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CPT Class > SSection 5 Review > Flashcards

SSection 5 Review Flashcards

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1
Q

How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?

A

Increasing the velocity of each throw

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2
Q

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?

A

6 to 10 drills

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3
Q

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?

A

Growth and volume

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4
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

A

Hip extension

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5
Q

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

A

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

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6
Q

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?

A

To ensure safety

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7
Q

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?

A

Plow pose

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8
Q

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?

A

Close grip bench press

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9
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

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10
Q

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises

A

Dual-foot drills

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11
Q

What are ground reaction forces?

A

Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

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12
Q

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?

A

165 minutes per week

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13
Q

What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise?

A

Palms facing inward toward each other

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14
Q

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?

A

Pectoral group

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15
Q

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?

A

Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

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16
Q

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?

A

Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

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17
Q

Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?

A

Develop an appropriate aerobic base

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18
Q

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?

A

This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

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19
Q

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?

A

A decrease in metabolic rate

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20
Q

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?

A

Transverse abdominis

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21
Q

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?

A

Complex training

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22
Q

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?

A

The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

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23
Q

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?

A

5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

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24
Q

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?

A

Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

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25
Q

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?

A

Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.

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26
Q

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

A

75 minutes per week
PreviousPrevious
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27
Q

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?

A

Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

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28
Q

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

A

Arthrokinematics

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29
Q

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?

A

Keeping the knees in line with the toes
PreviousPrevious
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NextNext

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30
Q

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?

A

An RPE of 5 to 6

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31
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Age-related loss of muscle tissue

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32
Q

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?

A

Muscle hypertrophy

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33
Q

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?

A

Somatosensory system

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34
Q

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?

A

Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

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35
Q

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?

A

VO2max

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36
Q

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?

A

Volume and progression

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37
Q

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

A

Continuous talking becomes challenging

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38
Q

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?

A

Isometrically contracted

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39
Q

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?

A

Autogenic inhibition

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40
Q

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

A

Plyometric training

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41
Q

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?

A

Stage 1

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42
Q

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?

A

Amortization

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43
Q

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

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44
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.

A

Vestibular

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45
Q

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?

A

10%

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46
Q

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?

A

Cleaning

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47
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?

A

Mechanical and neurophysiological response

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48
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.

A

Somatosensation

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49
Q

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.

A

Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

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50
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?

A

Dynamic balance

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51
Q

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?

A

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

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52
Q

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?

A

Movement assessments

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53
Q

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?

A

Spine

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54
Q

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?

A

It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

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55
Q

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

A

At least 3 times a week

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56
Q

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?

A

A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

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57
Q

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

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58
Q

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?

A

Jump

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59
Q

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?

A

Isometrically contracted

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60
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

A

Triceps brachii

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61
Q

What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?

A

10% per week

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62
Q

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?

A

Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

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63
Q

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

A

Vestibular system

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64
Q

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

A

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

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65
Q

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?

A

Between 5 and 10 minutes

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66
Q

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?

A

24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

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67
Q

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?

A

Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

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68
Q

Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?

A

Altered bone shape through the spine

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69
Q

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

A

Stage 2

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70
Q

What equation represents power?

A

Force x velocity

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71
Q

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?

A

Perturbation

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72
Q

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?

A

From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

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73
Q

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?

A

Walking

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74
Q

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?

A

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

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75
Q

Which of the following global muscles’ primary action is hip flexion?

A

Iliopsoas

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76
Q

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?

A

The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

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77
Q

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

A

Cancer and bleeding disorders

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78
Q

What is the superior boundary of the core?

A

Diaphragm

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79
Q

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?

A

Strength

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80
Q

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?

A

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

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81
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?

A

0 to 60 seconds

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82
Q

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?

A

Nerves

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83
Q

Which is involved in frontside mechanics?

A

Lead leg

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84
Q

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

A

Standing

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85
Q

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?

A

Davis’s law

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86
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

A

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

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87
Q

Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?

A

Quickness

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88
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?

A

Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

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89
Q

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?

A

Squatting

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90
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?

A

Semi-dynamic balance

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91
Q

Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?

A

BOSU ball

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92
Q

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

A

Ankle plantar flexion

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93
Q

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?

A

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

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94
Q

Which three senses are involved in the balance system?

A

Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

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95
Q

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?

A

10 minutes

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96
Q

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?

A

Speed

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97
Q

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?

A

Middle deltoid

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98
Q

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?

A

Small jumps

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99
Q

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?

A

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

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100
Q

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?

A

Recovery

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101
Q

What is the definition of kinesiophobia?

A

Fear of movement

102
Q

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?

A

Bone density

103
Q

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

104
Q

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?

A

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

105
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?

A

15 to 60 seconds

106
Q

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?

A

Somatosensory

107
Q

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?

A

Adding a stabilization pause between reps

108
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

A

3 to 5 reps

109
Q

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?

A

Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

110
Q

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

A

Transverse abdominis

111
Q

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?

A

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

112
Q

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?

A

Body fat loss

113
Q

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?

A

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

114
Q

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?

A

Quality of movement

115
Q

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?

A

4 to 8 drills per workout

116
Q

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?

A

Ball squat, curl to press

117
Q

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?

A

Flexibility exercises

118
Q

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?

A

Inverted hurdler’s stretch for hamstrings

119
Q

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?

A

Perturbation

120
Q

What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?

A

Stride length

121
Q

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?

