Q3 Clinic Final Questions Flashcards
What does near visual acuity check 4?
A-myopia
B-presbyopia only
C-hyperopia only
D-presbyopia and hyperopia
D-presbyopia and hyperopia
Refraction refers 2 the bending of light rays so that they can b focused on the retina.
A-true
B-false
A-true
Which type of hearing loss is due 2 an obstruction?
A-tinnitus
B-conductive
C-tympanic rupture
D-sensorineural
B-conductive
Conjunctivitis caused by a bacterium is not contagious.
A-true
B-false
B-false
The range of frequencies used for speech r 300 - 4,000 Hz
A-true
B-false
A-true
A refractive error that causes distorted and blurred vision 4 both near and far objects due to a cornea that is oval shaped?
A-myopia
B-presbyopia
C-astigmatism
D-hyperopia
C-astigmatism
Another name 4 cerumen is?
A-cake
B-sebaceous oil
C-sebum
D-earwax
D-earwax
The dropping of a liquid in2 a body cavity is known as?
A-impaction
B-catheter
C-instillation
D-irrigation
C-instillation
Myopia is?
A-nearsightedness
B-a decrease in the elasticity of the lens
C-a refractive error due 2 a misshaped cornea
D-farsightedness
A-nearsightedness
What is visual acuity?
A-sharpness of vision
B-the ability 2 bend or refract light
C-being able 2 c or not
D-the ability 2 c colors
A-sharpness of vision
What methods can b used 2 correct myopia?
A-prescription contact lenses
B-prescription eyeglasses
C-all of these
D-laser eye surgery
C-all of these
What type of patient would warrant the use of the big E chart?
A-nonreaders
B-all of these
C-preschool children
D-non English speaking people
B-all of these
A plate consisting of primary colored dots arranged 2 form numbers against similar colored dots of contrasting dots is called?
A-big E plate
B-Snellen eye plate
C-polychromatic plate
D-visual acuity plate
C-polychromatic plate
A patient vision is recorded at 20/35. What does this mean?
A-none of these r correct
B-the 35 indicates how the the distance the test is
conducted. The 20 represents the distance from which a person
with normal visual acuity can read the row of numbers
C-the patient was standing at 35 feet 2 read the chart. 20 feet is
what normal people would stand 2 read this chart
D-the 20 represents where the test was conducted. The 35
represents the distance at which a person w/normal visual acuity
can read that row of letters
D-the 20 represents where the test was conducted. The 35
represents the distance at which a person w/normal visual
acuity can read that row of letters
Which screening method compares bone condition hearing w/air conduction hearing
A-Rinne
B-gross screening
C-hearing acuity
D-Weber
A-Rinne
A hot compress is an example of moist heat
A-true
B-false
A-true
Erythema is redness of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels
A-true
B-false
A-true
The local application of cold may b used 2 relieve muscle spasms
A-true
B-false
B-false
Ambulation refers 2 the inability 2 walk
A-true
B-false
B-false
The recommended time 4 the application of heat is 15 - 20 minutes
A-true
B-false
A-true
Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause crutch palsy
A-true
B-false
A-true
Walking or moving from place 2 place is called’’
A-ambulation
B-tredation
C-stationary
D-suppuration
A-ambulation
An overstretching of a muscle caused by trauma is called
A-strain
B-sprain
C-hernia
D-edema
A-strain
A discharge by the body’s tissues is called
A-exudate
B-edema
C-suppuration
D-erythema
A-exudate
What is the process of pus formation called
A-suppuration
B-edema
C-erythema
D-exudate
A-suppuration
Which of the following is an example of dry heat
A-heating pad
B-hot compress
A-heating pad
Which of the following is an example of moist cold
A-cold compress
B-ice bag
A-cold compress
How does the oal application of heat 4 a short time influence the blood vessels in the affected area
A-dilates the blood vessels
B-constricts the blood vessels
C-decreases blood supply
D-slows tissue metabolism
A-dilates the blood vessels
Which of the following r reasons 4 applying cold locally
A-all of these
B-prevent edema
C-control bleeding
D-reduce suppuration and inflammation
A-all of these
What is the reason 4 a 4-point gait
A-4 patients who have leg muscle weakness or spasticity, poor muscular coordination or balance or degenerative leg joint disease
B-4 amputees w/out a prosthesis, patients with musculoskeletal or soft tissue trauma 2 a lower extremity, patients w/acute leg inflammation or patients who have had recent leg surgery
C-4 patients w/paralysis of the lower extremities and 4 patients wearing supportive braces on their legs
D-weakness or balance problems in geriatric patients; recovery from knee and hip joint replacement surgery
D-weakness or balance problems in geriatric patients; recovery from knee and hip joint replacement surgery
