Section 5 Reveiw 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?
A
Proper technique
2
Q
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
A
Zone 2
3
Q
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
A
Reaction to a signal
4
Q
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
A
48 to 72 hours
5
Q
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
A
Depressed and slightly retracted
6
Q
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
A
Quickness
7
Q
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
A
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
8
Q
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
A
1 or 2 sessions per week
9
Q
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
A
Contraindication
10
Q
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
A
Pattern overload
11
Q
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
A
5 to 10 minutes
12
Q
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
A
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
13
Q
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
A
The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
14
Q
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
A
6,750 pounds
15
Q
Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?
A
Knee valgus
16
Q
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
A
Depth jumps
17
Q
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
A
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
18
Q
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
A
Jump
19
Q
What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
A
To ensure safety
20
Q
Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?
A
Concentric action
21
Q
Which of the following is a component of quickness training?
A
Assessment of visual stimuli
22
Q
Speed is the product of what two variables?
A
Stride rate and stride length
23
Q
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
A
Standing
24
Q
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
A
Growth and volume
25
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
26
Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Static balance
27
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
Pyramid system
28
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR/static stretching
29
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
30
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
31
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
6 to 10 drills
32
What are ground reaction forces?
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
33
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power Training
34
Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.
35
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
36
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Stretch-shortening cycle
37
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Stabilization-focused exercise
38
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Stabilization-focused exercise
39
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
Anterior cruciate ligament injury
40
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
41
How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?
Increasing the velocity of each throw
42
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
Semi-dynamic balance
43
Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?
Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
44
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic dominance
45
What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?
Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
46
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
Drawing-in maneuver
47
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single-leg squat
48
What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
Stride rate
49
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
50
Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?
SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.
51
What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment?
Designing the flexibility portion of the program
52
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
Eccentric
53
What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise?
Palms facing inward toward each other
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54
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 3
55
Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?
Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
56
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble board
57
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
58
What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?
Recovery
59
Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?
Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities
60
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
61
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
causes stress to the connective tissues.
62
What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?
Proprioception
63
What are ground reaction forces?
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
64
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
65
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?
Power Training
66
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
67
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
4 to 6 drills
68
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Multifidus
69
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor unit recruitment
70
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Posterior pelvic tilt
71
How is osteopenia best described?
The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
72
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
10%
73
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back extension
74
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
75
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Spine
76
.
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Small circuits
77
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
78
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
Calf raise
79
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Strength Endurance Training
80
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
150 minutes per week
81
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Quickness
82
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Somatosensation
83
When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?
The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
84
Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Injury resistance
85
Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?
Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
86
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local muscles
87
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
4 seconds
88
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?
208 - (0.7 x age)
89
What is the principle of specificity?
principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
90
Which three senses are involved in the balance system?
Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
91
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Adding a stabilization pause between reps
92
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
93
What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?
Bone density
94
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Plyometric training
95
What is a physical benefit of resistance training?
Increased muscular hypertrophy
96
Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?
Muscle imbalances
97
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Stretching of the agonist muscle
98
Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?
Deconditioning
99
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Previous injury
100
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Stabilize vertebral segments
101
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
102
SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?
Athletic injuries
103
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Postural distortions
104
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Body fat loss
105
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Reciprocal inhibition
106
How is Fartlek training best described?
Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
107
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Two-arm push press
108
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Dynamic balance
109
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 or 2 sessions per week
110
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
111
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Ice skaters
112
Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?
Walking
113
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Power
114
Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.
115
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
0 to 90 seconds
116
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
117
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Volume
118
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle static stretching
119
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Medicine ball soccer throw
120
n which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Stage 2 training
121
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
1 to 4 sets
122
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
123
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
124
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Gluteus medius
125
How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?
In a neutral position
126
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Baseline value
127
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and progression
128
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
129
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Intensity
130
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Muscular hypertrophy
131
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
132
For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?
Movement quality
133
What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature?
Supportive shoes
134
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
135
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Arthrokinematics
136
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
