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Pharmacology > Adrenergic Pharmacology > Flashcards

Adrenergic Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of the body has no sympathetic postganglionic neuron-effector cell synapses in most tissues?

A
  1. eccrine sweat glands

2. vasodilator sympathetic fibers in skeletal muscles

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2
Q

What drug inhibits the conversion of tyrosine to DOPA?

tyrosine hydroxylase

A

metyrosine

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3
Q

what drug inhibits the transfer of DOPA into vesicles?

A

Reserpine

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4
Q

what enzyme inactivates norepinephrine and dopamine in the cytoplasm?

A

monoamine oxidase

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5
Q

what drug class increases the stores of NE and dopamine by inhibiting its breakdown in the cytoplasm?

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors

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6
Q

what dug inhibits the fusion of the the NE vesicles to the terminal membrane?

A

guanethedine

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7
Q

what drug promotes the fusion of the the NE vesicles to the terminal membrane?

A

amphetamine

tyramine

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8
Q

what drug inhibits the diffusion and reuptake of NE and Dopa via NET and DAT in synaptic cleft?

A

Cocaine

TCAs

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9
Q

What drug class inhibits the metabolism of metanephrines and VMA?

A

MAOi

COMi

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10
Q

[adrenoceptor]

causes smooth muscle contraction via increase in IP3, DAG

A

alpha 1, Gq

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11
Q

[adrenoceptor]

causes smooth muscle contraction via decrease in cAMP

A

alpha 2

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12
Q

[adrenoceptor]

increases heart rate by increasing cAMP

A

beta 1

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13
Q

[adrenoceptor]

relax smooth muscle, by increasing cAMP, lungs

A

beta 2

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14
Q

[adrenoceptor]

increase lipolysis, by increasing cAMP, seen in adipose cells

A

beta 3

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15
Q

[adrenoceptor]

relax renal vascular smooth muscle by increasing cAMP

A

dopamine 1

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16
Q

What adrenergic receptor causes contraction of the pupillary dilator muscle, and pilomotor smooth muscle

A

alpha 1

alpha 1 always contracts

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17
Q

what adrenergic receptor stimulates platelet aggregation?

A

alpha 2

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18
Q

What is the effect of alpha 2 receptors in the eyes?

A

it increases the outflow of aqueous humor

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19
Q

What is the effect if you stimulate beta 1 adrenergic receptors in the kidneys?

A

stimulation of renin release in the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

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20
Q

norepinephrine has no effect in beta 2 adrenoceptor in this part of the body

A

blood vessels

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21
Q

[sympathomimetics]

drug added to local anesthetic solution to decrease systemic absorption, and contributes to bloodless surgical field

A

epinephrine

beta 1 = beta 2 > alpha

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22
Q

[sympathomimetics]

epinephrine increases the HR by accelerating what phase of depolarization?

A

phase 4

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23
Q

[sympathomimetics]

can cross the placenta causing fetal anoxia

A

epipnephrine

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24
Q

[sympathomimetic]

first line treatment for refractory hypotension in severe sepsis

A

norepinephrine

has minimal metabolic effects

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25
Q

[sympathomimetics]

last resort drug in cardiogenic shock

A

norepinephrine

alpha 1 > beta 1

negligible beta 2

26
Q

[sympathomimetics]

drug of choice in patients with cardiogenic shock

A

dopamine

27
Q

[sympathomimetics]

drug of choice in acute heart failure accompanied with severe hypotension

A

dopamine

28
Q

[sympathomimetic]

best used for patients with decreased contractility, low systemic blood pressure and low urine output

A

dopamine

29
Q

[sympathomimetics]

unique among catecholamines since it can simultaneously increase myocardial contractility, GFR, excretion of Na and UO

A

dopamine

30
Q

[sympathomimetics]

inactive per orem; does not enter CNS significantly; very effective in renal failure associated with shock

A

dopamine

31
Q

[sympathomimetics]

What dopamine dose will lead to vasodilation D1 and D2 receptors?