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a minor office surgery
A-performed in an ambulatory care facility
B-performed in a short period of time
C-requires a general anesthetic
D-does not pose a risk 2 life
C-requires a general anesthetic
Which of the following requires the use of surgical asepsis
A-application of a bandage B-measurement of blood pressure C-insertion of sutures D-collection of a pap specimen E-all of these
C-insertion of sutures
The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is 2
A-protect the patient from a pathogenic microorganisms
B-prevent the formation of a purulent discharge
C-prevent damage 2 surgical instruments
D-reduce patient discomfort
A-protect the patient from a pathogenic microorganisms
Something that is considered sterile is considered contaminated if it
A-comes in contact w/a pathogen B-comes in contact w/a nonpathogen C-becomes wet D-touches something clean E-all of the above
E-all of the above
What should the MA do if in doubt about the sterility of an article
A-use the article, making sure 2 use the sterile technique
B-do not use the article; obtain another 1
C-ask the physician if the article should b used
D-cleanse the article w/a disinfectant b4 using
B-do not use the article; obtain another 1
Which of the following is a violation of a sterile technique
A-holding a sterile article above waist article
B-facing a sterile field
C-reaching over a sterile field
D-placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field
C-reaching over a sterile field
Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used 2 make surgical incisions and divide tissue
A-operating scissors
B-scalpel
C-bandage scissors
D-dissecting scissors
B-scalpel
Which of the following instruments has teeth that r used 2 grasp tissue
A-hemostatic forceps
B-splinter forceps
C-tissue forceps
D-thumb forceps
C-tissue forceps
Witch of the following instruments has serrated tips, ring handles and and ratchets and is used 2 clamp off blood vessels
A-allis tissue forceps
B-hemostatic forcep
C-sponge forcep
D-curette
B-hemostatic forcep
Which of the following instruments is used 2 hold tissue aside 2 improve exposure of the operative area
A-retractors
B-biopsy forceps
C-probe
D-tenaculum
A-retractors
When not in use, an instrument w/a ratchet should b stored
A-in an open position
B-w/tips tightly approximated
C-in a closed position
D-w/a protective cover over the ratchet
A-in an open position
Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution
A-ensuring that the solution is w/in it’s expiration date
B-placing the solution cap on a flat surface w/the open end facing
down
C-palming the label of the solution bottle
D-rinsing the lip of the bottle
B-placing the solution cap on a flat surface w/the open end
facing down
What is the term 4 the break surface or mucus membrane that exposes underlying tissues
A-open wound
B-contusion
C-infection
D-closed wound
A-open wound
What name is given 2 the type of wound in which the tissues r torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges
A-cut
B-puncture
C-laceration
D-abrasion
C-laceration
4 which of the following wounds, would the physician b most likely 2 order a tetanus booster
A-cut
B-puncture
C-laceration
D-abrasion
B-puncture
What is the 1st line of defense of the body
A-mucous membranes
B-skin
C-acidic secretions of the stomach
D-WBC’s
B-skin
The protective response of the body 2 trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called
A-infection
B-inflammation
C-healing
D-immunity
B-inflammation
The function of the healing process of a wound is 2
A-restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
B-prevent infection of the wound
C-prevent inflammation of the wound
D-control bleeding
A-restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
Which of the following is NOT a local sign of inflammation
A-redness
B-fever
C-swelling
D-pain
B-fever
What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process
A-new capillaries grow
B-the tissue becomes a translucent red color
C-fibroblasts synthesize collagen
D-a blood clot plugs the opening of the wound
D-a blood clot plugs the opening of the wound
What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process
A-a scab forms
B-scar tissue forms
C-new skin is generated
D-bleeding is controlled
B-scar tissue forms
Which of the following types of exudates contains pus
A-serous
B-sanguineous
C-serosanguineous
D-purulent
D-purulent
Which of the following types of exudates contain both serum and blood
A-serous
B-sanguineous
C-serosanguineous
D-purulent
C-serosanguineous
After a sterile dressing change, the MA should instruct the patient 2
A-keep the dressing dry
