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Today's Medical Assistant > Q3 Clinic Final Questions > Flashcards

Q3 Clinic Final Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What does near visual acuity check 4?

A-myopia
B-presbyopia only
C-hyperopia only
D-presbyopia and hyperopia

A

D-presbyopia and hyperopia

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2
Q

Refraction refers 2 the bending of light rays so that they can b focused on the retina.

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

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3
Q

Which type of hearing loss is due 2 an obstruction?

A-tinnitus
B-conductive
C-tympanic rupture
D-sensorineural

A

B-conductive

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4
Q

Conjunctivitis caused by a bacterium is not contagious.

A-true
B-false

A

B-false

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5
Q

The range of frequencies used for speech r 300 - 4,000 Hz

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

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6
Q

A refractive error that causes distorted and blurred vision 4 both near and far objects due to a cornea that is oval shaped?

A-myopia
B-presbyopia
C-astigmatism
D-hyperopia

A

C-astigmatism

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7
Q

Another name 4 cerumen is?

A-cake
B-sebaceous oil
C-sebum
D-earwax

A

D-earwax

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8
Q

The dropping of a liquid in2 a body cavity is known as?

A-impaction
B-catheter
C-instillation
D-irrigation

A

C-instillation

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9
Q

Myopia is?

A-nearsightedness
B-a decrease in the elasticity of the lens
C-a refractive error due 2 a misshaped cornea
D-farsightedness

A

A-nearsightedness

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10
Q

What is visual acuity?

A-sharpness of vision
B-the ability 2 bend or refract light
C-being able 2 c or not
D-the ability 2 c colors

A

A-sharpness of vision

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11
Q

What methods can b used 2 correct myopia?

A-prescription contact lenses
B-prescription eyeglasses
C-all of these
D-laser eye surgery

A

C-all of these

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12
Q

What type of patient would warrant the use of the big E chart?

A-nonreaders
B-all of these
C-preschool children
D-non English speaking people

A

B-all of these

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13
Q

A plate consisting of primary colored dots arranged 2 form numbers against similar colored dots of contrasting dots is called?

A-big E plate
B-Snellen eye plate
C-polychromatic plate
D-visual acuity plate

A

C-polychromatic plate

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14
Q

A patient vision is recorded at 20/35. What does this mean?

A-none of these r correct
B-the 35 indicates how the the distance the test is
conducted. The 20 represents the distance from which a person
with normal visual acuity can read the row of numbers
C-the patient was standing at 35 feet 2 read the chart. 20 feet is
what normal people would stand 2 read this chart
D-the 20 represents where the test was conducted. The 35
represents the distance at which a person w/normal visual acuity
can read that row of letters

A

D-the 20 represents where the test was conducted. The 35
represents the distance at which a person w/normal visual
acuity can read that row of letters

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15
Q

Which screening method compares bone condition hearing w/air conduction hearing

A-Rinne
B-gross screening
C-hearing acuity
D-Weber

A

A-Rinne

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16
Q

A hot compress is an example of moist heat

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

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17
Q

Erythema is redness of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

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18
Q

The local application of cold may b used 2 relieve muscle spasms

A-true
B-false

A

B-false

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19
Q

Ambulation refers 2 the inability 2 walk

A-true
B-false

A

B-false

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20
Q

The recommended time 4 the application of heat is 15 - 20 minutes

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

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21
Q

Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause crutch palsy

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

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22
Q

Walking or moving from place 2 place is called’’

A-ambulation
B-tredation
C-stationary
D-suppuration

A

A-ambulation

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23
Q

An overstretching of a muscle caused by trauma is called

A-strain
B-sprain
C-hernia
D-edema

A

A-strain

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24
Q

A discharge by the body’s tissues is called

A-exudate
B-edema
C-suppuration
D-erythema

A

A-exudate

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25
Q

What is the process of pus formation called

A-suppuration
B-edema
C-erythema
D-exudate

A

A-suppuration

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26
Q

Which of the following is an example of dry heat

A-heating pad
B-hot compress

A

A-heating pad

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27
Q

Which of the following is an example of moist cold

A-cold compress
B-ice bag

A

A-cold compress

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28
Q

How does the oal application of heat 4 a short time influence the blood vessels in the affected area

