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CPT Class > Section 5 Reveiw 2 > Flashcards

Section 5 Reveiw 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?

A

Proper technique

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2
Q

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?

A

Zone 2

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3
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?

A

Reaction to a signal

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4
Q

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?

A

48 to 72 hours

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5
Q

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?

A

Depressed and slightly retracted

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

A

Quickness

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7
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

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8
Q

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?

A

1 or 2 sessions per week

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9
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?

A

Contraindication

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10
Q

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?

A

Pattern overload

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11
Q

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?

A

5 to 10 minutes

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12
Q

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?

A

5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

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13
Q

Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?

A

The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.

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14
Q

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?

A

6,750 pounds

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15
Q

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?

A

Knee valgus

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16
Q

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?

A

Depth jumps

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17
Q

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?

A

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

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18
Q

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?

A

Jump

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19
Q

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?

A

To ensure safety

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20
Q

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?

A

Concentric action

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21
Q

Which of the following is a component of quickness training?

A

Assessment of visual stimuli

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22
Q

Speed is the product of what two variables?

A

Stride rate and stride length

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23
Q

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

A

Standing

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24
Q

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?

A

Growth and volume

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25
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?

A

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

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26
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?

A

Static balance

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27
Q

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?

A

Pyramid system

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28
Q

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?

A

SMR/static stretching

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29
Q

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?

A

3.5 mL/kg/min

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30
Q

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?

A

Rotatores

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31
Q

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?

A

6 to 10 drills

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32
Q

What are ground reaction forces?

A

Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

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33
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

A

Power Training

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34
Q

Why is the hurdler’s stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch

A

The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

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35
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

A

Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

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36
Q

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

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37
Q

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?

A

Stabilization-focused exercise

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38
Q

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?

A

Stabilization-focused exercise

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39
Q

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament injury

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40
Q

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?

A

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

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41
Q

How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?

A

Increasing the velocity of each throw

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42
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?

A

Semi-dynamic balance

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43
Q

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?

A

Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

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44
Q

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?

A

Synergistic dominance

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45
Q

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?

A

Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client’s medical history

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46
Q

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?

A

Drawing-in maneuver

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47
Q

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?

A

Single-leg squat

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48
Q

What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?

A

Stride rate

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49
Q

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?

A

Bracing

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50
Q

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?

A

SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

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51
Q

What should be the first step in a client’s program after the assessment?

A

Designing the flexibility portion of the program

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52
Q

In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?

A

Eccentric

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53
Q

What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise?

A

Palms facing inward toward each other
PreviousPrevious
Submitted
NextNext

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54
Q

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?

A

Zone 3

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55
Q

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?

A

Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

56
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?

A

Wobble board

57
Q

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

A

The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

58
Q

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?

A

Recovery

59
Q

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?

A

Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

60
Q

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

A

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

61
Q

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?

A

causes stress to the connective tissues.

62
Q

What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?

A

Proprioception

63
Q

What are ground reaction forces?

A

Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

64
Q

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?

A

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

65
Q

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?

A

Power Training

66
Q

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?

A

Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

67
Q

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?

A

4 to 6 drills

68
Q

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?

A

Multifidus

69
Q

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

A

Motor unit recruitment

70
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

A

Posterior pelvic tilt

71
Q

How is osteopenia best described?

A

The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

72
Q

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?

A

10%

73
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

A

Back extension

74
Q

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?

A

1 or 2 sets

75
Q

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?

A

Spine

76
Q

.
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?

A

Small circuits

77
Q

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?

A

It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

78
Q

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?

A

Calf raise

79
Q

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?

A

Strength Endurance Training

80
Q

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

A

150 minutes per week

81
Q

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?

A

Quickness

82
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.

A

Somatosensation

83
Q

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?

A

The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

84
Q

Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?

A

Injury resistance

85
Q

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?

A

Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

86
Q

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

A

Local muscles

87
Q

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?

A

4 seconds

88
Q

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?

A

208 - (0.7 x age)

89
Q

What is the principle of specificity?

A

principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

90
Q

Which three senses are involved in the balance system?

A

Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

91
Q

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?

A

Adding a stabilization pause between reps

92
Q

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

A

Stage 2

93
Q

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?

A

Bone density

94
Q

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

A

Plyometric training

95
Q

What is a physical benefit of resistance training?

A

Increased muscular hypertrophy

96
Q

Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?

A

Muscle imbalances

97
Q

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

A

Stretching of the agonist muscle

98
Q

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?

A

Deconditioning

99
Q

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

A

Previous injury

100
Q

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?

A

Stabilize vertebral segments

101
Q

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched

A

Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

102
Q

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?

A

Athletic injuries

103
Q

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?

A

Postural distortions

104
Q

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?

A

Body fat loss

105
Q

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

106
Q

How is Fartlek training best described?

A

Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

107
Q

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?

A

Two-arm push press

108
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?

A

Dynamic balance

109
Q

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?

A

1 or 2 sessions per week

110
Q

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?

A

From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

111
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

A

Ice skaters

112
Q

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?

A

Walking

113
Q

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?

A

Power

114
Q

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?

A

An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

115
Q

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?

A

0 to 90 seconds

116
Q

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

117
Q

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?

A

Volume

118
Q

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?

A

Gentle static stretching

119
Q

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?

A

Medicine ball soccer throw

120
Q

n which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?

A

Stage 2 training

121
Q

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?

A

1 to 4 sets

122
Q

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?

A

Perturbation

123
Q

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

A

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

124
Q

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?

A

Gluteus medius

125
Q

How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?

A

In a neutral position

126
Q

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?

A

Baseline value

127
Q

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?

A

Volume and progression

128
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?

A

Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

129
Q

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?

A

Intensity

130
Q

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?

A

Muscular hypertrophy

131
Q

Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

132
Q

For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?

A

Movement quality

133
Q

What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature?

A

Supportive shoes

134
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

135
Q

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

A

Arthrokinematics

136
Q

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

CPT Class (56 decks)

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