actinomycosis

189
Q

Actinomyces

Cervicofacial actinomycosis is also known as

A

lump jaw

190
Q

Actinomyces

  • symptoms resemble those of a subacute pulmonary infection
  • mild fever, cough, and purulent sputum
  • lung tissue is destroyed, sinus tracts may erupt, invasion of ribs
A

Thoracic actinomycosis

191
Q

Actinomyces

  • often follows a ruptured appendix or an ulcer
A

Abdominal actinomycosis

192
Q

Actinomyces

  • rare occurenece in women
  • results from colonization of an intrauterine device with subsequent invasion
A

Genital actinomycosis

193
Q

Actinomyces

Treatment

A

administration of Penicillin for 6-12mos

194
Q

Actinomyces

drug alternatives

A

Clindamycin
Erythromycin

195
Q
  • members of normal microbiota
  • metabolic products include propionic acid
  • highly pleomorphic
  • curved, clubbed, or pointed ends; long forms with beaded uneven staining
A

Cutibacterium

196
Q
  • opportunistic pathogens
  • cause the disease acne vulgaris
  • produces lipase that split free fatty acids off from skin lipids
  • fatty acids can produce tissue inflammation that contributes to acne formation
  • cause of postsurgical wounds, particularly those that involve insertion of devices
A

Cutibacterium acnes

197
Q

Cutibacterium acnes

disease

A

acne vulgaris

198
Q

Cutibacterium acnes

causes acne vulgaris by producing ____

A

lipases

199
Q

Cutibacterium acnes is formerly known as

A

Propionibacterium acnes

200
Q

Staphylococcus

catalase, coagulase

A

catalase +, coagulase -

201
Q

staphylococcus coagulase test

only ____ is positive in the test

A

S. aureus

202
Q

only staphyloccocus that is coagulase positive

A

S. aureus

203
Q

test for S. epidermidis & S. saprophyticus

A

novobiocin

204
Q

STAPHYLOCOCCUS

has resistance in novobiocin

A

S. saprophyticus

205
Q

STAPHYLOCOCCUS

susceptible in novobiocin

A

S. epidermidis

206
Q
  • catalase positive; coagulase negative
  • nonmotile
  • do not form spores
  • grapelike irregular clusters
  • slowly ferment carbohydrates, produce lactic acid but not gas
  • rapidly develop resistance to any antimicrobial agents
  • produce catalase
  • resistant to drying & heat
A

STAPHYLOCCOCI

207
Q
  • major pathogen for humans
  • forms golden yellow colonies
  • ferments mannitol
  • hemolyzes RBC
  • halotolerant
A

Staphylococcus aureus

208
Q

only staphyloccoci that ferments mannitol

A

Staphylococcus aureus

209
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | MECHANISMS OF RESISTANCE

responsible for resistance to many penicillins

A

β-lactamase

210
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | MECHANISMS OF RESISTANCE

what causes resistance to penicillins

A

β-lactam ring

211
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | MECHANISMS OF RESISTANCE

what causes resistance to nafcillin, methocillin, oxacillin

A

mecA & mecC genes

212
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | MECHANISMS OF RESISTANCE

how many types of SCCmec

A

12

213
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

HA-MRSA (hospital acquired)

A

Types I, II III, VI & VIII

214
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | MECHANISMS OF RESISTANCE

  • CA-MRSA (community acquired)
  • less resistant, more transmissible
A

type IV

215
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | MECGANISMS OF RESISTANCE

partially resistance

A

Vancomycin-Intermediate S. aureus (VISA)

216
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | MECGANISMS OF RESISTANCE

completely resistant; encoded by vanA gene

A

Vancomycin-Resistant S. aureus (VRSA)

217
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ANTIGENIC STRUCTURE

  • thick polysaccharide polymer
  • has endotoxin-like activities
  • produce IL-1
  • can be a chemoattractant
  • can activate complement
A

PEPTIDOGLYCAN

218
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ANTIGENIC STRUCTURE

  • polymers of ribotol phosphate
  • mediate adherence
  • important in cell wall metabolism
  • can be antigenic
A

