Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adults > Intravenous Therapy (exam 1) > Flashcards

Intravenous Therapy (exam 1) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of IV therapy?

A

-maintain and replace fluids
-provide glucose and nutrition
-access to administer meds
-administer blood
-emergency access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how often should you change an IV site?

A

96 hours or 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does IID stand for?

A

intermittent diffusion device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how often should you flush an IID?

A

q8h to check patency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what should you assess and IV site for?

A

-infiltration
-swelling
-redness
-tender
-pain
-cool skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

larger number IV = ________ size

A

smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what gauge IV is most common?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what gauges (IV) are used for trauma or surgery?

A

16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what gauge IV is for rapid or large volume transfusions, trauma, or high risk surgery?

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what gauge IV is for trauma, surgery, viscous solutions, blood transfusions, and requires a large vein?

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what gauge IV is for routine infusions and IV access?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what gauge IV is for small fragile veins, older adults, and slow infusions?

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What gauge IV is for slow flow rates, pediatric, and elderly?

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

phenytoin is not compatible with ___?

A

D5W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what should you check for regarding IV med administration?

A

-compatibility
-dilution
-rate of administration
-allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the diffusion ratio for lorazepam?

A

1:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how long should a morphine push take?

A

5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is an adenosine push quick or slow?

A

quick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what port should be cleaned and used?

A

port closest to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how mush should be flushed before and after meds?

A

3-5 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

should you flush before meds, after, or both?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what should never be administered through a TPN or PCA line?

A

IVP or IVPB meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is used for long term therapy or tissue toxic meds such as cardiac or chemo meds?

A

central venous catheter (central line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what kind of line can be inserted sterile at the bedside?

A

PICC line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

hoe many ports can a central line have?

A

1/2/3/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when can you use a central line for the first time?

A

after a chest x-ray has been done to confirm placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where does a PICC line connect

A

superior vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what can’t be done in an arm with a PICC?

A

no BP, blood draws, venipunctures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

can you draw blood from a PICC?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how much saline should you flush a PICC with?

A

20 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where are implanted ports (Vein) and how to access them?

A

implanted in superior vena cava and accessed by holding skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do you assure placement of an implanted port?

A

CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how do you access an implanted port?

A

using a non-coring needle (huber needle w/ curve at the end)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

steps to access an implanted port?

A

-prime Huber w/ saline
-hold port and access into rubber stopper
-flush and draw back for blood return
-closed with U100 heparin (keeps port from clotting off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how much should you flush an imported port with

A

10 ml (can blow vessel if too small amt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what should you assure before using an implanted port?

A

blood return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when using an IV piggyback, the ______ bag hangs the highest

A

secondary (piggyback)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

when using an IV piggyback, the ______ bag hangs lower than the other bag

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what should you always check involving IVPB?

A

compatability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If hanging an IVPB with fluids running…..

A

-use the secondary tubing
-hang the primary lower using hook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

if you hang an IVPB without primary fluids running….

A

hang the PB alone, but you will lose some fluids in the tubing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

steps to prime tubing

A

-clamp tubing
-spike
-clean
-squeeze 1/3
-open it and let fluid flow to the end
-reclamp
-connect, flush pt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pt. comes to ER after car accident, what kind of IV should the nurse start?
-18g peripheral
-22g peripheral
-port-a-cath
-PICC

A

18g (trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

before giving meds IVP via central line which step should be taken?
-apply tourniquet
-hang normal saline bolus
-check blood return
-start peripheral IV

A

check blood return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are crystalloids?

A

clear fluids such as saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are colloids?

A

fluids that cant be seen through (blood, TPN, lipids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is tonicity?

A

when homeostasis serum = other body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is when the fluid has the same tonicity as other body fluids?

A

isotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is when fluid shifts out of the blood

A

hypotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is when fluid is pulled into the vascular system?

A

hypertonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what has osmolality close to that of the extracellular fluid and do not cause cells to swell or shrink

A

isotonic solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are examples of isotonic solutions?