A-dilates the blood vessels
B-constricts the blood vessels
C-decreases blood supply
D-slows tissue metabolism

A

A-dilates the blood vessels

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29
Q

Which of the following r reasons 4 applying cold locally

A-all of these
B-prevent edema
C-control bleeding
D-reduce suppuration and inflammation

A

A-all of these

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30
Q

What is the reason 4 a 4-point gait

A-4 patients who have leg muscle weakness or spasticity, poor muscular coordination or balance or degenerative leg joint disease
B-4 amputees w/out a prosthesis, patients with musculoskeletal or soft tissue trauma 2 a lower extremity, patients w/acute leg inflammation or patients who have had recent leg surgery
C-4 patients w/paralysis of the lower extremities and 4 patients wearing supportive braces on their legs
D-weakness or balance problems in geriatric patients; recovery from knee and hip joint replacement surgery

A

D-weakness or balance problems in geriatric patients; recovery from knee and hip joint replacement surgery

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a minor office surgery

A-performed in an ambulatory care facility
B-performed in a short period of time
C-requires a general anesthetic
D-does not pose a risk 2 life

A

C-requires a general anesthetic

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32
Q

Which of the following requires the use of surgical asepsis

A-application of a bandage
B-measurement of blood pressure
C-insertion of sutures
D-collection of a pap specimen
E-all of these
A

C-insertion of sutures

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33
Q

The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is 2

A-protect the patient from a pathogenic microorganisms
B-prevent the formation of a purulent discharge
C-prevent damage 2 surgical instruments
D-reduce patient discomfort

A

A-protect the patient from a pathogenic microorganisms

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34
Q

Something that is considered sterile is considered contaminated if it

A-comes in contact w/a pathogen
B-comes in contact w/a nonpathogen
C-becomes wet
D-touches something clean
E-all of the above
A

E-all of the above

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35
Q

What should the MA do if in doubt about the sterility of an article

A-use the article, making sure 2 use the sterile technique
B-do not use the article; obtain another 1
C-ask the physician if the article should b used
D-cleanse the article w/a disinfectant b4 using

A

B-do not use the article; obtain another 1

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36
Q

Which of the following is a violation of a sterile technique

A-holding a sterile article above waist article
B-facing a sterile field
C-reaching over a sterile field
D-placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field

A

C-reaching over a sterile field

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37
Q

Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used 2 make surgical incisions and divide tissue

A-operating scissors
B-scalpel
C-bandage scissors
D-dissecting scissors

A

B-scalpel

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38
Q

Which of the following instruments has teeth that r used 2 grasp tissue

A-hemostatic forceps
B-splinter forceps
C-tissue forceps
D-thumb forceps

A

C-tissue forceps

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39
Q

Witch of the following instruments has serrated tips, ring handles and and ratchets and is used 2 clamp off blood vessels

A-allis tissue forceps
B-hemostatic forcep
C-sponge forcep
D-curette

A

B-hemostatic forcep

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40
Q

Which of the following instruments is used 2 hold tissue aside 2 improve exposure of the operative area

A-retractors
B-biopsy forceps
C-probe
D-tenaculum

A

A-retractors

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41
Q

When not in use, an instrument w/a ratchet should b stored

A-in an open position
B-w/tips tightly approximated
C-in a closed position
D-w/a protective cover over the ratchet

A

A-in an open position

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42
Q

Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution

A-ensuring that the solution is w/in it’s expiration date
B-placing the solution cap on a flat surface w/the open end facing
down
C-palming the label of the solution bottle
D-rinsing the lip of the bottle

A

B-placing the solution cap on a flat surface w/the open end

facing down

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43
Q

What is the term 4 the break surface or mucus membrane that exposes underlying tissues

