Clinic Final Questions Flashcards
What name is given 2 the heat regulating center of the body?
A-olfactory lobe
B-hypothalamus
C-pituitary gland
D-medulla
B-hypothalamus
What is the normal range 4 body temperture?
A-98F-99F
B-97F-104F
C-97F-99F
D-96F-98F
C-97F-99F
A temperature of 100*F is classified as:
A-hypotherma
B-normal
C-low grade fever
D-hyperpyrexia
C-low grade fever
Which of the following terms refers 2 a fever?
A-afebrile
B-dehydration
C-hypothermia
D-febrile
D-febrile
U take mrs. Main’s temperature @ 7am, it reads 97.8F. @ 3pm u take it again and it reads 99F. How do u account 4 the difference?
A-during sleep, muscle activity increases
B-Mrs. Main normally runs a higher body temperature than men
C-during sleep, body metabolism slows down
B-Mrs. Main normally runs a higher body temperature than men
What is the name given 2 the type of fever in which a wide range of temperatures fluctuations occurs, all r which above normal?
A-continuous
B-intermittent
C-remittent
D-crisis
C-remittent
The axilla is recommended as the perferred site 4 taking the temperature of:
A-a preschooler
B-an adult
C-an uncooperative patient
D-an infant
A-a preschooler
How far should the probe b inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant?
A-1/2 inch
B-1/4 inch
C-1 1/2 inches
D-1 inch
A-1/2 inch
Which of the following is NOT included in the purpose of measuring pulse?
A-2 asses pulse rate after the administration
B-2 asses pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart
functioning
C-2 determine if the patient is developing hypertension
D-2 establish the patient’s baseline pulse rate
C-2 determine if the patient is developing hypertension
Excessive pressure should not b applied when measuring radial pulse because:
A-it could close off the radial artery and the pulse may not b felt
B-the pulse may decrease
C-the pulse may increase
D-it could affect the rhythm of the pulse
A-it could close off the radial artery and the pulse may not b felt
Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate?
A-adolesent
B-adult
C-school-age child
D-infant
D-infant
What is the normal range 4 the resting pulse rate of an adult?
A-60-80 bpm
B-60-100 bpm
C-70-90 bpm
D-80-100 bpm
B-60-100 bpm
Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast pulse rate?
A-tachypnea
B-tachycardia
C-bounding
D-bradycardia
B-tachycardia
U r measuring the pulse and find that it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should u record this?
A-regular and strong
B-dysrhythmia snd regular
C-thready and regular
D-bounding and strong
A-regular and strong
Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
A-a trained athlete
B-a elderly person
C-a diabetic person
D-an infant
A-a trained athlete
1 respiration consists of:
A-1 inhalation and 1 exhalation
B-the opening and closing of the heart
C-1 inhalation
D-1 exhalation
A-1 inhalation and 1 exhalation
During exhalation:
A-oxygen is taken in2 the lungs
B-carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs
C-the lungs expand
D-the diaphragm descends
B-carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs
Internal respiration is the:
A-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and
body cells
B-removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs
C-measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood
D-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between lungs and
blood
A-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the
blood and body cells
The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from:
A-10-18 rpm
B-12-20 rpm
C-16-22 rpm
D-8-16 rpm
B-12-20 rpm
Pulse oximetry provides the physician w/information on:
A-the amount of oxygen being delivered 2 the tissues
B-cardiac dysrhythmias
C-circulation 2 the exterminates
D-the rate and depth of respiration
A-the amount of oxygen being delivered 2 the tissues
The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is:
A-95-99%
B-75-85%
C-85-90%
D-90-95%
A-95-99%
If the patients fingers r cold when performing pulse oximetry, the MA should:
A-cleanse the probe w/an antiseptic wipe
B-take the reading on another finger
C-use a disposable probe on the other finger
D-ask the patient 2 rub his/her fingers 2gether
D-ask the patient 2 rub his/her fingers 2gether
Blood pressure measures:
A-the force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood
B-the expansion and recoiling of the aorta
C-the contraction of the heart
D-the number of times it beats per min
A-the force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood
What is the term used 2 describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure?