A

-normal saline
-5% dextrose in water (D5W)
-lactated ringers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what fluids exert less osmotic pressure than ECF

A

hypotonic (they let fluid in if the pressure is less)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what fluids are used to replace cellular fluid

A

hypotonic solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are types of hypotonic solutions?

A

0.45% NaCl (half saline)

56
Q

what fluids have osmotic pressure greater than ECF

A

hypertonic (pressure is greater, so they push fluid out)

57
Q

what fluids are use in hyponatremia and cerebral edema?

A

hypertonic solutions

58
Q

what is an example of a hypertonic solution?

A

3% NaCl (3x amount)

59
Q

normal sodium level

A

135-145

60
Q

normal potassium level

A

3.5-5

61
Q

normal chloride level

A

98-106

62
Q

normal bicarb level

A

24-31

63
Q

normal calcium level

A

8.8-10.5

64
Q

normal phosphorus level

A

2.5-4.5

65
Q

normal magnesium level

A

1.8-3.6

66
Q

what classifies as hyponatremia?

A

sodium less than 135

67
Q

what are causes of hyponatremia?

A

diuretics (pee out sodium)
N/V/D (rid sodium)
overhydration (dilutes sodium)

68
Q

what are symptoms of hyponatremia?

A

-N/V
-HA/ SEIZURES!!
-extreme conufsion/psychosis

69
Q

what classifies as hypernatremia?

A

sodium greater than 145

70
Q

what are causes of hypernatremia?

A

-dehydration
-heat stroke
-burns

71
Q

signs/symptoms of hypernatremia

A

-thirst
-fever
-seizures
-hyperactive muscles/twitching

72
Q

value for hypokalemia

A

less than 3.5

73
Q

causes of hypokalemia?

A

diarrhea
gastric suction/vomit
diuretics

74
Q

s/sx of hypokalemia

A

weakness/cramps
constipation
dysrhythmias

75
Q

what kind of dysrhythmias are associated with hypokalemia?

A

tachy/PVCs (premature ventricular contraction can lead to v-tach)

76
Q

value for hyperkalemia

A

greater than 5

77
Q

causes of hyperkalemia

A

kidney disease
diuretics (spirinolactone)
burns

78
Q

s/sx of hyperkalemia

A

weakness
paresthesia
dysrhythmias

79
Q

what dysrhythmias are associated with hyperkalemia?

A

brady/wide QRS

80
Q

what classifies as hypocalcemia?

A

less than 8.8

81
Q

what causes hypocalcrmia?

A

-parathyroid disorder
-vit. D deficiency
-poor absorption

82
Q

s/sx of hypocalcemia

A

-numb/tingle
-Trousseaus (toes) and Chovstek (rigid muscle in cheek)
-seizures

83
Q

what classifies as hypercalcemia?

A

greater than 10.4

84
Q

what causes hypercalcemia?

A

parathyroid disorder
-tumor
-calcium supplemets

85
Q

s/sx of hypercalcemia

A

weakness/fractures
constipation
weak reflexes

86
Q

what classifies hypomagnesemia

A

less than 1.8

87
Q

what causes hypomagnesemia?

A

alcoholism
diarrhea
malabsorption

88
Q

s/sx of hypomagnesemia

A

-trousseaus and chvostek (and seizures)
increased reflexes
EKG chamges

89
Q

what classifies hypermagnesemia?

A

greater than 2.6

90
Q

what causes hypermagnesemia?

A

adrenal insufficiency (addison’s disease)
hypothyroidism

91
Q

s/sx of hypermagnesemia

A

flushimg
weak reflexes
EKG changes

92
Q

what classifies hypophosphatemia?

A

less than 2.7

93
Q

what causes hypophosphatemia?

A

alcohol use
low magnesium
Vomit/diarrhea

94
Q

s/sx of hypophosphatemia

A

muscle weakness
confusion
seizures

95
Q

what classifies hyperphosphatemia?

A

greater than 4.5

96
Q

causes of hyperphosphatemia?

A

kidney disease
dehydration

97
Q

s/sx of hyperphosphatemia

A

N/V
muscle weakness
low reflexes

98
Q

what classifies hypochloremia?

A

less than 96

99
Q

causes of hypochloremia?

