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Pathogenic Microbiology > Chapter 17 Applications Of Immune Response > Flashcards

Chapter 17 Applications Of Immune Response Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Immunity that results from an immune response upon exposure to an antigen

A

Active immunity

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2
Q

A preparation of a serum that contains protective antibodies

A

Antiserum

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3
Q

Vaccine that is composed of a weakened form of a pathogen that is generally unable to cause disease

A

Attenuated Vaccine

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4
Q

Technique that uses enzyme-labeled antibodies to detect given antigens or antibodies

A

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay

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5
Q

Technique that uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens on cells attached to a microscope slide.

A

Fluorescent Antibody Test

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6
Q

Protection of an entire population based upon a critical concentration of immune hosts that prevents the spread of an infectious agent

A

Herd immunity

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7
Q

Test that takes advantage of the specificity of antigen-antibody interactions by using known antibodies or antigens to detect or quantify given antigens or antibodies

A

Immunoassay

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8
Q

Medical intervention that Modifies specific immune response as a means to treat certain diseases

A

Immunotherapy

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9
Q

Vaccine composed of killed bacterial cells, inactivated viral particles, fractions of pathogens, or inactivated toxins

A

Inactivated Vaccine

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10
Q

Immunity that results when antibodies are transferred into an individual

A

Passive Immunity

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11
Q

Preparation of a pathogen or its products used to induce active immunity

A

Vaccine

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12
Q

Procedure that uses labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens in a mixture of proteins seperated according to their molecular weight

A

Western Blotting

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13
Q

Procedure to induce immunity

A

Immunization

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14
Q

Immunity acquired through vaccination or immune globulins

A

Artifical immunity

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15
Q

Ig__ is passes through the placenta

Ig__ is passed through breastfeeding

A

IgG placenta
IgA breastfeeding

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16
Q

Give examples of Natural Passive Immunity

A

IgG from the placenta
IgA from breastfeeding

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17
Q

Does passive immunity build memory cells

A

No

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18
Q

This type of immunity is from receiving a vaccine

A

Artificial Active Immunity

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19
Q

This type of immunity comes from having antibodies directly injected into a person

A

Artificial Passive Immunity

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20
Q

What is the fluid portion of blood that remains after blood clots called?

A

Serum

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21
Q

Preparation of a serum that contains protective antibodies

A

Antiserum

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22
Q

Antiserums give which type of immunity

A

Artificial passive

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23
Q

Immunoglobulin prepared from a sera of donors with a large amount of antibodies to a certain disease, tetanus.

Used to prevent disease by giving immediately after possible exposure

A

Hyperimmune globulin

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24
Q

Immunoglobulin G portion of pooled plasma from many donors, contains a wide variety of antibodies, used to provide passive immunity

A

Intervenous IV Immune globulins

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25
Q

Which type of vaccine has the ability to spread the pathogen to other people

A

Attenuated

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26
Q

Which type of vaccine cannot cause infections or revert to a pathogenic form?

A

Inactivated vaccine

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27
Q

Polysaccharides vaccines are not effective in children because polysaccharides are

A

T-independent antigens

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28
Q

These vaccines are polysaccharides linked to proteins converting them to T-dependent antigens

A

Conjugate vaccines

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29
Q

Are there nucleic acid-based vaccines

Name 1

A

Yes

Covid

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30
Q

Adjuvant

A

Substance that increases the immune response to antigens

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31
Q

______ & ______ cause dendritic cells to produce Co-stimulatory molecules, allowing them to activate helper T cells, which in turn activate ___ cells

A

MAMP microbes-associated molecular patters

PAMP pathogen-associated molecular patterns

B cells

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32
Q

Which type of vaccine has a need for an adjuvant

A

Inactivated vaccine

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33
Q

Which has the better Cell-mediated response of the 2 type of vaccines

A

Attenuated

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34
Q

Which type of vaccine had a risk to immune compromised people

A

Attenuated

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35
Q

Which vaccine handles warm storage temperature better

A

Inactivated vaccine

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36
Q

MMRV vaccine protects against these

A

Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Varicella

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37
Q

____ polio vaccine composed of attenuated poliovirus aka Sabin vaccine

This vaccine has the advantage that it induces better mucosal immunity (secretory IgA)

A

Oral polio vaccine

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38
Q

This polio vaccine is the safe choice because it cannot become virulent

But it is less effective

A

Inactive polio vaccine

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39
Q

Cancer cells avoid detection by exploting _____ tolerance

And down-grade production of _____

A

Peripheral

MHC

40
Q

Category of immunotherapy that either boosts or suppresses the immune response

A

Immunmodulator

41
Q

Antibodies with a single specificty produced in vitro by lymphocytes that have been fused with a type of malignant cell

A

mAbs
Monoclonal antibodies

42
Q

This type of immunotherapy interferes with peripheral tolerance allows cytotoxic T cells to kill cancer cells

A

Check point inhibitors

43
Q

Preparation of antibody molecules produced by clones of a single B cell, so that all molecules in the Preparation recognize only a single epitope.