A-systolic pressure
B-diastolic pressure
C-diastole
D-hypotension
B-diastolic pressure
Normal blood pressure 4 an adult is:
A-120/80 mm Hg or higher
B-70-80 bpm
C-less than 120/80 bpm
D-110-140 over 60-90 mm Hg
C-less than 120/80 bpm
Blood pressure is measured in:
A-degrees
B-units
C-millimeters of mercury
D-bpm
C-millimeters of mercury
Which of the following BP readings can b classified as:
A-144/92 mm Hg
B-116/78 mm Hg
C-120/80 mm Hg
D-130/88 mm Hg
A-144/92 mm Hg
If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg the ppatient’s pulse pressure would b:
A-85
B-130
C-103
D-45
D-45
When measuring BP, the patient’s arm b positioned:
A-@ heart level
B-above heart level
C-with palm facing downwards
D-across the chest
A-@ heart level
Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking BP?
A-apical
B-carotid
C-radial
D-brachial
D-brachial
Which of the following is NOT included in a patient examination?
A-the health history
B-the physical examination
C-laboratory tests
D-therapeutic procedures
D-therapeutic procedures
Which of the following may require a physical examination?
A-prerequisite 4 employment B-school admission C-summer camp attendance D-all of the above E-participation in sports
D-all of the above
What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease?
A-prognosis
B-therapy
C-final diagnosis
D-cure
A-prognosis
The process of determining which of 2 diseases that have similar symptoms is causing a patient’s illness is known as a
_______________ diagnosis.
A-tentative
B-clinical
C-final
D-differential
D-differential
What is the name of the instrument used 2 examine the interior of the eye?
A-stethoscope
B-rhinoscope
C-otoscope
D-ophthalmoscope
D-ophthalmoscope
What is the name of the instrument used 2 examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane?
A-laryngoscope
B-ophthalmoscope
C-stethoscope
D-otoscope
D-otoscope
The function of a speculum is 2:
A-open a body orifice or cavity 4 viewing
B-measure intraocular pressure
C-grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping
D-clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis
A-open a body orifice or cavity 4 viewing
How should a patient b identified?
A-by hair and eye color
B-by name and date of birth
C-by phone number and address
D-by SSN
B-by name and date of birth
The process of measuring the patient is known as:
A-calibration
B-mensuration
C-micturition
D-inspection
B-mensuration
The reason 4 weighing a prenatal patient is 2:
A-determining the due date
B-detect the presence of twins
C-determine if the fetus is growing
D-ensures the placenta is developing normally
C-determine if the fetus is growing
1 pound is = 2:
A-1,000 g
B-10 oz
C-2.2 kg
D-200 kg
C-2.2 kg
The patient’s height should b recorded in:
A-meters
B-centimeters
C-feet and inches
D-inches
C-feet and inches
The patient’s height should be measured 2 the nearest ________ inch
A-1/8
B-1/2
C-1
D-1/4
D-1/4
The height of an adult patient usually is only measured only:
A-when medication has been prescribed
B-when the patient is ill
C-after a loss of weight
D-during the 1st office visit
D-during the 1st office visit
Using proper body mechanics helps 2 prevent which of the following:
A-bursitis
B-chronic disease
C-musculoskeletal injuries
D-arthritis
C-musculoskeletal injuries
Which of the following is NOT a curvature of the vertebral column?
A-coccyx
B-cervical
C-thoracic
D-lumbar
A-coccyx
The lithotomy position is used 2 exmine the:
A-vagina
B-breasts
C-sigmoid colon
D-abdomen
A-vagina
Sim’s position is used 2 perform which of the following:
A-pelvic examination
B-urinary catheterization
C-flexible sigmoidoscopy
D-breast examination
C-flexible sigmoidoscopy
A patient has a burn on his lower back from lying on a heating pad. 4 his physical examination, u place him in which of the following positions?
A-lithotomy
B-supine
C-dorsal recumbent
D-prone
D-prone
What is the purpose of a transfer belt?
A-helps prevent musculoskeletal injuries
B-makes the transfer more comfortable 4 the patient
C-provides a secure grip 4 holding on2 a patient
D-helps in controlling a patient’s movements
E-all of these r correct
E-all of these r correct
Which of the following can b generated by an EMR program from the input of finding of the physician?
A-insurance
B-patient’s final diagnosis
C-physical examination report
D-patient statements
C-physical examination report
Which of the following is an example of palpation?
A-assessing the fetal heart rate
B-assessing a patient’s mental status
C-measuring visual acuity
D-preforming a breast examination
D-preforming a breast examination
Which of the following examinations requires the use of deep palpation?
A-detection of swelling
B-breast examination
C-detection of areas of tenderness
D-bimanual pelvic examination
D-bimanual pelvic examination
Which of the following is an example of percussion?
