Drugs for Hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

What is the initial drug of choice for stage 1 hypertension

A

thiazide-type diuretics

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2
Q

what is the BP goal fo hypertensive age >/ 60 years old with no comorbidities?

A

SBP < 150

DBP <90

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3
Q

what is the BP goal fo hypertensive with DM?

A

SBP <150

DBP <90

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4
Q

what is the BP goal fo hypertensive with CKD?

A

SBP <140

DBP <90

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5
Q

What are the acceptable oral antihypertensive agents in pregnant women?

A

Methyldopa
Labetalol
Nifedipine

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6
Q

Drug class that is effective in pre-eclamptic and non-proteinuric hypertension

A

labetalol

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7
Q

antihypertensive that can be used extensively later in pregnancy

A

nifedipine

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8
Q

What is the effective monotherapy or as add on to methyldopa in chronic hypertension in pregnancy

A

hydralazine

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9
Q

Antihypertensive drugs that are not recommended during pregnancy

A

ACEi and ARBs

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10
Q

the first line drug in hypertension

A

hydrochlorothiazide

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11
Q

[Thiazide diuretics]

____ drug that crosses the placenta causing hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, jaundice, thrombocytopenia

A

metolazone

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12
Q

[Thiazide diuretics]

what are the toxic effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

HYPERGLUC

  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hyperlipidemia
  3. Hyperuricemia
  4. Hypercalcemia
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13
Q

[Diuretics]

Diuretics that cause K wasting are expected to cause what metabolic derangement?

A

HYPOKALEMIC metabolic ALKALOSIS

where K goes, H+ follows

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14
Q

[K sparing Diuretics]

K sparing diuretic are expected to cause what metabolic derangement?

A

HYPERkalemic metabolic ACIDOSIS

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15
Q

This drug inhibits Na/K/2Cl transporter in thick ascending limb loop of henle

A

furosemide

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16
Q

What loop diuretic is not a sulfur derivative that is not a sulfur derivative?

A

Ethacrynic Acid

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17
Q

What are the toxicities of loop diuretics?

A
Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia
Dehydration
Allergy to sulfa
Nephritis
Gout
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18
Q

What are the effects of sympathoplegics in the VR, HR, contractile force, CO, and TPR?

A
  1. Decrease VR
  2. Decrease HR
  3. Decrease contractile force
  4. Decrease CO
  5. Decrease TPR
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19
Q

What is the antidote of clonidine?

A

Phentolamine

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20
Q

What is the major SE of clonidine?

A

sedation

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21
Q

what drug causes rebound hypertension and dry mouth?

A

clonidine

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22
Q

What drug causes hemolytic anemia (positive coombs test) as an idiosyncratic reaction?

A

methyldopa

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23
Q

What drug competitively blocks Nn nicotinic ACh receptors?

A

hexamethonium

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24
Q

What drug causes irreversible blockage of vesicular monoamine transporter?

A

Reserpine

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25
Q

This drug inhibits vesicular release of NE from the presynaptic neuron, causes psychiatric depression, suicidal ideation?

A

guanethidine

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26
Q

also used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

prazosin

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27
Q

major SE causes first dose orthostatic hypotension and lesser chance of reflex tachycardia

A

prazosin

28
Q

___ is most selective for prostatic smooth muscle

A

tamsulosin

29
Q

___ betablocker that reduces renin release.

A

Propanolol

30
Q

used as maintenance for angina and post STEMI/NSTEMI cases to decrease HR and thus decrease myocardial oxygen demand

A

Propanolol

31
Q

used in chronic heart failure to regular HR but not acute HF

A

propanolol

32
Q

What are the drugs used to control BP in pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
Labetalol

33
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

Drug that alter intracellular Calcium

A

Hydralazine

34
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

Drug that opens K channel leading to hyperpolarization

A

Minoxidil

35
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

Drug that increase NO, increasing cGMP leading to vasodilation

A

Nitroprusside

Nitrates

36
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

Calcium channel blockade

A

CCBs

37
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

D1 receptor agonism

A

fenoldopam

38
Q

What is the most common SE for all vasodilators?

A

Reflex Tachycardia

39
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

Cause drug-induced lupus

A

hydralazine

40
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

used in hypertensive urgencies among pregnant patients

A

hydralazine

41
Q

What medications may cause drug-induced lupus?

A

Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Penicillamine

42
Q

[Oral vasodilator]

require concomitant use of diuretics and beta blockers to block compensatory responses

A

monoxidil

43
Q

[CCB]

causes gingival hyperplasia

A

verapamil

44
Q

[CCB]

SE: constipation, pretibial edema, gingival hyperplasia

cardiac>vascular

A

verapamil

45
Q

[CCB]

that is used for arrythmia

A

verapamil

46
Q

What drugs can cause Gingival Hyperplasia?

A

Nifedipine
Cyclosporine
Phenytoin
Verapamil

47
Q

[CCB]

have pro-arrythmogenic effec; cause reflex tachycardia

A

dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker

48
Q

[Parenteral vasodilators]

Cyanide toxicity is a major side effect

A

nitroprusside

49
Q

[Parenteral vasodilators]

both an arteriolar vasodilator and a venodilator

A

nitroprusside

50
Q

[Parenteral vasodilators]

dopamine 1 agonist; causes arteriolar vasodilation of the afferent and efferent arterioles

used in hypertensive emergency

A

fenoldopam

51
Q

How will you manage malignant hypertension?

A

Vasodilator + diuretics

52
Q

Antihypertensive drug that cause cough and angioedema

A

ACEI

53
Q

drug class that are used in post-MI infarction (slows ventricular remodeling); DM nephropathy (delays progression)

A

ACEi

54
Q

ACEi should not be given inpatients experiencing ____

A

AKI

Hyperkalemia

55
Q

ACEi and ARBs are not given together since it

A

increases the adverse reaction and increased incidence of CA

56
Q

ACEi are not given to patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis since

A

it decreases the GFR of the stenotic kidney

57
Q

This drug class delays the progression of DM nephropathy

A

ARB

58
Q

This class can cause fetal hypotension, neonatal skull hypoplasia, anuria, renal failure, renal dysplasia

A

ARBs

59
Q

Hyperkalemia is common in patients taking ACEi and ARBs because?

A

ACEi and ARBs reduce aldosterone levels and cause potassium retention

60
Q

[What is the electrolyte imbalance]

peaked T waves

A

hyperkalemia

61
Q

[What is the electrolyte imbalance]

T wave inversion

A

hypokalemia

62
Q

[What is the electrolyte imbalance]

decreased PR interval

A

hypercalcemia

63
Q

[What is the electrolyte imbalance]

increased PR interval

A

hypocalcemia

64
Q

this drug inhibits renin thereby preventing conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

A

Aliskiren

65
Q

[Kinin Inhibitor]

Selective antagonist of kinin B2 receptors

A

icatibant

66
Q

[Kinin Inhibitor]

plasma C1 esterase inhibitor that decreases bradykinin formation

A

Cinryze

Berinert

67
Q

[Kinin Inhibitor]

plasma kallikerin inhibitor

A

Ecallantide