A

Monoclonal antibody

44
Q

Examples of mAbs include
1. mAbs without attached components
2. Ones that deliver toxin or other molecule to a cancerous cell
3. Constructed to have two different antigen-binding sites.
4. Naked antibodies that are also immunomodulators

A
  1. Naked antibodies
  2. Conjugated antibodies
  3. Bi-specific antibodies
  4. Checkpoint inhibitors
45
Q

PDL-1 is what

A

A protein on the surface of cancer cells that stops them from being identified

46
Q

PD-1 is what

A

Cyto T cell scanner that is looking for mutations

47
Q

T cells that have been genetically engineered to recognize and respond to a specific epitope, with out the need for antigen presentation or co-stimulation

A

Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cells

48
Q

Once ____ have been created with a paitents own T cells in vitro they are put back into the patients blood where they seek out and destroy host cells that have the epitope on their surface

A

Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T cells

49
Q

Oncolytic viruses not only destroy cancer cells but also encodes the production of GM-CSF a protein that does what?

A

Granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor

Stimulates an anti-tumor immune response

50
Q

The only FDA approved cancer vaccine is for Prostate cancer.

Leukocytes are collected then presented with a 2 component engineered protein consisting of GM-CSF which promotes that development of ____ which do what….

The other component is a antigen that characterizes Prostate Cancer

A

Dendritic cells which present the Prostate cancer cells to T cells for destruction

51
Q

The main damage from autoimmune disease is from…

A

Inflammatory response

52
Q

2 types of immunetherapies to treat autoimmune disease

Immunomodulators:
Monoclonal antibodies:

Describe their actions

A

Immunomodulators: basically the opposite of checkpoint inhibitors

Monoclonal antibodies: mAbs maybe used to decrease number of B cells

53
Q

The study of antibody/ antigen reactions, particularly those that direct antibodies in serum

A

Serology

54
Q

Antibodies used in immunoassays can be

_____ which recognize only a single epitope because it was produced by clones of a single B cell

Or

______ which recognize multiple epitopes on the same antigen because they are produced by clones of a collection of B cells

A

Monoclonal / Polyclonal

55
Q

Antibodies that bind the constant region of human IgG molecules

A

Anti-human IgG antibodies

56
Q

____ are used to quantify or detect given antigens or antibodies in a sample

A

Immunoassays

57
Q

Immunoassays may be serially diluted to determine the antibody ____

A

Tither

58
Q

Antibodies used in immunoassays can be either ____ or _____

A

Polyclonal / monoclonal

59
Q

In vitro test that uses labeled antibodies against a specific antigen to detect that antigen in a sample

A

Direct immunoassays

60
Q

2 step in vitro test uses labeled secondary antibodies to detect unlabeled primary antibodies bound to a given antigen; the test is typically used to detect antibodies of a given specificity in a paitents serum

A

Indirect immunoassays

61
Q

Antibodies labeled with a detectable marker can be used to ID an antigen in this type of test _____

Or to detect a patients antibodies to a known antigen in this type of test ___

A

Direct

Indirect test

62
Q

ELISA

Direct is testing for ______

Indirect test is looking for _____

A

Antigens

Antibodies

63
Q
  1. Protiens are separated by size via gel electrophoresis
  2. Transfered to a nylon
  3. Add paitents serum
  4. Antibodies in serum bind to antigens
  5. Add labeled Anti Human IgG, wash off antibodies that don’t bind
  6. Labeled 2ndry antibodies bind to IgG and remain
  7. Use appropriate procedure to detect labeled antibodies

Describes this process

A

Western Blotting

64
Q

Machine that sorts fluorescenctly labeled cells in a mixture by passing a stream of cells past photo detectors

A

Fluorescence-activated cell sorter

65
Q

___ can be used for a variety of purposes, including diagnosis and monitoring the progress of diseases involving WBC

A

Fluorescence-activated cell sorter

66
Q

In immunological testing, clumping together of cells or particles by antibody molecules

A

Agglutination reaction

67
Q

When certain viruses (measles) are mixed with RBC what happens

A

Viruses bind causing Hemagglutination

68
Q

A paitent who has measles serum and measles virus are mixed together and the Antibodies in the serum stick to the measles virus.

