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Clinic Final Questions Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What name is given 2 the heat regulating center of the body?

A-olfactory lobe
B-hypothalamus
C-pituitary gland
D-medulla

A

B-hypothalamus

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2
Q

What is the normal range 4 body temperture?

A-98F-99F
B-97F-104F
C-97F-99F
D-96F-98F

A

C-97F-99F

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3
Q

A temperature of 100*F is classified as:

A-hypotherma
B-normal
C-low grade fever
D-hyperpyrexia

A

C-low grade fever

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4
Q

Which of the following terms refers 2 a fever?

A-afebrile
B-dehydration
C-hypothermia
D-febrile

A

D-febrile

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5
Q

U take mrs. Main’s temperature @ 7am, it reads 97.8F. @ 3pm u take it again and it reads 99F. How do u account 4 the difference?

A-during sleep, muscle activity increases
B-Mrs. Main normally runs a higher body temperature than men
C-during sleep, body metabolism slows down

A

B-Mrs. Main normally runs a higher body temperature than men

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6
Q

What is the name given 2 the type of fever in which a wide range of temperatures fluctuations occurs, all r which above normal?

A-continuous
B-intermittent
C-remittent
D-crisis

A

C-remittent

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7
Q

The axilla is recommended as the perferred site 4 taking the temperature of:

A-a preschooler
B-an adult
C-an uncooperative patient
D-an infant

A

A-a preschooler

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8
Q

How far should the probe b inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant?

A-1/2 inch
B-1/4 inch
C-1 1/2 inches
D-1 inch

A

A-1/2 inch

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the purpose of measuring pulse?

A-2 asses pulse rate after the administration
B-2 asses pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart
functioning
C-2 determine if the patient is developing hypertension
D-2 establish the patient’s baseline pulse rate

A

C-2 determine if the patient is developing hypertension

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10
Q

Excessive pressure should not b applied when measuring radial pulse because:

A-it could close off the radial artery and the pulse may not b felt
B-the pulse may decrease
C-the pulse may increase
D-it could affect the rhythm of the pulse

A

A-it could close off the radial artery and the pulse may not b felt

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11
Q

Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate?

A-adolesent
B-adult
C-school-age child
D-infant

A

D-infant

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12
Q

What is the normal range 4 the resting pulse rate of an adult?

A-60-80 bpm
B-60-100 bpm
C-70-90 bpm
D-80-100 bpm

A

B-60-100 bpm

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13
Q

Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast pulse rate?

A-tachypnea
B-tachycardia
C-bounding
D-bradycardia

A

B-tachycardia

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14
Q

U r measuring the pulse and find that it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should u record this?

A-regular and strong
B-dysrhythmia snd regular
C-thready and regular
D-bounding and strong

A

A-regular and strong

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15
Q

Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?

A-a trained athlete
B-a elderly person
C-a diabetic person
D-an infant

A

A-a trained athlete

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16
Q

1 respiration consists of:

A-1 inhalation and 1 exhalation
B-the opening and closing of the heart
C-1 inhalation
D-1 exhalation

A

A-1 inhalation and 1 exhalation

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17
Q

During exhalation:

A-oxygen is taken in2 the lungs
B-carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs
C-the lungs expand
D-the diaphragm descends

A

B-carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs

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18
Q

Internal respiration is the:

A-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and
body cells
B-removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs
C-measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood
D-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between lungs and
blood

A

A-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the

blood and body cells

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19
Q

The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from:

A-10-18 rpm
B-12-20 rpm
C-16-22 rpm
D-8-16 rpm

A

B-12-20 rpm

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20
Q

Pulse oximetry provides the physician w/information on:

A-the amount of oxygen being delivered 2 the tissues
B-cardiac dysrhythmias
C-circulation 2 the exterminates
D-the rate and depth of respiration

A

A-the amount of oxygen being delivered 2 the tissues

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21
Q

The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is:

A-95-99%
B-75-85%
C-85-90%
D-90-95%

A

A-95-99%

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22
Q

If the patients fingers r cold when performing pulse oximetry, the MA should:

A-cleanse the probe w/an antiseptic wipe
B-take the reading on another finger
C-use a disposable probe on the other finger
D-ask the patient 2 rub his/her fingers 2gether

A

D-ask the patient 2 rub his/her fingers 2gether

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23
Q

Blood pressure measures:

A-the force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood
B-the expansion and recoiling of the aorta
C-the contraction of the heart
D-the number of times it beats per min

A

A-the force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood

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24
Q

What is the term used 2 describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure?