A-open wound
B-contusion
C-infection
D-closed wound

A

A-open wound

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44
Q

What name is given 2 the type of wound in which the tissues r torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges

A-cut
B-puncture
C-laceration
D-abrasion

A

C-laceration

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45
Q

4 which of the following wounds, would the physician b most likely 2 order a tetanus booster

A-cut
B-puncture
C-laceration
D-abrasion

A

B-puncture

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46
Q

What is the 1st line of defense of the body

A-mucous membranes
B-skin
C-acidic secretions of the stomach
D-WBC’s

A

B-skin

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47
Q

The protective response of the body 2 trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called

A-infection
B-inflammation
C-healing
D-immunity

A

B-inflammation

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48
Q

The function of the healing process of a wound is 2

A-restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
B-prevent infection of the wound
C-prevent inflammation of the wound
D-control bleeding

A

A-restore the structure and function of damaged tissue

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49
Q

Which of the following is NOT a local sign of inflammation

A-redness
B-fever
C-swelling
D-pain

A

B-fever

50
Q

What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process

A-new capillaries grow
B-the tissue becomes a translucent red color
C-fibroblasts synthesize collagen
D-a blood clot plugs the opening of the wound

A

D-a blood clot plugs the opening of the wound

51
Q

What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process

A-a scab forms
B-scar tissue forms
C-new skin is generated
D-bleeding is controlled

A

B-scar tissue forms

52
Q

Which of the following types of exudates contains pus

A-serous
B-sanguineous
C-serosanguineous
D-purulent

A

D-purulent

53
Q

Which of the following types of exudates contain both serum and blood

A-serous
B-sanguineous
C-serosanguineous
D-purulent

A

C-serosanguineous

54
Q

After a sterile dressing change, the MA should instruct the patient 2

A-keep the dressing dry
B-keep the dressing clean
C-contact the office if signs of inflammation appear
D-return 4 further care as directed by the physician
E-all of the above

A

E-all of the above

55
Q

The function of sutures is 2

A-prevent inflammation
B-approximate a wound
C-prevent infection of a wound
D-promote the formation of scar tissue

A

B-approximate a wound

56
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a material used 4 nonabsorbent sutures

A-silk
B-surgical gut
C-nylon
D-polypropylene

A

B-surgical gut

57
Q

Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter

A-surgical silk, 2-0
B-surgical silk, 4-0
C-surgical silk, 1
D-surgical silk, 4

A

B-surgical silk, 4-0

58
Q

What information is found on the label of a swaged suture packet

A-type of suture material
B-length and gauge of the suture material
C-type of needle point
D-type of suture needle
E-all of the above
A

E-all of the above

59
Q

Sutures inserted in2 the arms or legs r usually removed after

A-24 hours
B-3-5 days
C-7-14 days
D-2 weeks

A

C-7-14 days

60
Q

The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is 2

A-provide comfort and warmth
B-provide a sterile area around the operative site
C-prevent the patient from observing the operative site
D-protect the4 patient’s clothing from blood and other secretions

A

B-provide a sterile area around the operative site

61
Q

Which of the following assists the physician in making a diagnosis

A-laboratory tests
B-diagnostic tests
C-physical examination
D-health history
E-all of these
A

E-all of these

62
Q

Which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis

A-laboratory tests r above the reference range
B-an imbalance exists in the body
C-laboratory tests results fall w/in the reference range
D-laboratory test results r invalid

A

C-laboratory tests results fall w/in the reference range

63
Q

Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test 2 regulate treatment

A-a CBC is preformed 2 determine if a patient has anemia
B-a diabetic patient tests his/her blood 2 determine how much
insulin 2 administer
C-a gonorrhea test is preformed on a pregnancy woman as
required by state law
D-a patient undergoes a blood cholesterol screening test

A

B-a diabetic patient tests his/her blood 2 determine how much insulin 2 administer