If RBC are added to this mixture will hemaggulation occur

A

No, because the virus can’t attach to the RBC due to antibodies already being attached

69
Q

When soluble antigens (protiens) react with soluble antibodies they form a

A

Precipitate

70
Q

Reaction of antibody with soluble antigen to form an insoluble substance

A

Precipitation reaction

71
Q

In precipation reactions

In the ___________, extensive cross-linking occurs, a visible precipitate forms

A

Zone of optimal proportions
(ZOOP)

72
Q

Antibodies that bind the constant region of human IgG molecules

A

Anti-human IgG antibodies

73
Q

_____ are used to detect IgG molecules in a paitent specimen

A

Anti-human IgG antibodies

74
Q

____ are typically used to ID unknown antigens

______ are typically used to detect antibodies of a given specificity in a paitents serum

A

Direct immunoassays

Indirect immunoassays

75
Q

The ____ relies on fluorescencent microscopy to locate fluorescencently labeled antibodies bound to antigens fixed to a microscope slide

A

Fluorescent antibody (FA) test

76
Q

The _______ test uses antibodies labeled with a detectable enzyme

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

77
Q

In the _____ technique, the various protiens that make up an antigen are seperated by size before reacting them with antibodies

A

Western Blot

78
Q

The ______ can be used to count and seperate antigens labeled with fluorescent antibodies, as well as to determine concentrations and characteristics of the labeled particles.

A

Fluorescent-activated cell sorter

79
Q

Antibodies bound to soluble antigens may form complexes that precipitate out of the solution

An example of this kind of test is Ouchterlony

True or False

A

True

80
Q

H. influenza is an encapsulated bacterium that causes infant meningitis. Which would be the best option to protect infants against this organism

A

Conjugate vaccine

81
Q

All of the following are correctly labeled except

ELISA - radioactive label
Fluorescent-activated cell sorter- flow cytometey
Fluorescent antibody test- microscopy
Western Blot- gel electrophoresis

A

ELISA-radioactive lable

82
Q

Which would be the most useful for screening thousands of specimens for antibodies that indicate a certain disease

Western blot
Fluorescent antibody
ELISA
all the above
None of the above

A

ELISA

83
Q

mAbs are aka

A type of protein that is made in the laboratory and can bind to a certain target in the body, such as an antigen on the surface of cancer cells

A

Monoclonal antibodies

84
Q

To cause a solid to settle out of a solution.

A

Precipitate.

85
Q

What 2 methods can one make an Inactive vaccine.

These methods kill the pathogen

A

Heat & Formalin

86
Q

Type of vaccine for Diphtheria & Tetnus

A

Toxoids

87
Q

Polysaccharides only vaccines produce Ig____ antibody and No memory

A

IgM

88
Q

If a polysaccharide vaccine is Conjugated (attached to a protein) then it provides (2)

A

T-dependent antigen
Memory

89
Q

Inactivated Salk vaccine produces only this type of antibodies (description of what they do)

A

Circulating

90
Q

Sabin polio vaccine or Attenuated produces these types of antibodies (2) - (describe what they do)

A

Circulating & Mucosal

91
Q

This vaccine type
Contains key antigenic portion
No extra material that can cause complications

A

Peptide vaccine

92
Q

Neutralization immunological test

Serum containing Ab to virus + virus

If matched Ab binds to virus (neutralized)

“Neutralized” virus is added to cell culture if virus is Neutralized will there be plaque formation

A

No

93
Q

Hemagglutination inhibition

Antibodies in serum against virus will _____ hemagglutination when added to mixture of RBCs

A

Prevent

94
Q

Finding the titer of Ab

This test checks for presence of antibodies or antigens in tissue samples

A

Fluorescent tagging

95
Q

Fluorescent dyes

Fluorscein: (This color)
Rhodomine:(This color)

A

Yellow-Green
Red

96
Q

Direct fluorescent test can be viewed with a ….

A

UV scope

Pathogenic Microbiology (31 decks)

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