A-systolic pressure
B-diastolic pressure
C-diastole
D-hypotension

A

B-diastolic pressure

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25
Q

Normal blood pressure 4 an adult is:

A-120/80 mm Hg or higher
B-70-80 bpm
C-less than 120/80 bpm
D-110-140 over 60-90 mm Hg

A

C-less than 120/80 bpm

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26
Q

Blood pressure is measured in:

A-degrees
B-units
C-millimeters of mercury
D-bpm

A

C-millimeters of mercury

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27
Q

Which of the following BP readings can b classified as:

A-144/92 mm Hg
B-116/78 mm Hg
C-120/80 mm Hg
D-130/88 mm Hg

A

A-144/92 mm Hg

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28
Q

If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg the ppatient’s pulse pressure would b:

A-85
B-130
C-103
D-45

A

D-45

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29
Q

When measuring BP, the patient’s arm b positioned:

A-@ heart level
B-above heart level
C-with palm facing downwards
D-across the chest

A

A-@ heart level

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30
Q

Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking BP?

A-apical
B-carotid
C-radial
D-brachial

A

D-brachial

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in a patient examination?

A-the health history
B-the physical examination
C-laboratory tests
D-therapeutic procedures

A

D-therapeutic procedures

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32
Q

Which of the following may require a physical examination?

A-prerequisite 4 employment
B-school admission
C-summer camp attendance
D-all of the above
E-participation in sports
A

D-all of the above

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33
Q

What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease?

A-prognosis
B-therapy
C-final diagnosis
D-cure

A

A-prognosis

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34
Q

The process of determining which of 2 diseases that have similar symptoms is causing a patient’s illness is known as a
_______________ diagnosis.

A-tentative
B-clinical
C-final
D-differential

A

D-differential

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35
Q

What is the name of the instrument used 2 examine the interior of the eye?

A-stethoscope
B-rhinoscope
C-otoscope
D-ophthalmoscope

A

D-ophthalmoscope

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36
Q

What is the name of the instrument used 2 examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane?

A-laryngoscope
B-ophthalmoscope
C-stethoscope
D-otoscope

A

D-otoscope

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37
Q

The function of a speculum is 2:

A-open a body orifice or cavity 4 viewing
B-measure intraocular pressure
C-grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping
D-clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis

A

A-open a body orifice or cavity 4 viewing

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38
Q

How should a patient b identified?

A-by hair and eye color
B-by name and date of birth
C-by phone number and address
D-by SSN

A

B-by name and date of birth

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39
Q

The process of measuring the patient is known as:

A-calibration
B-mensuration
C-micturition
D-inspection

A

B-mensuration

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40
Q

The reason 4 weighing a prenatal patient is 2:

A-determining the due date
B-detect the presence of twins
C-determine if the fetus is growing
D-ensures the placenta is developing normally

A

C-determine if the fetus is growing

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41
Q

1 pound is = 2:

A-1,000 g
B-10 oz
C-2.2 kg
D-200 kg

A

C-2.2 kg

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42
Q

The patient’s height should b recorded in:

A-meters
B-centimeters
C-feet and inches
D-inches

A

C-feet and inches

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43
Q

The patient’s height should be measured 2 the nearest ________ inch

A-1/8
B-1/2
C-1
D-1/4

A

D-1/4

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44
Q

The height of an adult patient usually is only measured only:

A-when medication has been prescribed
B-when the patient is ill
C-after a loss of weight
D-during the 1st office visit

A

D-during the 1st office visit

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45
Q

Using proper body mechanics helps 2 prevent which of the following:

A-bursitis
B-chronic disease
C-musculoskeletal injuries
D-arthritis

A

C-musculoskeletal injuries

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46
Q

Which of the following is NOT a curvature of the vertebral column?

A-coccyx
B-cervical
C-thoracic
D-lumbar

A

A-coccyx

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47
Q

The lithotomy position is used 2 exmine the:

A-vagina
B-breasts
C-sigmoid colon
D-abdomen

A

A-vagina

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48
Q

Sim’s position is used 2 perform which of the following:

A-pelvic examination
B-urinary catheterization
C-flexible sigmoidoscopy
D-breast examination

A

C-flexible sigmoidoscopy

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49
Q

A patient has a burn on his lower back from lying on a heating pad. 4 his physical examination, u place him in which of the following positions?

A-lithotomy
B-supine
C-dorsal recumbent
D-prone

A

D-prone

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50
Q

What is the purpose of a transfer belt?