A

-vomit/suction/sweat
-diuretics
-addison’s disease (adrenal insuff.)

100
Q

s/sx of hypochloremia

A

agitation
muscle cramps
seizures

101
Q

what classifies hyperchloremia

A

greater than 108

102
Q

what causes hyperchloremia

A

excessive NaCl infusion
kidney injury
dehydration

103
Q

s/sx of hyperchloremia

A

weakness
edema
seizures

104
Q

when reviewing labs, pt. potassium is 5.6 what intervention should you take?
-call MD for tele order
-place seizure pads on bed
-hold AM furosemide
-check Chvostek sign

A

tele order (leads to arrythmias)

105
Q

what complication is when fluid leaks from the vessel to the tissue?

A

infiltration

106
Q

what complication is inflammation of the vein?

A

phlebitis

107
Q

what IV complication is from not washing hands and improper insertion?

A

infection

108
Q

what IV complication is a blockage from a bent arm, clot, or clamp?

A

occlusion

109
Q

what is a partial block of IV access

A

occlusion

110
Q

what iv site should be avoided because of bending and eating

A

AC

111
Q

how often should an IV be flushed

A

q8h

112
Q

what does an IV infiltration look like?

A

-cool to touch
-pallor
-firm/tender
-absence of blood return
-pain

113
Q

how often should an IV site be checked while fluids are going?

A

once an hour (more if toxic substance)

114
Q

__________ IV is there are any signs of infiltration

A

discontinue

115
Q

what is an infiltration with toxic tissue substances (several electrolytes)

A

extravasation

116
Q

which vasopressors can cause extravasation?

A

-dobutamine
-dopamine
-epinephrine

117
Q

what chemotherapeutic agents can cause extravasation?

A

adriamycin, vincristine, bleomycin

118
Q

what kind of agents can cause extravasation?

A

vasopressors and chemotherapeutic agents, and electrolytes

119
Q

what electrolytes can cause extravasation?

A

potassium chloride
calcium chloride
calcium gluconate

120
Q

what is a common antidote for extravasation?

A

phentolamine

121
Q

what are symptoms of phlebitis?

A

red streak along vein
warm skin, hot
vein firm and cord-like
pain

122
Q

complication from phlebitis

A

clots and infection

123
Q

what type of phlebitis is from long times of cannulation, catheter in flexed area, catheter larger than vein, poorly secured catheter

A

mechanical phlebitis (we did it)

124
Q

what type of phlebitis is from an irritating med or solution, rapid infusion, or med incompatibilities

A

chemical phlebitis

125
Q

what kind of phlebitis occurs 49-96 hours after infusion has been discontinued?

A

post infusion phlebitis

126
Q

what type of phlebitis is from poor hand hygeine, lack of asepsis, failure to check, or recognize phlebitis? often occurs during insertion

A

bacterial phlebitis

127
Q

what kind of infection…
-occurs throughout body
-involves several systems
-organisms/toxins in blood
-leading cause of death in ICUs

A

systemic (sepsis)

128
Q

what is CLABSI

A

central line acquires bloodstream infection

129
Q

fluid overload ______ blood pressure and central venous pressure

A

increases

130
Q

s/sx of fluid overload

A

moist crackles, edema, weight gain, dyspnea, rapid/shallow resps

131
Q

how to prevent fluid overload?

A

use IV pump and monitor rate
check pt. every hour
i&o
vitals, assessment

132
Q

what is air in the circulatory system?

A

air embolism

133
Q

what are potential causes of air emboli?

A

-insertion of large bore IV
-accidental removal of large IV
-improper removal of central line

134
Q

s/sx of air embolism

A

difiiculty breathing!!!
CP, muscle/joint pain, mental status change, stroke, low BP, cyanosis

135
Q

how to prevent air emboli?

A

prime all tubing
address all bubbles
double check flushes
proper technique removing CVC (lay flat)

136
Q

treatment of air emboli

A

stop & disconnect
left side-lying Trendelenburg
VS and pulse ox

137
Q

assess IV = cool and swollen, what do you do?
-administer antidote
-call MD for antibiotic
-remove IV and restart
-call MD for central line

A

remove IV and restart

Adults (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions