Kapitel 96 - Hepatic Vascular anomalies Flashcards

1
Q

List the tributes of the portal vein from caudal to cranial. Which one is the largest tributes?

A

a. Cranial mesenteric vein (drains small intestine) and caudal mesenteric vein (drains colon and proximal rectum)
b. Splenic vein (drains spleen and the stomach via the left gastric vein
c. in dogs, the gastroduodenal vein, which drains portions of the pancreas, duodenum, and stomach (does not exists in cats)

 The cranial mesenteric vein is the largest portal vein tributary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does functional and structural closure of ductus venosus occur?

A

a. Functional: 2-6 days after birth

b. Structural: Within 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name the three categories of liver vasculature disease

A

a. congenital PSS

b. Primary hypoplasia of the portal vein (PVH
i. PVH with portal hypertension and PVH without portal hypertension.

c. Disturbances in portal outflow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the shunts

A

A. Portal vein to caudal vena cava.
B. Portal vein to azygos vein.
C. Left gastric vein to caudal vena cava.
D. Splenic vein to caudal vena cava.
E. Left gastric, cranial mesenteric, caudal mesenteric, or gastroduodenal vein to caudal vena cava.
F. Combinations of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What toxic impact does ammonia have in hepatic enchaphalopathy?

A

a. Increases brain tryptophan and glutamine
b. decreases ATP availability
c. increases neuronal and cellular excitability
d. increases glycolysis
e. can cause brain edema
f. decreases microsomal Na+,K+-ATPase in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List suggestive causes of coagulopathy in liver failure

A

a. decreased factor synthesis and increased factor utilization
b. increased fibrinolysis and tissue thromboplastin release
c. synthesis of abnormal coagulants (dysfibrinogenemia)
d. decreased platelet function and numbers
e. vitamin K deficiency (particularly in bile duct obstruction)
f. increased production of anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what type of urinary stone can be seen in patients with PSS? And why?

A

a. Urate urolithiasis
b. Decreased urea production, increased renal ammonia excretion, and decreased uric acid metabolism leads to formation of ammonium urate calculi and can be associated with secondary bacterial urinary tract infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Are neurological signs more commonly seen in congenital PSS or acquired PSS?

A

Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What abnormalities could be seen in patients with PSS in a. Hematology,
b. biochemistry
c. urinalysis and
d. liver function tests?

A

a. Microcytosis with or without associated normochromic, nonregenerative anemia (microcytosis typically resolves after shunt attenuation), target cells in dogs and poikilocytes in cats. Leukocytosis may occur (associated with a poor prognosis).

b. Hypoalbuminemia (uncommon in cats), reduced BUN, hypocholesterolemia, and hypoglycemia. Mild to moderate increases in serum liver enzyme activities (two- to three-fold increases in alkaline phosphatase and alanine aminotransferase values, if more than 4-fold suspect concurrent liver disease–> take biopsy)

c. Decreased urine specific gravity and ammonium biurate crystalluria and sometimes proteinuria.

d. Increase in bile acid concentration (could be positive for other reasons) and increased ammonia concentration (not as sencitive as bile acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What clotting factors are synthesised by the liver?

A

1, 2, 5, 9, 10, 11 and 12 as well as 9 via liver vascular endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List differentials to hepatic vascular anomalies.

A

a. toy-breed hypoglycemia
b. hydrocephalus
c. atlantoaxial subluxation
d. idiopathic epilepsy
e. gastrointestinal parasitism
f. hypoadrenocorticism
g. protein-losing enteropathy
h. other primary hepatopathies (e.g., dissecting lobar hepatitis, chronic hepatitis, leptospirosis)
i. toxicity
j. enzyme deficiencies associated with the urea cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

briefly outline the medical treatment for portosystemic shunts

A

a. Fluid therapy and slow correction of hypokalemia or metabolic acidosis. Addition of glucose, especially in puppies
b. Warm water enemas, oral or rectal lactulose to reduce ammonia uptake and decrease colonic bacterial number
c. Antibiotics to decrease urease producing bacteria
d. Seizure control – Levatiracetam
e. If bleeding, anemia or coagulopathies – blood products. Fresh wole blood is preferred because stored RBCs contain increased ammonia concentrations, which could worsen clinical signs in case of hepatic encephalopathy.
f. Nutritional management – moderate protein restricted
g. Gastrointestinal protection in case of gastric ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where can you place catherers to measure the portal pressure?

A

Splenic, jejunal or portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For ameroid constrictors. How much is the internal diameter reduced and when is shunt attenuation most rapid?

A

a. 32%
b. During the first 3-14 days after implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What size of Ameroid constrictor should be used?

A

It depends on the size of the vessel and the constrictors internal diameter should be larger than the vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are visual signs of portal hypertension after attenuation of PSS?

A

a. pallor or cyanosis of the intestines
b. increased intestinal peristalsis
c. cyanosis or edema of the pancreas
d. increased mesenteric vascular pulsations.

17
Q

What are the recommended portal pressure post attenuation?

A

a. a maximum portal pressure of 17 to 24 cm H2O (12.5 to 17.6 mm Hg)
b. maximal change in portal pressure of 9 to 10 cm H2O (6.6 to 7.35 mm Hg),
c. maximal decrease in central venous pressure of 1 cm H2O (0.74 mm Hg)

18
Q

for how long can the liver tolerate temporary blood occlusion?

A

Up to 20 min but should be limited to 10-15 min to avoid intestinal ischemia.

19
Q

What is the post-op treatment after shunt attenuation?

A

a. Fluid therapy and pain management
b. Continuation on lactulose for about 4-6 weeks
c. Contuniation of protein restricted diet
d. Recheck of bile acids and biochem after 2-3 month.
e. The animals is typically slowly weaned of medical treatment over a 2-3 month period, starting with antibiotics, then lactulose then diet.
f. If bile acid continues to be moderately increased medical treatment is continued and the animal is rechecked every 5-6 month

20
Q

list possible complications associated with surgical shunt attenuation

A

a. hypoglycemia
b. hemorrhage
c. coagulopathy
d. anemia
e. portal hypertension
f. thrombus formation
g. seizures
h. arrhythmias
i. peritonitis
j. bacterial hepatitis
k. sepsis
l. sudden death
m. recurrence of clinical signs

21
Q

what is the primary surgical treatment for hepatic arteriovenous malformation?

A

Liver lobectomy of affected lobe.

22
Q

Give examples of interventional techniques for shunt attenuation

A

a. Percutaneous transjugular coil embolization
b. Cyanoacrylate gule embolization