A

0.5 to 3 mcg/kg/min - Low dose

32
Q

[sympathomimetics]

What dopamine dose will lead to stimulation of beta 1 receptors leading to increased CO (increases chronotropy and contractility)

A

3-10 mcg/kg/min - medium dose

33
Q

[sympathomimetics]

what dose of dopamine will lead to stimulation of alpha 1 receptors resulting to vasoconstriction, increased SVR, increased BP

A

> 10mcg/kg/min - high dose

34
Q

[sympathomimetics]

used as an adjunct to beta 2 agonist in asthma treatment

A

isoproterenol

35
Q

[sympathomimetics]

drug used during pacemaker insertion for bradyarrhythmia

A

isoproterenol

36
Q

[sympathomimetics]

avoided in patient with CAD since it wont induce a compensatory decrease in HR.

A

isoproterenol

this drug is not readily taken up by the nerve endings also

37
Q

[selective alpha 1 agonists]

drug that cause rebound nasal congestion

A

phenylephrine

38
Q

[selective alpha 1 agonists]

ocular administration causes mydriasis WITHOUT cyclopegia

A

phenylephrine

39
Q

What is the drug of choice for alpha 1 agonist overdose?

A

phentolamine

40
Q

[selective alpha 1 agonists]

drug that is avoided in the first trimester because it is associated with gastroschisis

A

Pseudoephedrine

41
Q

[selective alpha 1 agonists]

drug for orthostatic hypotension

A

midodrine

42
Q

[selective alpha 1 agonists]

drug of choice for patients with CAD and aortic stenosis experiencing hypotension

A

phenylephrine

since it increases coronary perfusion pressure without chronotropic side effects (tachycardia)

43
Q

[diagnose]

Ptosis
Anhidrosis
Miosis

A

Horner Syndrome

44
Q

[diagnose: horners syndrome]

indirect acting sympathomimetics is unable to dilate the pupil but phenylephrine will

A

Postganglionic

45
Q

[diagnose: horners syndrome]

indirect acting sympathomimetics and phenylephrine is able to dilate the constricted pupil

A

preganglionic

46
Q

[selective alpha 2 agonist]

used in cancer pain and opioid withdrawal

A

clonidine

47
Q

[selective alpha 2 agonist]

causes rebound hypertension due to abrupt discontinuation

A

clonidine

48
Q

[selective alpha 2 agonist]

reduces CO due to decreased HR and relaxation of vascular resistance

A

clonidine

49
Q

what is the drug of choice to reverse rebound hypertension due to clonidine?

A

phentolamine

50
Q

Giving clonidine with pure autonomic failure cause ___ (increase/decrease)

A

increase

51
Q

TCAs can reduce the antihypertensive effect of clonidine due to

A

alpha blocking effects of TCA

52
Q

[selective alpha 2 agonist]

drug of choice for pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension

A

methyldopa

53
Q

[selective alpha 2 agonist]

this drug can cause hemolytic anemia, mental depression, vertigo, nightmares, impaired concentration

A

methyldopa

54
Q

[selective alpha 2 agonist]

drug used for glaucoma since it activates alpha 2 adrenergic receptor; decreases secretion of aqueous humor

A

apraclonidine

55
Q

[selective beta 1 agonist]

drug used to induce ischemia in the myocardium for cardiac stress testing

A

dobutamine

56
Q

[selective beta 1 agonist]

may cause arrythmias, tachyplaxis, eosinophilic myocarditis

A

dobutamine

57
Q

what is the enantiomer of dobutamine that cause alpha-1 agonist?

A

negative enantiomer

58
Q

what is the enantiomer of dobutamine that is a competitive antagonist at alpha 1 and a strong agonist at beta 1

A

positive enantiomer

59
Q

[Selective beta 2 agonist]

drug used for tocolysis for preterm labor

A

terbutaline

60
Q

[Selective beta 2 agonist]

used as a vasodilator in Raynaud’s phenomenon

A

isoxuprine

61
Q

[Selective beta 2 agonist]

this drug can cause maternal pulmonary edema

A

isoxuprine

62
Q

___ is an alpha 1, direct sympathomimetic drug that is not a catechol derivative and not activated by COMT

A

phenylephrine

Pharmacology (35 decks)

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