A-measuring pulse
B-testing hearing w/a tuning fork
C-testing reflexes w/a rubber hammer
D-listening 2 breath sounds
C-testing reflexes w/a rubber hammer
Which of the following is an example of auscultation?
A-testing pupillary reaction
B-measuring blood pressure
C-urine testing
D-measuring body temperature
B-measuring blood pressure
B4 applying a stethoscope chest piece 2 the patient’s skin, it should b:
A-soaked in bleach
B-calibrated
C-warmed
D-audioclaved
C-warmed
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of asking a patient if he/she needs 2 avoid b4 the physical examination?
A-2 prevent urinary incontinence
B-2 make the examination easier
C-2 obtain a urine specimen
D-2 provide 4 patient comfort
A-2 prevent urinary incontinence
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the MA during the physical examination?
A-positioning the patient
B-listening 2 the patient’s heart and lung sounds
C-providing the patient w/educational information
D-handing thr physician instruments and supplies
C-providing the patient w/educational information
The study of drugs is known as:
A-mycology
B-immunology
C-pharmacology
D-pharmacy
C-pharmacology
Which of the following is an example of administering medication?
A-a physician gives a patient a drug samples 2 take at home
B-the physician writes a prescription 4 medication
C-a MA performs a veinpuncture
D-a MA gives a IM injection 2 a patient
D-a MA gives a IM injection 2 a patient
The term parenteral refers 2:
A-sites located outside the GI tract
B-IM injection sites
C-administration of medication PO
D-topical administration of medication
A-sites located outside the GI tract
Which of the following is assigned by the pharmaceutical company that 1st develops the drug?
A-chemical name
B-generic name
C-brand name
D-official name
B-generic name
Which of the following represents an equivalent value 4 a cubic centimeter?
A-1 cc=1 ml
B-1 cc=1 ml
C-1 cc=1 drop
D-1 cc=1 mg
B-1 cc=1 ml
Which of the following systems is used most often 2 prescribe and administer medication?
A-apothecary
B-avoirdupois
C-metric
D-household
C-metric
Which of the following should b recorded in a patients medication record?
A-all of the above B-herbal products C-nonprescription medications D-vitamins E-prescription medications
A-all of the above
When the same dose of a drug no longer produces the desired effect, it is said that the patient has developed:
A-a drug interaction
B-an idiosyncratic reaction
C-a drug tolerance
D-an allergic reaction
C-a drug tolerance
What is the name given 2 an adverse reaction that is harmless and tolerable by the patient 2 obtain the therapeutic effect of the drug?
A-side effect
B-idiosyncratic effect
C-warning
D-contraindications
A-side effect
What is the usual treatment 4 an anaphylactic reaction?
A-oral administration of antihistamines
B-epinephrine injection
C-antibiotic injection
D-steroid injection
B-epinephrine injection
The parenteral route of administering medications is used:
A-when the patient is allegoric 2 the oral form of the drug
B-2 reduce the occurrence of drug tolerence
C-all of the above
D-2 reduce the occurrence of drug interactions
E-2 obtain a more rapid action
E-2 obtain a more rapid action
What is the name if the slanted edge at the top of a needle?
A-gauge
B-bevel
C-lumen
D-tip
B-bevel
Which of the following needles has the largest lumen?
A-27 G
B-18 G
C-25 G
D-20 G
B-18 G
What is the purpose of a safety-engineered syringe?
A-2 reduce the rick of needlestick injury
B-2 reduce the discomfort experienced by the patient during the
injection
C-2 administer the medication in a shorter period of time
D-2 prevent the administration of the wrong medication
A-2 reduce the rick of needlestick injury
What is the name given 2 a closed glass container w/a rubber stopper that holds more than 1 dose of medication?
A-multi-dose vial
B-single-dose vial
C-ampule
D-unit-dose cartridge
A-multi-dose vial
What may occur if an = amount of air in NOT injected in2 a vial when withdrawing medication from the vial?
A-the vial may crack
B-the medication may become contaminated
C-air bubbles may enter the syringe
D-it may be difficult 2 remove medication from the vial
D-it may be difficult 2 remove medication from the vial
Which of the following is used 2 administer an ID injection?
A-tuberculin syringe
B-hypodermic syringe
C-insulin syringe
D-tubex injector
A-tuberculin syringe
A sub Q injection is given in2 what type of tissue?
A-muscle
B-dermal tissue
C-fat
D-connective tissue
C-fat
Which of the following sites is commonly used 2 administer a subcutaneous injection?
A-deltoid muscle
B-upper lateral arm
C-anterior forearm
D-gluteus medius muscle
B-upper lateral arm
Which of the following needle lengths is used 2 administer a subcutaneous injection?
A-5/8 inch
B-1 1/2 inches
C-1 inch
D-3/8 inch
A-5/8 inch
The vastus lateralis site is used most often 2 administer medication 2:
A-elderly patients
B-infants and young children
C-adolescents
D-adults
B-infants and young children
What angle of needle insertion should b used 2 administer an IM injection?
A-parallel 2 the skin
B-10-15 degrees
C-45 degrees
D-90 degrees
D-90 degrees
Which of the following is NOT a reason 4 changing the location of an injection?
A-2 avoid injecting the medication in2 a major nerve or blood
vessel
B-2 provide a reference point if a problem results at the injection
site
C-2 locate the site if test results need 2 b read @ a later date
D-2 avoid overuse of a site if the patient requires more than 1
injection
A-2 avoid injecting the medication in2 a major nerve or blood
vessel
ID injections r used 2 administer:
A-insulin injections
B-skin tests
C-allergy injections
D-pediatric immunizations
B-skin tests
Which of the following is used 2 administer an ID injection?
A-23 G, 1/2 inch
B-21 G, 1 inch
C-22 G, 5/8 inch
D-27 G, 3/8 inch
D-27 G, 3/8 inch
After administrating a tuberculin skin test, it should b read w/in:
A-48-72 hours
B-15-20 minutes
C-12-24 hours
D-36-48 hours
A-48-72 hours
Which of the following methods of examination must b used when reading a tuberculin skin test?
A-inspection and palpation
B-auscultation and palpation
C-inspection and percussion
D-inspection only
A-inspection and palpation
Erythema w/out induration occuring from a Mantoux test indicates:
A-a - reaction
B-a + reaction
C-a doubtful reaction
D-an allergic reaction
A-a - reaction
What is the name 4 tuberculosis?
A-Mantoux test
B-Tine test
C-BCG
D-QuantiFERRON-TB Gold
D-QuantiFERRON-TB Gold
What is the term 4 administration of fluids, medications, or nutrients through the IV route?
A-chemotherapy
B-transfusion
C-IV drip
D-infusion
D-infusion
How much urine does the normal adult excrete each day?
A-1-3 liters B-500-1,000 mL C-750-2,000 mL D-250-750 mL E-250-500 mL
C-750-2,000 mL
Polyuria may b caused by?
A-all of these B-taking a diuretic C-excessive intake of fluids D-consumption of caffeine E-diabetes mellitus
A-all of these
When collecting a clean catch urine specimen, a front-2-back motion is used 2 cleanse the urinary meatus 2?
A-avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region in2 the area
being cleansed
B-prevent the cleaning solution from irritating the urinary meatus
C-avoid contaminating the distal urethra
D-stimulate urination
E-prevent patient discomfort during the cleansing process
A-avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region in2
the area being cleansed
When collecting a clean catch urine specimen, a small amount of urine is voided in2 the toilet b4 obtaining the specimen 2?
A-flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra
B-ensure the collection of an adequate amount of urine
C-ensure the specimen cup isn’t overfilled
D-remove pathogens from the bladder
E-prevent irritation of the urethra
A-flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra
A 24-hour urine specimen may b collected 2?
A-diagnose a UTI
B-detect pregnancy
C-detect the presence of liver disease
D-determine the cause of kidney stone 4mation
E-determine if a patient has diabetes mellitus
D-determine the cause of kidney stone 4mation
What is included in a complete urinalysis?
A-a physical examination of urine B-a chemical examination of urine C-none of these D-microscopic examination of urine sediment E-all of these
E-all of these
The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen 2 b?
A-light amber B-red-orange C-foul-smelling D-yellow-brown E-red
D-yellow-brown
Which of the following test results indicates a contrated urine specimen?
A-protein: trace B-pH: 6 C-RBC's:3/HPF D-specific gravity: 1.025 E-ketone bodies: <1
D-specific gravity: 1.025
Which of the following is an example of quantative test result?
A-trace B-scant C-small D-< or = to 2 E-500 mg/dL
E-500 mg/dL
Which of the following substances is normally found in urine?
A-all of these B-ketones C-urea D-leukocytes E-none of these
C-urea
The pH of most urine specimens is?
A-positive B-acidic C-neutral D-alkaline E-negative
B-acidic
A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is?
A-acidic B-neutral C-contaminated D-infected E-alkaline
E-alkaline
Which of the following urine tests may b positive when a patient has undiagnosed diabetes mellitus?
A-nitrate B-all of these C-glucose D-protein E-bilirubin
C-glucose
Which of the following urine tests may b positive when a patient has hepatitus?
A-protein B-bacteria C-glucose D-ketone bodies E-bilirubin
E-bilirubin
How should regent strips b stored?
A-all of these B-in a dry area C-in a dark container D-in a cool area E-w/the cap closed tightly
A-all of these
Y is a first-voided morning specimen preferred 4 performing a microscopic examination of urine?
A-it contains fewer microorganisms B-it contains more dissolved substances C-it is more dilute D-it contains more abnormal substances E-it's the only specimen that will contain HCG
B-it contains more dissolved substances
Which of the following is usually found in the urine sediment of a patient w/candidiasis?
A-yeast B-casts C-parasites D-bacteria E-sperm
A-yeast
What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman?
A-estrogen B-testosterone C-human chorionic gonadotropin D-calcitonin E-progesterone
C-human chorionic gonadotropin
Difficult or painful urination is called?
A-dysuria B-retention C-anuria D-micturition E-diuresis
A-dysuria
Presence of blood in urine is called?
A-diuresis B-polyuria C-anuria D-glycosuria E-hematuria
E-hematuria
The immediate need 2 urinate is called?
A-frequency B-urgency C-urinary incontinence D-micturition E-dysuria
B-urgency
What is the inability 2 retain urine in the bladder?
A-diuresis B-urinary incontinence C-anuria D-oliguria E-dysuria
B-urinary incontinence
What is the inability 2 control urination at night (bedwetting)?
A-micturition B-urinary incontinence C-nocturia D-nocturnal enuresis E-diuresis
D-nocturnal enuresis
If the internal control of a urine pregnancy test does not perform as expected, the test results r interpreted as?
A-weakly reactive B-positive C-invalid D-negative E-false positive
C-invalid
What is the inability 2 empty the bladder; the urine is being produced normally by the kidneys but is not being voided?
A-frequency B-pyuria C-anuria D-dysuria E-retention
E-retention
An electrocardiogram is a recording of the?
A-opening and closing of the valves of the heart
B-force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels
C-contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
D-systole readings
E-electrical activity of the heart
E-electrical activity of the heart
Electrocardiography is used 2?
A-evaluate chest pain or shortness of breath
B-detect dysrhythmia
C-detect the presence of cardiac ischemia
D-all of these
E-determine the presence of hypertrophy of the heart
D-all of these
What is a cardiac cycle?
A-1 complete heartbeat B-contraction of the atria C-contraction of the atrium D-contraction of the ventricles E-relaxation of the entire heart
A-1 complete heartbeat
How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized?
A-16 mm B-5 mm C-10 mm D-2 mm E-12 mm
C-10 mm
How many leads r there on a standard electrocardiogram?
A-6 B-12 C-11 D-8 E-15
B-12
A device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses released by the heart is known as?
A-electrode B-a sticker C-an amplifier D-an electrolyte E-a lead wire
A-electrode
Which electrode is used as a ground reference?
A-left leg B-right leg C-left arm D-bipolar leads E-right arm
B-right leg
A disposable electrode is held in place by?
A-an adhesive backing on the electrode B-contact paper C-glue D-hook and pile tape E-a vacuum cup
A-an adhesive backing on the electrode
Chest lead V2 is located at the?
A-5th intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
B-5th intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum
C-5th intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
D-4th intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum
E-4th intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
E-4th intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
What r artifacts?
A-rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru
B-the marking code recorded by the ECG 2 indicate which
lead is being run
C-additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
D-unusual electrical impulses from the heart
E-a type of standardization mark
C-additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
Holter monitor electrocardiography is used 2?
A-detect cardiac dysrhythmias that r intermittent in nature
B-assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily
activites
C-all of these
D-assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker
E-evaluate patients w/unexplained chest pain
F-none of these
C-all of these
What term is used 2 refer 2 an electrocardiogram result that is w/in normal limits?
A-normal sinus rhythm B-WNL C-baseline recording D-sinus arrhythmia E-LVH
A-normal sinus rhythm
The purpose of pulmonary function testing is 2?
A-dilate the bronchial tubes 2 increase airflow B-detect cardiac dysrhythmia's C-assess inspiration D-assess lung functioning E-remove mucus from the bronchial tubes
D-assess lung functioning
Which of the following r asthma triggers?
A-house dust B-tobacco smoke C-vigorous physical exercise D-all of these E-animal dander
D-all of these
What happens 2 the bronchial tubes during an asthma attack?
A-they dilate and produce mucus B-they become hard and stiff C-they constrict, swell and become clogged w/mucus D-they dilate and go in2 a spasm E-they become hyposensitive 2 allergens
C-they constrict, swell and become clogged w/mucus
The purpose of a peak flow meter is 2?
A-measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs
B-diagnose asthma
C-prevent an asthma attack
D-deliver asthma medication 2 the lungs
E-measure how much air flows out of the lungs
A-measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs
Which of the following is NOT a guideline 4 measuring peak flow rate?
A-calculate an averge of 3 acceptable breathing manuvers
B-document the highest of 3 recordings
C-tightly seal the lips around the mouthpiece
D-blow all the air out of the lungs as fast as possible
E-take a deep breath until the lungs r full
A-calculate an averge of 3 acceptable breathing manuvers
What is the baseline?
A-represents the contraction of the atria
B-represents the time from the end of atrial depolarization 2 the beginning of ventricular depolarization
C-represents the period of time when the heart rests
D-represents the contraction of the ventricles
E-represents the time from the beginning of atrial depolarization 2 the beginning of ventricular depolarization
C-represents the period of time when the heart rests
Which represents the contraction of the atria?
A-T wave B-U wave C-P wave D-P-R segment E-QRS complex
C-P wave
What is known as the pacemaker?
A-phrenic nerve B-bundle of Hls C-AV node D-SA node E-AV valves
D-SA node
The QRS is a representation of?
A-atrial contraction or depolarization B-ventricular contraction or depolarization C-atrial systole D-atrial contraction E-ventricular relaxation
B-ventricular contraction or depolarization
The U wave is?
A-not always seen and is typically small, by definition, follows the T
wave
B-represents atrial depolarization
C-atrial relaxation
D-1 complete heartbeat
E-ventricular depolarization
A-not always seen and is typically small, by definition,
follows the T wave
The ______________ segment shows when the ventricle is contracting but no electricity is flowing through it. It usually appears as a straight level line between the QRS complex and the T wave.
A-ST B-RS C-PR D-OPQRST E-QRS
A-ST
How many electrodes r placed on the body 4 a 12 Lead ECG?
A-3 B-1 C-13 D-10 E-12
D-10
Pericarditis is?
A-hole in the heart B-blood disorder C-lack of iron D-an inflammation of the pericardium E-lack of folic acid
D-an inflammation of the pericardium
Please select the correct additive 4 the green tube
A-no additive
B-sodium citrate
C-EDTA
D-heparin
D-heparin
This color of tube has either EDTA or no additive in it
A-light blue
B-lavender
C-royal blue
D-green
C-royal blue
This lavender tube has the following additive in it
A-thixotropic gel
B-EDTA
C-heparin
D-sodium citrate
B-EDTA
The plain red top tube has this type of additive
A-no additive
B-thixotropic gel
C-heparin
D-sodium citrate
A-no additive
This color of tube has a combination of sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate as the additive?
A-red/grey speckled
B-grey
C-green
D-light blue
B-grey
In the order of the draw in phlebotomy, the 1st tube drawn is?
A-green
B-red
C-yellow
D-light blue
C-yellow
Whenever a grey tube is drawn, the number of inversions performed is between _____ and _____
A-5 and 12
B-8 and 10
C-10 and 15
D-5 and 10
B-8 and 10
Whenever blood is drawn from a patient, the chances of _____________ can occur. This means the cells w/in the specimen have broken down 2 the point where it is useless 4 many tests.
A-hemolysis
B-hemoconcentration
C-anticoagulation
D-coagulation
A-hemolysis
The butterfly technique of venipuncture is also known as the __________ ____________ method
A-wright brother
B-winged diffusion
C-winged infusion
D-double hinged
C-winged infusion
The _____________ cubital vein is considered the best 1 4 drawing blood
A-median
B-brachial
C-centralized
D-rolling
A-median
The serum separator tube (SST) should remain in an upright position and at room temperature 4 ______ to ______ minutes prior 2 being centrifuged.
A-30
B-20
C-10
D-15
C-10
Whenever a plain red tube completes its centrifuge time, the MA must use extra caution 2 make sure?
A-the serum has plenty of red blotches
B-2 invert the specimen 15-20 times
C-the serum doesn’t reintegrate w/the red cells
D-the additives r mixed
C-the serum doesn’t reintegrate w/the red cells
When performing venipuncture, the person drawing the blood must always use the same angle and depth 2 enter the vein.
A-true
B-false
B-false
When using the butterfly method 2 draw blood, the MA should keep the tubes above the patient, just as u would w/a IV
A-true
B-false
B-false
The last tube color 2 b drawn is the grey top.
A-true
B-false
A-true
Ideally, the correct gauge of needle 2 use in the butterfly method of drawing blood is the 23G
A-true
B-false
A-true
Once whole blood has been separated in a non-coagulant tube, there r 3 distinct layers. The top being plasma, middle layer buffy coat and at the bottom r the cells.
A-true
B-false
A-true
The tourniquet is placed about 3-4 inches above the bend of the elbow.
A-true
B-false
A-true
All blood tubes have an expiration date clearly marked upon them. If u draw blood on an expired tube, it’s ok because the lab will understand and still run the tests that were ordered
A-true
B-false
B-false
A disorder in which there is an increase in the red cell mass is?
A-anemia B-polycythemia C-histiocytosis D-leukopenia E-leukocytosis
B-polycythemia
Which of the following tests r generally included in a CBC?
A-hematocrit
B-WBC count
C-platelet count
D-all of these
D-all of these
Which of the following is the normal hemoglobin range 4 an adult female?
A-10-14 g/dL
B-16-20 g/dL
C-14-18 g/dL
D-12-16 g/dL
D-12-16 g/dL
Anemia, hypertension, cirrhosis of the liver, severe hemorrhaging and hemolytic reactions can all cause?
A-an increase in the hemoglobin level
B-an increase in the hematocrit level
C-normal hemoglobin level and increased hematocrit level
D-a decrease in the hematocrit level and an increase in the
hemoglobin level
E-a decrease in the hemoglobin level
E-a decrease in the hemoglobin level
The measurement of the percentage volume of packed RBC’s in whole blood is?
A-hematocrit B-differential C-hemoglobin D-CBC E-INR
A-hematocrit
The normal range of the WBC count 4 an adult is?
A-4,500 - 11,000 WBC’s per cubic millimeter of blood
B-no answer text provided
C-more than 11,000 WBC’s per deciliter of blood
D-less than 11,000 WBC’s per deciliter of blood
E-less than 11,000 WBC’s per cubic millimeter of blood
A-4,500 - 11,000 WBC’s per cubic millimeter of blood
An acute infection such as appendicitis can cause?
A-polycythemia
B-leukopenia
C-anemia
D-leukocytosis
D-leukocytosis
Which of the following is the normal range 4 the RBC count in an adult?
A-male:2-4 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 2-3.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood
B-male:4.5-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 4-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood
C-male:6-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 5-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood
D-male: 6-10 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 4-7.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood
E-male:4-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 4.5-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood
B-male:4.5-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 4-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood
Which of the following is the correct documentation 4 a hematocrit reading?
A-34% B-48 C-50 mm^3 D-12 g/dL E-48 mg/kg
A-34%
Which of the following is NOT a type of WBC?
A-monocytes B-basophils C-thrombocytes D-neutrophils E-eosinophil
C-thrombocytes
What r the RBC indices?
A-the chemistry panel
B-measurements that r reported as part of the CBC
C-a test that measures a person’s blood sugar control over 2-3
months
D-a measurement that provides information on the person’s
leukocytes
E-tests that provide information on the status of the cardiovascular system
B-measurements that r reported as part of the CBC
Y must WBC’s b stained when performing a manual differential cell count?
A-WBC’s r not stained when performing a manual differential cell
count
B-the WBC’s can b identified by the color of the cell walls
C-WBC’s r clear and colorless and must b stained 2 b identified
D-WBC’s r purple if not stained
E-the stain can help distinguish between RBC’s and WBC’s
C-WBC’s r clear and colorless and must b stained 2 b identified
What does the PT test measure?
A-measures the person’s leukocyte levels
B-the length of time that it takes 4 an individual 2 stop bleeding
C-measurements that r reported as part of the CBC
D-the length of time that it takes 4 an individual’s blood 2 form a
clot
E-measures the status of the cardiovascular system
D-the length of time that it takes 4 an individual’s blood 2 form a clot
What is the range 4 a PT/INR result of a healthy individual w/a normal clotting ability?