B-keep the dressing clean
C-contact the office if signs of inflammation appear
D-return 4 further care as directed by the physician
E-all of the above
E-all of the above
The function of sutures is 2
A-prevent inflammation
B-approximate a wound
C-prevent infection of a wound
D-promote the formation of scar tissue
B-approximate a wound
Which of the following is NOT an example of a material used 4 nonabsorbent sutures
A-silk
B-surgical gut
C-nylon
D-polypropylene
B-surgical gut
Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter
A-surgical silk, 2-0
B-surgical silk, 4-0
C-surgical silk, 1
D-surgical silk, 4
B-surgical silk, 4-0
What information is found on the label of a swaged suture packet
A-type of suture material B-length and gauge of the suture material C-type of needle point D-type of suture needle E-all of the above
E-all of the above
Sutures inserted in2 the arms or legs r usually removed after
A-24 hours
B-3-5 days
C-7-14 days
D-2 weeks
C-7-14 days
The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is 2
A-provide comfort and warmth
B-provide a sterile area around the operative site
C-prevent the patient from observing the operative site
D-protect the4 patient’s clothing from blood and other secretions
B-provide a sterile area around the operative site
Which of the following assists the physician in making a diagnosis
A-laboratory tests B-diagnostic tests C-physical examination D-health history E-all of these
E-all of these
Which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis
A-laboratory tests r above the reference range
B-an imbalance exists in the body
C-laboratory tests results fall w/in the reference range
D-laboratory test results r invalid
C-laboratory tests results fall w/in the reference range
Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test 2 regulate treatment
A-a CBC is preformed 2 determine if a patient has anemia
B-a diabetic patient tests his/her blood 2 determine how much
insulin 2 administer
C-a gonorrhea test is preformed on a pregnancy woman as
required by state law
D-a patient undergoes a blood cholesterol screening test
B-a diabetic patient tests his/her blood 2 determine how much insulin 2 administer
What is the purpose of performing a routine test
A-2 assist in the clinical diagnosis of a patient’s condition
B-2 assist in the eairly detection of disease
C-2 detect the presence of an acute infection
D-2 determine the medication dosage 2 administer 2 a patient
B-2 assist in the eairly detection of disease
Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test 2 assist in the differential diagnosis of a patient’s condition
A-performing a CBC on a patient as part of a general physical examination
B-running a profile on a patient who complains of vague symptoms
C-performing a strep test 2 determine if a patient has strep throat pharyngitis
D-performing a OGTT on a patient who exhibits the symptoms of diabetes
C-performing a strep test 2 determine if a patient has strep throat pharyngitis
All of the following r included on a laboratory request form except
A-laboratory test results
B-date and time of collection of the specimen
C-source of the specimen
D-patient’s age and gender
A-laboratory test results
What is a profile
A-an array of laboratory tests 4 identifying a disease
B-a quantitative laboratory test
C-a laboratory test that is required by state law
D-a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test
A-an array of laboratory tests 4 identifying a disease
What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report
A-2 identify the source of the specimen
B-2 provide information required 4 3rd party billing
C-2 provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
D-2 assist the physician in making a diagnosis
C-2 provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
The purpose of patient preparation 4 a laboratory test is 2
A-ensure that the patient receives the proper treatment
B-provide a specimen that yields accurate test results
C-reduce patient discomfort during specimen collection
D-ensure that the test results fall w/in the normal range
B-provide a specimen that yields accurate test results
A small sample taken from the body 2 represent the nature of the whole is known as a
A-culture
B-laboratory test
C-specimen
D-biopsy
C-specimen
If a laboratory report is returned 2 the medical office marked QNS, it means that
A-the patient did not prepare properly 4 the test
B-a contaminated specimen was submitted
C-an insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted
D-the test results fall outside of the normal range
C-an insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted
The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA)is 2
