Section 5 Review 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?

A

Power

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2
Q

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

A

The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

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3
Q

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?

A

VO2max

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4
Q

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

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5
Q

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone’s static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.

A

Proprioceptively enriched

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6
Q

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?

A

The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

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7
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

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8
Q

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

A

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

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9
Q

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?

A

Injury history

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10
Q

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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11
Q

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?

A

Squatting

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12
Q

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?

A

Middle deltoid

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13
Q

Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?

A

Develop an appropriate aerobic base

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14
Q

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

A

Quickness

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16
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

A

Transverse abdominis

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17
Q

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?

A

Somatosensory system

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18
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

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19
Q

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?

A

Visual system

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20
Q

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?

A

Squat, curl to two-arm press

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21
Q

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?

A

The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

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22
Q

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?

A

Muscular endurance

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23
Q

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

A

Vestibular system

24
Q

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?

A

It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

25
Q

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?

A

6 to 10 drills

26
Q

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?

A

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

27
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

A

Triceps brachii

28
Q

Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?

A

Barbell bench press

29
Q

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?

A

Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

30
Q

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?

A

48 to 72 hours

31
Q

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?

A

Depressed and slightly retracted

32
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

A

Quickness

33
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

34
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?

A

Pattern overload

35
Q

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?

A

5 to 10 minutes

36
Q

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?

A

5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

37
Q

Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?

A

The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.

38
Q

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?

A

6,750 pounds

39
Q

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?

A

Knee valgus

40
Q

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?

A

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

41
Q

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?

A

Jump

42
Q

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?

A

To ensure safety

43
Q

Speed is the product of what two variables?

A

Stride rate and stride length

44
Q

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

A

Standing

45
Q

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?

A

Growth and volume

46
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?

A

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

47
Q

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?

A

Pyramid system

48
Q

What are ground reaction forces?

A

Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

49
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

A

Power Training

50
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

A

Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

51
Q

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament injury

52
Q

How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?

A

Increasing the velocity of each throw

53
Q

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?

A

Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client’s medical history

54
Q

What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?

A

Stride rate

55
Q

Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?

A

SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

56
Q

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?

A

Zone 2