TEICHOIC ACID

219
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ANTIGENIC STRUCTURE

  • found in the cell wall of S. aureus
  • belongs to group of adhesins called microbial surface components recognizing adhesive matrix molecules (MSCRAMMs)
  • binds to Fc fragment of IgG preventing complement activation
A

PROTEIN A

220
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

  • produced by staphylococci
  • converts hydrogen peroxide into water & oxygen
  • positive for staphylococci, negative for streptococci
A

CATALASE

221
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

  • an enzyme-like protein that clots oxalated or citrated plasma
  • activate prothrombin to form enzyme thrombin
  • considered synonymous with invasive pathogenic potential
A

COAGULASE

222
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

  • an MSCRAMM
  • responsible for the adherence of microorganisms to fibrinogen and fibrin
  • induces a strong immunogenic response in the host
A

CLUMPING FACTOR

223
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

regulated by agr

A

HEMOLYSIN

224
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

Hemolysin:
acts on a broad spectrum of eukaryotic cell membranes

A

α-hemolysin

225
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

Hemolysins:
degrades sphingomyelin and therefore is toxic to many kinds of cells including human red blood cells

A

β-hemolysin

226
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

Hemolysins:
* dissociates into subunits in nonionic detergents
* it disrupts biologic mmebranes and may have a role in S. aureus diarrheal diseases

A

δ-hemolysin

227
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

Hemolysins:
* a leukocidin
* lyses white blood cells

A

γ-hemolysin

228
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

  • kills WBCs
  • important virulence factor in CA-MRSA
A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin

229
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

  • epidermolytic toxin
  • dissolve mucopolysaccharide matrix of the epidermis
  • toxins are superantigens
A

EXFOLIATIVE TOXINS

230
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

Exfoliative toxin:
* encoded by eta
* located on a phage
* heat stable
* resists boiling for 20 mins

A

Exfoliative toxin A

231
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

Exfoliative toxin:
* plasmid mediated
* heat labile

A

Exfoliative toxin B

232
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

  • heat stable
  • resistant ot the action of gut enzymes
  • cause of food poisoning
  • produced when S. aureus grows in carbohydrate & protein foods
  • vomiting & diarrhea
A

ENTEROTOXIN

233
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

234
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | ENZYMES & TOXINS

formation of enzymes

A

Kinase

235
Q

S. areus can destroy penicillin through formation of ____

A

biofilms

236
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Clinical findings

A

nose
skin
vagina

237
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Infection from S areus can be

A

pyogenic
toxin-mediated

238
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | CLINICAL FINDINGS

  • Abscess on foot
  • Impetigo
  • Folliculitis
  • Carbuncle
A

Skin & soft tissue infections

239
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | CLINICAL FINDINGS

Skin & soft tissue infections:
* vesicles w/ honey-colored crust
* usually around nose, lips

A

IMPETIGO

240
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | CLINICAL FINDINGS

Skin & soft tissue infections:
* multiheaded abscess at the back of the neck
* worst

A

CARBUNCLE

241
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | CLINICAL FINDINGS

post-operative wound infections or infections after a trauma (osteomyelitis & meningitis)

A

Infection from direct contamination of the wound

242
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | CLINICAL FINDINGS

  • Incubation period : 1-8 hours
  • nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
  • rapid recovery & no fever; no antibiotic needed
A

Food poisoning (Gastroenteritis)

243
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | CLINICAL FINDINGS

  • vomiting, diarrhea, myalgiad, hypotension w cardiac & renal failure
  • often occurs within 5 days after the onset of the menses in young women
  • toxin production happens during menstruation
A

TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME

244
Q
A
245
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | CLINICAL FINDINGS

  • Exofoliative toxin A - heat stable
  • B - heat liable
  • common in children (esp infants)
A

scalded skin syndrome

246
Q
  • coagulase negative
  • novobocin-sensitive
  • pyogenic
  • major cause of sepsis
  • part of the normal flora of the skin & mucous membrane
  • commonly infects IV catheters & prosthetic implants
A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

