19 December Flashcards

1
Q

Is valsartan on the formulary?

A

No

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2
Q

Is paroxetine on the formulary?

A

No

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3
Q

What are 2 indications of rosuvastatin?

A
  1. Hypercholesterolaemia
  2. High risk of cardiovascular disease
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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Moderately potent diuretics; they inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the proximal (diluting) segment of the distal convoluted tubule, increasing the delivery of sodium to the collecting tubules and producing a corresponding increase in potassium excretion.

When used in recommended low doses for hypertension, thiazides lower BP mostly by a vasodilator effect.

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5
Q

What 3 routes can metoclopramide be given by?

A
  1. Oral
  2. IM
  3. IV
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6
Q

What are 2 indications of Breo Ellipta (Fluticasone with vilanterol)?

A

Maintenance treatment of asthma in patients who require a medium-to-high dose of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) with a long-acting beta2 agonist (LABA)

COPD with FEV1 <50% and recurrent exacerbations despite treatment with a LABA

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7
Q

What is the dosage of topical terbinafine?

A

Apply once or twice a day:

Tinea corporis, tinea cruris, for 1–2 weeks.

Tinea pedis, for 1 week for interdigital type; for 2–4 weeks for plantar/moccasin type.

Cutaneous candidiasis, for 1–2 weeks.

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of gliclazide?

A

Increase pancreatic insulin secretion; may decrease insulin resistance.

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9
Q

Is saxagliptin on the formulary?

A

No

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10
Q

What should be done when generalised allergic reactions to insulin occur?

A

When generalised allergic reactions occur, switching to another insulin or desensitisation may be necessary

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11
Q

Are different brands of fentanyl interchangable?

A

No

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12
Q

What should you do when switching between different brands of fentanyl?

A

When switching, begin new brand with its starting dose and titrate to minimise serious toxicity.

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13
Q

What type of laxative is bisacodyl?

A

Stimulant laxative

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14
Q

What are 5 indications of esomeprazole?

A
  1. GORD
  2. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (and other pathological hypersecretory conditions)
  3. H. pylori eradication, as part of an effective regimen
  4. Treatment of NSAID-induced gastric ulcer, prevention of NSAID-induced peptic ulcer and short-term treatment of upper GI symptoms associated with NSAIDs
  5. Prevention of peptic ulcer rebleeding
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15
Q

What is a practice point to consider with a glyceryl trinitrate patch?

A

To avoid nitrate tolerance with glyceryl trinitrate patch, ensure a patch-free period of at least 8 hours (ideally 10–12 hours) in each 24 hour period; patch-free period is usually overnight (unless nocturnal angina symptoms)

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16
Q

What are 2 indications of nebivolol?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction as part of standard treatment
17
Q

What is the indication of nicorandil?

A

Prevention and treatment of stable angina

18
Q

What are 4 indications of ramipril?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Post MI in patients with heart failure
  3. Prevention of MI, stroke, cardiovascular death or need for revascularisation procedures in patients >55 years with either coronary artery disease, stroke or peripheral vascular disease, or diabetes and 1 or more risk factors (hypertension, smoking, microalbuminuria, high total cholesterol, low HDL cholesterol, previous vascular disease)
  4. Prevention of progressive renal failure in patients with persistent proteinuria (>1 g daily)
19
Q

How many tablets are in a strip of nicorandil?

A

10

20
Q

What is the maximum dose of glyceryl trinitrate patch?

A

15 mg/24 hours

21
Q

What is the indication of oxycodone?

A

Severe pain

22
Q

What are 3 indications of morphine?

A
  1. Severe pain
  2. Opioid adjunct during general anaesthesia
  3. Refractory chronic dyspnoea (on specialist advice)
23
Q

What is the first-line treatment option for otitis media (when pharmacotherapy is indicated)?

A

Amoxicillin 15 mg/kg up to 500 mg orally, 8-hourly for 5 days.

24
Q

What is the dosage of thiamine in acute alcohol withdrawal?

A

300 mg IM or IV, daily for 3 to 5 days then 300 mg orally, daily for several weeks

25
Q

Which CAL should you always attach to thiamine vials?

A

Protect from light

26
Q

What is lanreotide?

A

A somatostatin analogue which inhibits the release of growth hormone and of various peptides of the gastroenteropancreatic endocrine system (including insulin)

27
Q

Describe the use of insulin around surgery.

A

Monitor blood glucose and test ketones perioperatively; insulin infusion may be required in complex or prolonged surgery.

28
Q

Is there a difference between olanzapine wafers and orally-disintegrating tablets?

A

Yes. The wafers dissolve much faster and thus are preferred for PRN treatment of agitation

29
Q

What is the maximum accepted haemoglobin in patients treated with epoetin lambda for anaemia of chronic renal failure?

A

120 g/L

30
Q

What is tacrolimus also known as?

A

FK‑506