64
Q

What is the purpose of performing a routine test

A-2 assist in the clinical diagnosis of a patient’s condition
B-2 assist in the eairly detection of disease
C-2 detect the presence of an acute infection
D-2 determine the medication dosage 2 administer 2 a patient

A

B-2 assist in the eairly detection of disease

65
Q

Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test 2 assist in the differential diagnosis of a patient’s condition

A-performing a CBC on a patient as part of a general physical examination
B-running a profile on a patient who complains of vague symptoms
C-performing a strep test 2 determine if a patient has strep throat pharyngitis
D-performing a OGTT on a patient who exhibits the symptoms of diabetes

A

C-performing a strep test 2 determine if a patient has strep throat pharyngitis

66
Q

All of the following r included on a laboratory request form except

A-laboratory test results
B-date and time of collection of the specimen
C-source of the specimen
D-patient’s age and gender

A

A-laboratory test results

67
Q

What is a profile

A-an array of laboratory tests 4 identifying a disease
B-a quantitative laboratory test
C-a laboratory test that is required by state law
D-a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test

A

A-an array of laboratory tests 4 identifying a disease

68
Q

What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report

A-2 identify the source of the specimen
B-2 provide information required 4 3rd party billing
C-2 provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
D-2 assist the physician in making a diagnosis

A

C-2 provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory

69
Q

The purpose of patient preparation 4 a laboratory test is 2

A-ensure that the patient receives the proper treatment
B-provide a specimen that yields accurate test results
C-reduce patient discomfort during specimen collection
D-ensure that the test results fall w/in the normal range

A

B-provide a specimen that yields accurate test results

70
Q

A small sample taken from the body 2 represent the nature of the whole is known as a

A-culture
B-laboratory test
C-specimen
D-biopsy

A

C-specimen

71
Q

If a laboratory report is returned 2 the medical office marked QNS, it means that

A-the patient did not prepare properly 4 the test
B-a contaminated specimen was submitted
C-an insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted
D-the test results fall outside of the normal range

A

C-an insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted

72
Q

The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA)is 2

A-ensure safety in the laboratory
B-prevent the exposure of employees 2 BBP’s in the workplace
C-prevent errors in technique during laboratory testing
D-improve the quality of laboratory testing in the US

A

D-improve the quality of laboratory testing in the US

73
Q

Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions

A-talking in the laboratory
B-recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
C-disposing of broken glassware in a puncture resistant container
D-opening a centrifuge b4 it comes 2 a complete stop

A

D-opening a centrifuge b4 it comes 2 a complete stop

74
Q

What is the term 4 a test result that indicates whether a substance is present in the specimen being tested and provides an approximate indication of the amount of the substance present

A-negative test result
B-qualitative test result
C-positive test result
D-quantitative test result

A

B-qualitative test result

75
Q

Which of the following may cause a control 2 fail 2 produce expected results

A-outdated testing reagents
B-improper storage of testing components
C-all of these
D-not preforming the control procedure correctly

A

C-all of these

76
Q

What is the name 4 a control that is built in2 the test system

A-standerd
B-internal control
C-proficiency control
D-external control

A

B-internal control

77
Q

The purpose of quality control is 2

A-protect the MA from BBP’s
B-prevent accidents in the laboratory
C-ensure accurate and valid test results
D-ensure that the test results fall w/in the normal range

A

C-ensure accurate and valid test results

78
Q

All of the following r examples of CLIA-waived tests except

A-urine pregnancy testing
B-microscopic analysis of urine sediment
C-blood glucose determination
D-fecal occult blood testing

A

B-microscopic analysis of urine sediment

79
Q

What is the term 4 a substance that is being identified or measured in as laboratory test

A-standerd
B-analyte
C-control
D-calibration

A

B-analyte

80
Q

What temperature is normally required 4 storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests

A-room temperature
B-body temperature
C-a very cold temperature
D-a temperature between 100F and 104F

A

A-room temperature

81
Q

Which of the following conditions may cause blood in the stools

A-hemorrhoids
B-all of these
C-colorectal cancer
D-diverticulosis

A

B-all of these

82
Q

What is occult blood

A-blood that is not visible
B-less than 5 mL of blood in the stool
C-digested blood
D-visible red blood

A

A-blood that is not visible

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of colorectal cancer

A-abdominal pain
B-shortness of breath
C-change in bowel habits
D-visible bleeding from the rectum

A

B-shortness of breath

84
Q

Which of the4 following may result in a false positive test result on a guaiac slide test

A-taking aspirin
B-eating red meat
C-all of these
D-eating foods containing peroxidase

A

C-all of these

85
Q

Why must the patient consume a high fiber diet b4 a guaiac slide testing

A-2 prevent GI irritation
B-2 encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
C-2 prevent a false negative test result
D-2 prevent a false positive test result

A

B-2 encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions

86
Q

Which of the following medications need NOT b discontinued b4 and during a guaiac slide testing

A-iron supplements
B-antihistamines
C-vitamin C
D-aspirin

A

B-antihistamines

87
Q

Patient instructions 4 the guaiac slide test include

A-begin the diet modifications 3 days b4 collecting the 1st stool
specimen
B-collect a sample from 2 different parts of each stool specimen
C-protect slides from heat and sunlight
D-store slides at room temperature
E- all of these

A

E- all of these

88
Q

Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as

A-positive
B-no reaction
C-invalid
D-negative

A

A-positive

89
Q

Which of the following can cause failure of the expected control test results 2 occur on a guaiac slide test

A-outdated developing solution
B-outdated slides
C-improper storage of the testing kit
D-all of theese

A

D-all of theese

90
Q

Which of the following tests may b preformed if the fecal occult blood test result is positive

A-upper GI x-ray study
B-colonoscopy
C-MRI
D-colposcopy

A

B-colonoscopy

91
Q

The purpose of sigmoidoscopy is 2 detect the presence of

A-inflammatory bowel disease
B-all of these
C-lesions
D-polyps

A

B-all of these

92
Q

Which of the following positions is used 4 flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscopy

A-lithotomy
B-trendelenburg
C-sims
D-prone

A

C-sims

93
Q

When the physician is done using the sigmoidoscope it should b

A-sanitized and disinfected
B-sanitized and returned 2 its storage case
C-sterilized in the autoclave
D-sterilized the dry heat oven

A

A-sanitized and disinfected

94
Q

What portions of the colon r viewed during a colonoscopy

A-ascending colon
B-sigmoid colon
C-all of these
D-descending colon

A

C-all of these

95
Q

Testicular cancer occurs most commonly

A-after age 50
B-between age 15 and 34
C-between age 30 and 50
D-after age 40

A

B-between age 15 and 34

96
Q

What is the term 4 a chemical substance found in food that is needed by the body 4 survival and well-being

A-diet
B-antioxidant
C-nutrient
D-nutrition

A

C-nutrient

97
Q

All of the follow r preformed by the medical assistant using the knowledge of nutrition EXCEPT

A-relaying dietary restrictions 2 a patient 4 a test or procedure
B-scheduling am appointment 4 the patient with a dietician
C-providing a patients w/nutrition handouts
D-conducting a nutritional of a patient and recomending nutrition therapy

A

D-conducting a nutritional of a patient and recomending nutrition therapy

98
Q

What is the function of carbohydrates in the body

A-build and repair body tissue
B-primary source of energy 4 the body
C-assists in blood clotting
D-production of blood cells

A

C-primary source of energy 4 the body

99
Q

Which of the following enables glucose 2 enter the body cells and b converted 2 energy

A-lactase
B-beta cells of the pancreas
C-insulin
D-glycogen

A

C-insulin

100
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber

A-good food sources include oatmeal, apples, broccoli and
legumes
B-it makes an individual feel full longer
C-it helps 2 lower blood cholesterol
D-all of these

A

D-all of these

101
Q

All of the following r functions of fat in the body EXCEPT

A-it provides energy 4 the body
B-it transports water soluble vitamins in the body
C-it insulates and cushions the body
D-it assists in the transportation of nerve impulses

A

B-it transports water soluble vitamins in the body

102
Q

Which of the following may occur in an individual w/a high blood cholesterol level

A-joint pain
B-hyperglycemia
C-atherosclerosis
D-hypertension

A

C-atherosclerosis

103
Q

Which of the following may result in an elevated triglyceride level in the body

A-type 2 diabetes
B-being physically inactive
C-all of the above 
D-smoking
E-excess alcohol consumption
A

C-all of the above

104
Q

Which of the following is the primary function of protein in the body

A-2 assist in regulating body processes
B-2 build, repair and maintain body tissue
C-2 provide energy 4 the body
D-2 maintain a healthy immune system

A

B-2 build, repair and maintain body tissue

105
Q

All of the following r good food sources of protein EXCEPT

A-milk
B-meat
C-pasta
D-eggs

A

C-pasta

106
Q

Which of the following is a function of the B vitamins

A-2 regulate metabolism
B-all of these
C-2 facilitate nervous system functions
D-2 assist enzymes in converting food in2 energy
E-2 maintain healthy skin
A

B-all of these

107
Q

All of the following r good food sources of the B vitamin EXCEPT

A-dark, green, leafy vegetables
B-whole grain bread and cereals
C-citrus fruits
D-legumes

A

C-citrus fruits

108
Q

All of the following r characteristics of fat soluble vitamins EXCEPT

A-an excessive intake may lead 2 toxicity symptoms
B-they dissolve in fat
C-they include vitamins A, D, E and K
D-they cannot b stored in the body

A

D-they cannot b stored in the body

109
Q

Which of the following conditions can result in a deficiency of vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

A-dermatitis
B-pernicious anemia
C-night blindness
D-muscle cramps

A

B-pernicious anemia

110
Q

Which of the following vitamins is needed 4 healthy skin and 2 maintain vision in dim light

A-vitamin D
B-vitamin K
C-vitamin A
D-vitamin E

A

C-vitamin A

111
Q

Which of the following minerals is needed 2 make hemoglobin

A-calcium
B-chromium
C-iron
D-magnesium

A

C-iron

112
Q

What percentage of an adult is made up of water

A-10%-20%
B-20%-25%
C-80%-85%
D-60%-65%

A

D-60%-65%

113
Q

All of the following r names 4 added sugar EXCEPT

A-corn syrup
B-ascorbic acid
C-molasses
D-honey

A

B-ascorbic acid

114
Q

What occurs in the body when more calories r used 4 energy by the body than r consumed

A-calorie
B-insulin resistance
C-malnutrition
D-calorie surplus

A

D-calorie surplus

115
Q

How many kilocalories make up 1 pound of body fat

A-2,500
B-3,500
C-5,000
D-1,200

A

B-3,500

116
Q

Which of the following may result from atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries

A-partial blockage of the coronary arteries
B-narrowing of the coronary arteries
C-hardening of the arterial walls
D-all of these

A

D-all of these

117
Q

Which of the following is recommended 4 the prevention and control of hypertension

A-TLC eating
B-MyPlate eating plan
C-exchange list system
D-DASH eating plan

A

D-DASH eating plan

118
Q

Which of the following is recommended nutrition therapy 4 type 1 diabetes

A-low fat diet
B-low sodium diet
C-exchange list system
D-?

A

C-exchange list system

119
Q

Which of the following foods does NOT contain lactose

A-cheese
B-soy milk
C-whole milk
D-ice cream

A

B-soy milk

120
Q

Which of the following r symptoms of a food allergy

A-skin rash
B-swelling
C-shortness
D-all of the above

A

D-all of the above

Today's Medical Assistant (46 decks)

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