247
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis

part of the normal flora of the ____ & ____

A

skin & mucous membrane

248
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis

commonly infects ____ & ____

A

IV catheters & prosthetic implants

249
Q
  • coagulase negative
  • causes UTI, particularly in sexually active women
  • novobocin-resistance
  • pyogenic
  • common cause of UTI (1st E. coli, 2nd ____)
A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

250
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

causes ____ particularly in sexually active women

A

UTI

251
Q

top 2 common causes of UTI

A
  1. E. coli
  2. S. saphrophyticus
252
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | TREATMENT

Drug

A

Penicillin G

253
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | TREATMENT

Skin infections

A

Mupurocin

254
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | TREATMENT

multiple skin infections

A

Tetracycline

255
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | TREATMENT

MRSA / NRSA:
drug of choice

A

Vancomycin

256
Q

Staphylococcus aureus | TREATMENT

severe infections

A

Nafcillin
Cloxacillin

257
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis | TREATMENT

drug of choice

A

Dalbavancin
Tedizolid phosphate
Oritavancin

258
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis | TREATMENT

  • long half life, 300 hours half life
  • dosing: once a week (same with dalba)
A

ORITAVANCIN

259
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus | TREATMENT

drug of choice

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin)

both are for UTI

260
Q
A
261
Q
  • in chains or in pairs
  • widely distributed
  • catalase negative
A

STREPTOCOCCI

262
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

  • partial hemolysis
  • Strep pnuemoniae
  • Viridans
A

α-hemolytic

263
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

  • complete hemolysis
  • Strep pyogenes
  • Agalactiae
A

β-hemolytic

264
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

  • no hemolysis
  • enterococcus
A

γ-hemolytic

265
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

GROUP A

A

Strep. pyogenes

266
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

Group B

A

Strep. agalactiae

267
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

Group A, C, G

A

Strep. dysgalactiae

268
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

Group D

A

Strep. bovis

269
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

Group F

A

Strep. anginosus

270
Q

STREPTOCOCCI | α-hemolytic

  • optochin sensitive
  • bile soluble
  • has capsule
  • quellung + (test)
A

Strep pneumoniae

271
Q

STREPTOCOCCI | α-hemolytic

  • optochin resistance
  • bile insoluble
  • no capsule
A

Viridans

272
Q

STREPTOCOCCI | β-hemolytic

bacitracin sensitive

A

Strep pyogenes

273
Q

STREPTOCOCCI | β-hemolytic

bacitracin resistant

A

Strep agalactiae

274
Q
  • produce capsules
  • composed of hyaluronic acid
  • cell wall contains proteins
  • hairlike pili
A

Streptococcus pyogenes

275
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

capsule is composed of ____

A

hyaluronic acid

276
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

cell wall proteins

A

M protein

277
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

  • main virulence factor
  • if wala ito, S. pyogenes cannot cause a disease
A

M PROTEIN

278
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | ENZYMES

  • dissolves blood clot
  • transforms the plasminogen of human plasma into plasmin
A

STREPTOKINASE

279
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | ENZYMES

degrades DNA

A

DEOXYRIBONUCLEASE

280
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | ENZYMES

  • spreading factor
  • allows the bacteria to spread
A

HYALURONIDASE

281
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | ENZYMES

toxic shock syndrome & scarlet fever

A

Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxins
SpeA

282
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | ENZYMES

Streptolysin O & S

A

Hemolysin

283
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | ENZYMES

  • oxygen labile (sensitive to oxygen)
  • can trigger antibody production
  • colonies grow under the agar
A

Streptolysin O

284
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | ENZYMES

  • stable
  • not antigenic
  • colonies grow on surface of agar
A

Streptolysin S

285
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | PATHOGENESIS

  • lesions are raised
  • POE: skin
  • has well-demarcated line or margin of infection
A

ERYSIPELAS

286
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | PATHOGENESIS

  • not raised
  • can abot to subcutaneous tissue
  • rapidly spreading
  • line is indistinct
A