A-ensure safety in the laboratory
B-prevent the exposure of employees 2 BBP’s in the workplace
C-prevent errors in technique during laboratory testing
D-improve the quality of laboratory testing in the US
D-improve the quality of laboratory testing in the US
Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions
A-talking in the laboratory
B-recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
C-disposing of broken glassware in a puncture resistant container
D-opening a centrifuge b4 it comes 2 a complete stop
D-opening a centrifuge b4 it comes 2 a complete stop
What is the term 4 a test result that indicates whether a substance is present in the specimen being tested and provides an approximate indication of the amount of the substance present
A-negative test result
B-qualitative test result
C-positive test result
D-quantitative test result
B-qualitative test result
Which of the following may cause a control 2 fail 2 produce expected results
A-outdated testing reagents
B-improper storage of testing components
C-all of these
D-not preforming the control procedure correctly
C-all of these
What is the name 4 a control that is built in2 the test system
A-standerd
B-internal control
C-proficiency control
D-external control
B-internal control
The purpose of quality control is 2
A-protect the MA from BBP’s
B-prevent accidents in the laboratory
C-ensure accurate and valid test results
D-ensure that the test results fall w/in the normal range
C-ensure accurate and valid test results
All of the following r examples of CLIA-waived tests except
A-urine pregnancy testing
B-microscopic analysis of urine sediment
C-blood glucose determination
D-fecal occult blood testing
B-microscopic analysis of urine sediment
What is the term 4 a substance that is being identified or measured in as laboratory test
A-standerd
B-analyte
C-control
D-calibration
B-analyte
What temperature is normally required 4 storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests
A-room temperature
B-body temperature
C-a very cold temperature
D-a temperature between 100F and 104F
A-room temperature
Which of the following conditions may cause blood in the stools
A-hemorrhoids
B-all of these
C-colorectal cancer
D-diverticulosis
B-all of these
What is occult blood
A-blood that is not visible
B-less than 5 mL of blood in the stool
C-digested blood
D-visible red blood
A-blood that is not visible
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of colorectal cancer
A-abdominal pain
B-shortness of breath
C-change in bowel habits
D-visible bleeding from the rectum
B-shortness of breath
Which of the4 following may result in a false positive test result on a guaiac slide test
A-taking aspirin
B-eating red meat
C-all of these
D-eating foods containing peroxidase
C-all of these
Why must the patient consume a high fiber diet b4 a guaiac slide testing
A-2 prevent GI irritation
B-2 encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
C-2 prevent a false negative test result
D-2 prevent a false positive test result
B-2 encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
Which of the following medications need NOT b discontinued b4 and during a guaiac slide testing
A-iron supplements
B-antihistamines
C-vitamin C
D-aspirin
B-antihistamines
Patient instructions 4 the guaiac slide test include
A-begin the diet modifications 3 days b4 collecting the 1st stool
specimen
B-collect a sample from 2 different parts of each stool specimen
C-protect slides from heat and sunlight
D-store slides at room temperature
E- all of these
E- all of these
Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as
A-positive
B-no reaction
C-invalid
D-negative
A-positive
Which of the following can cause failure of the expected control test results 2 occur on a guaiac slide test
A-outdated developing solution
B-outdated slides
C-improper storage of the testing kit
D-all of theese
D-all of theese
Which of the following tests may b preformed if the fecal occult blood test result is positive
A-upper GI x-ray study
B-colonoscopy
C-MRI
D-colposcopy
B-colonoscopy
The purpose of sigmoidoscopy is 2 detect the presence of
A-inflammatory bowel disease
B-all of these
C-lesions
D-polyps
B-all of these
Which of the following positions is used 4 flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscopy
A-lithotomy
B-trendelenburg
C-sims
D-prone
C-sims
When the physician is done using the sigmoidoscope it should b
A-sanitized and disinfected
B-sanitized and returned 2 its storage case
C-sterilized in the autoclave
D-sterilized the dry heat oven
A-sanitized and disinfected
What portions of the colon r viewed during a colonoscopy
A-ascending colon
B-sigmoid colon
C-all of these
D-descending colon
C-all of these
Testicular cancer occurs most commonly
A-after age 50
B-between age 15 and 34
C-between age 30 and 50
D-after age 40
B-between age 15 and 34
What is the term 4 a chemical substance found in food that is needed by the body 4 survival and well-being
A-diet
B-antioxidant
C-nutrient
D-nutrition
C-nutrient
All of the follow r preformed by the medical assistant using the knowledge of nutrition EXCEPT
A-relaying dietary restrictions 2 a patient 4 a test or procedure
B-scheduling am appointment 4 the patient with a dietician
C-providing a patients w/nutrition handouts
D-conducting a nutritional of a patient and recomending nutrition therapy
D-conducting a nutritional of a patient and recomending nutrition therapy
What is the function of carbohydrates in the body
A-build and repair body tissue
B-primary source of energy 4 the body
C-assists in blood clotting
D-production of blood cells
C-primary source of energy 4 the body
Which of the following enables glucose 2 enter the body cells and b converted 2 energy
A-lactase
B-beta cells of the pancreas
C-insulin
D-glycogen
C-insulin
Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber
A-good food sources include oatmeal, apples, broccoli and
legumes
B-it makes an individual feel full longer
C-it helps 2 lower blood cholesterol
D-all of these
D-all of these
All of the following r functions of fat in the body EXCEPT
A-it provides energy 4 the body
B-it transports water soluble vitamins in the body
C-it insulates and cushions the body
D-it assists in the transportation of nerve impulses
B-it transports water soluble vitamins in the body
Which of the following may occur in an individual w/a high blood cholesterol level
A-joint pain
B-hyperglycemia
C-atherosclerosis
D-hypertension
C-atherosclerosis
Which of the following may result in an elevated triglyceride level in the body
A-type 2 diabetes B-being physically inactive C-all of the above D-smoking E-excess alcohol consumption
C-all of the above
Which of the following is the primary function of protein in the body
A-2 assist in regulating body processes
B-2 build, repair and maintain body tissue
C-2 provide energy 4 the body
D-2 maintain a healthy immune system
B-2 build, repair and maintain body tissue
All of the following r good food sources of protein EXCEPT
A-milk
B-meat
C-pasta
D-eggs
C-pasta
Which of the following is a function of the B vitamins
A-2 regulate metabolism B-all of these C-2 facilitate nervous system functions D-2 assist enzymes in converting food in2 energy E-2 maintain healthy skin
B-all of these
All of the following r good food sources of the B vitamin EXCEPT
A-dark, green, leafy vegetables
B-whole grain bread and cereals
C-citrus fruits
D-legumes
C-citrus fruits
All of the following r characteristics of fat soluble vitamins EXCEPT
A-an excessive intake may lead 2 toxicity symptoms
B-they dissolve in fat
C-they include vitamins A, D, E and K
D-they cannot b stored in the body
D-they cannot b stored in the body
Which of the following conditions can result in a deficiency of vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
A-dermatitis
B-pernicious anemia
C-night blindness
D-muscle cramps
B-pernicious anemia
Which of the following vitamins is needed 4 healthy skin and 2 maintain vision in dim light
A-vitamin D
B-vitamin K
C-vitamin A
D-vitamin E
C-vitamin A
Which of the following minerals is needed 2 make hemoglobin
A-calcium
B-chromium
C-iron
D-magnesium
C-iron
What percentage of an adult is made up of water
A-10%-20%
B-20%-25%
C-80%-85%
D-60%-65%
D-60%-65%
All of the following r names 4 added sugar EXCEPT
A-corn syrup
B-ascorbic acid
C-molasses
D-honey
B-ascorbic acid
What occurs in the body when more calories r used 4 energy by the body than r consumed
A-calorie
B-insulin resistance
C-malnutrition
D-calorie surplus
D-calorie surplus
How many kilocalories make up 1 pound of body fat
A-2,500
B-3,500
C-5,000
D-1,200
B-3,500
Which of the following may result from atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries
A-partial blockage of the coronary arteries
B-narrowing of the coronary arteries
C-hardening of the arterial walls
D-all of these
D-all of these
Which of the following is recommended 4 the prevention and control of hypertension
A-TLC eating
B-MyPlate eating plan
C-exchange list system
D-DASH eating plan
D-DASH eating plan
Which of the following is recommended nutrition therapy 4 type 1 diabetes
A-low fat diet
B-low sodium diet
C-exchange list system
D-?
C-exchange list system
Which of the following foods does NOT contain lactose
A-cheese
B-soy milk
C-whole milk
D-ice cream
B-soy milk
Which of the following r symptoms of a food allergy
A-skin rash
B-swelling
C-shortness
D-all of the above
D-all of the above