A

Multifidus

122
Q

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?

A

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

123
Q

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

A

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

124
Q

Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?

A

Eccentric action

125
Q

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?

A

Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

126
Q

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?

A

Volume

127
Q

What does EMG stand for?

A

Electromyography

128
Q

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics?

A

Hip abduction

129
Q

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

A

Stretching of the agonist muscle

130
Q

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?

A

Rotatores

131
Q

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

A

Type I

132
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

A

3 or 4 sets

133
Q

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?

A

Two-arm push press

134
Q

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?

A

Strength

135
Q

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?

A

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

136
Q

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?

A

Thumbs pointing up

137
Q

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?

A

A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

138
Q

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

A

Local muscles

139
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

A

The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

140
Q

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?

A

Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

141
Q

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?

A

It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

142
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

A

Hip extension

143
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?

A

Cervical and lumbar

144
Q

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?

A

Landing mechanics

145
Q

Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?

A

Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.

146
Q

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?

A

5 to 10 minutes

147
Q

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?

A

Small circuits

148
Q

Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?

A

SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

149
Q

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?

A

Stabilization-focused exercise

150
Q

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?

A

Any medical precautions or contraindications

151
Q

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?

A

0 to 90 seconds

152
Q

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

A

Motor unit recruitment

153
Q

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?

A

Improved sleep

154
Q

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?

A

Ball squat, curl to press

155
Q

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?

A

The exercise is intense.

156
Q

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?

A

1 or 2 sessions per week

157
Q

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?

A

Visual system

158
Q

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

A

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

159
Q

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?

A

Mechanical specificity

160
Q

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?

A

Sagittal

161
Q

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?

A

Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

162
Q

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?

A

Autogenic inhibition

163
Q

Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

164
Q

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?

A

1 to 4 sets

165
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

A

Back extension

166
Q

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

A

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

167
Q

Which of the following phases does reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?

A

Cool-down phase
Warm-up phase
Conditioning phase

168
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

A

Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

169
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?

A

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

170
Q

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?

A

Posterior

171
Q

What is defined as the body’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?

A

Stabilization

172
Q

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

A

Previous injury

173
Q

Which of the following examples of training exercises is a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?

A

Jogging/running
Sports competition
Rowing

174
Q

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?

A

SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia

175
Q

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?

A

Handstand push-up

176
Q

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?

A

Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

177
Q

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?

A

Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client’s medical history

178
Q

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.

A

Injury resistance

179
Q

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?

A

Amortization

180
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

A

Side plank

181
Q

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?

A

The approximate midpoint of the body

182
Q

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?

A

Small jumps

183
Q

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

184
Q

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?

A

Movement assessments

185
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?

A

Reaction to a signal

186
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

A

Ice skaters

187
Q

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?

A

Core strength

188
Q

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?

A

Tissue overload

189
Q

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

A

The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

190
Q

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?

A

Zone 3

191
Q

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?

A

Reliability

192
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?

A

Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

193
Q

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?

A

Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site

194
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?

A

Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

195
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?

A

Anterior and posterior tibialis

196
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Gluteus maximus

197
Q

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?

A

A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

198
Q

What is the definition of anthropometry?

A

The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

199
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

A

Lower trapezius

200
Q

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?

A

WHR of 0.88

201
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

A

Adductor complex

202
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Latissimus dorsi

203
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Gluteus maximus

204
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

A

Gluteus maximus and medius

205
Q

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

206
Q

Speed is the product of what two variables?

A

Stride rate and stride length

207
Q

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?

A

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

208
Q

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?

A

The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

209
Q

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?

A

The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

210
Q

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?

A

Retraction

211
Q

Which benefit listed is correct regarding resistance training?

A

A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest

Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers

A reduction in blood pressure at rest

212
Q

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?

A

Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

213
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?

A

Maximal Strength Training

214
Q

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

A

150 minutes per week

215
Q

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

216
Q

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?

A

Integrated training

217
Q

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?

A

Neuromuscular function

218
Q

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?

A

Stretch reflex

219
Q

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?

A

Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

220
Q

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?

A

1 to 4 sets

221
Q

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults?

A

The environment

222
Q

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?

A

Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

223
Q

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

224
Q

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?

A

Instability training using a stability ball

225
Q

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?

A

Flexibility exercises

226
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?

A

Reaction to a signal

227
Q

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?

A

1 or 2 sessions per week

228
Q

What is the principle of specificity?

A

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

229
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

A

3 or 4 sets

230
Q

Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise?

A

Delayed-onset muscle soreness

231
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

A

The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

232
Q

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?

A

Volume

233
Q

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?

A

Semi-dynamic balance

234
Q

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?

A

It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

235
Q

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?

A

Amortization

236
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

A

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

237
Q

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?

A

Step-ups

238
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?

A

15 to 60 seconds

239
Q

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.

A

Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

240
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?

A

Erector spinae

241
Q

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?

A

Davis’s law

242
Q

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?

A

Intensity

243
Q

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?

A

Neuromuscular function

244
Q

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?

A

Erector spinae

245
Q

Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?

A

Firm surface

246
Q

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?

A

3 to 5 reps

247
Q

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?

A

10 minutes

248
Q

You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?

A

1 to 3 times per week

249
Q

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?

A

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

250
Q

Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?

A

Injury resistance

251
Q

Which of the following is a component of agility training?

A

Deceleration

CPT Class (56 decks)

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