A-1.0-2.2
B-0.8-1.2
C-1.2-8.0
D-0.0-1.2
B-0.8-1.2
Which of the following tests is NOT included in a CBC?
A-hematocrit
B-differential WBC count
C-hemoglobin
D-prothrombin time (PT)
D-prothrombin time (PT)
The RBC indices assist in the diagnosis of the different types of?
A-influenza
B-hepatitis
C-anemia
D-leukemia
C-anemia
How many blood smears r required 4 a differential WBC count?
A-1
B-2
C-5
D-3
B-2
The results of a differential WBC count indicates there r no basophils. This is considered?
A-normal
B-above normal
C-inaccurate
D-below normal
A-normal
What is the function of warfarin?
A-2 inhibit the 4mation of blood clots
B-2 speed up production of RBC’s
C-2 encourage blood clotting
D-2 prevent fibrillation
A-2 inhibit the 4mation of blood clots
How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed?
A-every 2-4 weeks
B-every 6 months
C-once each week
D-every 2 months
A-every 2-4 weeks
What is the purpose of quality control?
A-2 check the precision of the test 2 determine weather it is
providing accurate results
B-2 ensure that the test results r reliable and valid
C-2 confirm the expiration of the test
D-2 identify the test results
B-2 ensure that the test results r reliable and valid
What is the purpose of performing a fasting blood glucose test?
A-2 maintain blood glucose levels as close 2 normal as
possible in order 2 reduce symptoms of the disease and delay or
prevent long-term complications of diabetes
B-2 assist in diagnosing or charting the progress of RA, acute
rheumatic fever, widespread malignancy and bacterial infections
C-2 evaluate the progress and regulate treatment of a person w/
diabetes and as a routine screening procedure 2 detect
prediabetes and diabetes
D-2 check 4 progressive damage 2 the body organs resulting in
blindness, kidney disease, nerve damage and circulation
problems
C-2 evaluate the progress and regulate treatment of a
person w/diabetes and as a routine screening procedure 2
detect prediabetes and diabetes
What type of specimen is required 4 most blood chemistry tests?
A-RBC’s
B-serum
C-plasma
D-clotted blood
B-serum
The use of a standard 2 detect errors caused by laboratory equipment that is not working properly is known as?
A-proficiency testing
B-calibration
C-quality analysis
D-standardization
B-calibration
Which of the following may cause a control 2 fail 2 produce expected results?
A-error in technique
B-outdated testing regents
C-improper storage of testing components
D-all of these
D-all of these
The function of glucose in the body is 2?
A-maintain healthy epithelial tissue
B-assist in normal blood clotting
C-make bones and teeth hard
D-provide energy 4 the body
D-provide energy 4 the body
What is the term 4 glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue 4 later use?
A-carbohydrate
B-lipoprotein
C-glucogon
D-glycogen
D-glycogen
What hormone is required 4 the normal use of glucose in the body?
A-insulin
B-bilirubin
C-estrogen
D-glycogen
A-insulin
According 2 the American Diabetes Association, what is the normal range 4 a fasting blood glucose level?
A-100-125 mg/dL
B-20-80 mg/dL
C-70-99 mg/dL
D-140-160 mg/dL
C-70-99 mg/dL
What term is used 2 describe an abnormally low level of glucose in the blood?
A-glycosuria
B-hypoglycemia
C-acidosis
D-hyperglycemia
B-hypoglycemia
The hemoglobin Ac1 test measures the?
A-average amount of glucose in the blood over a 3 month period
B-amount of glycogen in the body over a 30 day period
C-amount of hemoglobin in the blood
D-fasting blood glucose level
A-average amount of glucose in the blood over a 3 month period
The recommended A1c level 4 an individual w/diabetes is?
A-less than 6 %
B-less than 7 %
C-8-9 %
D-greater than 8 %
B-less than 7 %
The buildup of fatty deposits on the walls of the arteries is known as?
A-atherosclerosis
B-pericarditis
C-congestive heart failure
D-thrombophlebitis
A-atherosclerosis
A total cholesterol reading of 250 is considered?
A-desirable
B-low
C-borderline high
D-high
D-high
The BUN test is used 2?
A-detect anemia
B-detect kidney disease
C-assess liver functioning
D-assess thyroid functioning
B-detect kidney disease