CELLULITIS

287
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | PATHOGENESIS

  • flesh eating bacteria
  • extensive & very rapidly spreading necrosis
A

NECROTIZING FASCIITIS

288
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | PATHOGENESIS

strep enters the uterus after delivery

A

PUERPERAL FEVER

289
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | PATHOGENESIS

infection of traumatic or surgical wounds

A

BACTEREMIA or SEPSIS

290
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | DISEASES

  • most common infection
  • caused by β-hemolytic pyogenes
  • thin serous discharge & little fever
  • cervical lymph nodes are usually enlarged
A

PHARYNGITIS

291
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes | DISEASES

  • local infection of superficial layers of skin, especially in children
  • consists of superficial vesicles that break down and eroded areas whose denuded surface is covered with pus and later is encrusted
  • spreads by continuity
  • highly communicable, especially in hot, humid climates
A

IMPETIGO

292
Q

Poststreptococcal Diseases

  • most serious sequela of S. pyogenes
  • results in damage to heart muscle & valve
A

Rheumatic Fever

293
Q

All S. pyogenes are uniformly susceptible with

A

Penicillin G

294
Q

S. pyogenes

alternative drugs for penicillin-allergic patients

A

Macrolides (Erythromycin& Clindamycin)

295
Q
  • β-hemolytic
  • produce zones of hemolysis
  • positive to CAMP
  • part of the normal vaginal flora and lower gastrointestinal tract of women
  • may cause ????
A

Streptococcus agalactiae

296
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

positive for

A

CAMP test

297
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

part of normal ____ in women

A

vaginal flora

298
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

Prevention

A

IV ampicillin

299
Q
  • α-hemolytic but can also be nonhemolytic
  • growth is not inhibited by optochin
  • colonies are not soluble in bile
  • most prevalent members of the normal microbiota of the upper respiratory tract
  • important for the healthy state of mucous membrane in URT
  • principal cause of endocarditis on abnormal heart valves
A

Viridans Streptococci

300
Q

Viridans Streptococci agalactiae

part of the normal microbiota of ____

A

upper respiratory tract

301
Q

Viridans Streptococci agalactiae

may cause ____

A

endocarditis

302
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

shape

A

lancet shaped

303
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

positive for

A

capsule swelling test
quellung reaction

304
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

TYPES OF PNEUMOCOCCI:
adults

A

type 1 - 8

305
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

TYPES OF PNEUMOCOCCI:
children

A

types 6, 14, 19, 23

306
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

production of disease

A

ability to multiply in the tissues

307
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

what drug sila resistant

A

Penicillin G

308
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae | PREVENTION

Children younger than 24 mos

A

complete series of PCV 7 to PCV 13

309
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae | PREVENTION

Older children & those with underlying medical conditions

A

PCV 7 & single dose of PCV 13

310
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae | PREVENTION

Adults 19 y/o or older that are immunocompromised and 65 y/o

A

PPSV23
PCV13

311
Q

Enterococci

part of the normal ____ microbiota

A

enteric

312
Q

Enterococci

grow in the presence of ____

A

BILE

313
Q

Enterococci

hydrolyze ____

A

esculin

314
Q

Enterococci

grows in ____ NaCl

A

6.5%

315
Q

Enterococci

  • most commonly isolated species
  • causing 85 - 90% of enterococcal infections
A

E. faecalis

316
Q

Enterococci

causes 5 - 10% of entercoccal infections

A

E. faecium

317
Q

Enterococci

most common form of enterococcal infection

A

UTI

318
Q

Enterococci | INFECTIONS

  • often polymicrobial
A

intraabdominal & pelvic infections

319
Q

Enterococci | INFECTIONS

frequently associated with metastatic abscess and high mortality rates

A

bacteremia & endocarditis

320
Q

Enterococci | INFECTIONS

infections of the respiratory tract

A

pneumonia, otitis, sinusitis

321
Q

Enterococci | INFECTIONS

infection of the central nervous system

A

meningitis

322
Q

Enterococci | INFECTIONS

can be acquired during vaginal delivery

A

neonatal infections

323
Q

Enterococci | TREATMENT

drug of choice

A

penicillin or vancomycin plus

MICROPARA (37 decks)

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