A-helps prevent musculoskeletal injuries
B-makes the transfer more comfortable 4 the patient
C-provides a secure grip 4 holding on2 a patient
D-helps in controlling a patient’s movements
E-all of these r correct

A

E-all of these r correct

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51
Q

Which of the following can b generated by an EMR program from the input of finding of the physician?

A-insurance
B-patient’s final diagnosis
C-physical examination report
D-patient statements

A

C-physical examination report

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52
Q

Which of the following is an example of palpation?

A-assessing the fetal heart rate
B-assessing a patient’s mental status
C-measuring visual acuity
D-preforming a breast examination

A

D-preforming a breast examination

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53
Q

Which of the following examinations requires the use of deep palpation?

A-detection of swelling
B-breast examination
C-detection of areas of tenderness
D-bimanual pelvic examination

A

D-bimanual pelvic examination

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54
Q

Which of the following is an example of percussion?

A-measuring pulse
B-testing hearing w/a tuning fork
C-testing reflexes w/a rubber hammer
D-listening 2 breath sounds

A

C-testing reflexes w/a rubber hammer

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55
Q

Which of the following is an example of auscultation?

A-testing pupillary reaction
B-measuring blood pressure
C-urine testing
D-measuring body temperature

A

B-measuring blood pressure

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56
Q

B4 applying a stethoscope chest piece 2 the patient’s skin, it should b:

A-soaked in bleach
B-calibrated
C-warmed
D-audioclaved

A

C-warmed

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57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of asking a patient if he/she needs 2 avoid b4 the physical examination?

A-2 prevent urinary incontinence
B-2 make the examination easier
C-2 obtain a urine specimen
D-2 provide 4 patient comfort

A

A-2 prevent urinary incontinence

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58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the MA during the physical examination?

A-positioning the patient
B-listening 2 the patient’s heart and lung sounds
C-providing the patient w/educational information
D-handing thr physician instruments and supplies

A

C-providing the patient w/educational information

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59
Q

The study of drugs is known as:

A-mycology
B-immunology
C-pharmacology
D-pharmacy

A

C-pharmacology

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60
Q

Which of the following is an example of administering medication?

A-a physician gives a patient a drug samples 2 take at home
B-the physician writes a prescription 4 medication
C-a MA performs a veinpuncture
D-a MA gives a IM injection 2 a patient

A

D-a MA gives a IM injection 2 a patient

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61
Q

The term parenteral refers 2:

A-sites located outside the GI tract
B-IM injection sites
C-administration of medication PO
D-topical administration of medication

A

A-sites located outside the GI tract

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62
Q

Which of the following is assigned by the pharmaceutical company that 1st develops the drug?

A-chemical name
B-generic name
C-brand name
D-official name

A

B-generic name

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63
Q

Which of the following represents an equivalent value 4 a cubic centimeter?

A-1 cc=1 ml
B-1 cc=1 ml
C-1 cc=1 drop
D-1 cc=1 mg

A

B-1 cc=1 ml

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64
Q

Which of the following systems is used most often 2 prescribe and administer medication?

A-apothecary
B-avoirdupois
C-metric
D-household

A

C-metric

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65
Q

Which of the following should b recorded in a patients medication record?

A-all of the above
B-herbal products
C-nonprescription medications
D-vitamins
E-prescription medications
A

A-all of the above

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66
Q

When the same dose of a drug no longer produces the desired effect, it is said that the patient has developed:

A-a drug interaction
B-an idiosyncratic reaction
C-a drug tolerance
D-an allergic reaction

A

C-a drug tolerance

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67
Q

What is the name given 2 an adverse reaction that is harmless and tolerable by the patient 2 obtain the therapeutic effect of the drug?

A-side effect
B-idiosyncratic effect
C-warning
D-contraindications

A

A-side effect

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68
Q

What is the usual treatment 4 an anaphylactic reaction?

A-oral administration of antihistamines
B-epinephrine injection
C-antibiotic injection
D-steroid injection

A

B-epinephrine injection

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69
Q

The parenteral route of administering medications is used:

A-when the patient is allegoric 2 the oral form of the drug
B-2 reduce the occurrence of drug tolerence
C-all of the above
D-2 reduce the occurrence of drug interactions
E-2 obtain a more rapid action

A

E-2 obtain a more rapid action

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70
Q

What is the name if the slanted edge at the top of a needle?

A-gauge
B-bevel
C-lumen
D-tip

A

B-bevel

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71
Q

Which of the following needles has the largest lumen?

A-27 G
B-18 G
C-25 G
D-20 G

A

B-18 G

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72
Q

What is the purpose of a safety-engineered syringe?

A-2 reduce the rick of needlestick injury
B-2 reduce the discomfort experienced by the patient during the
injection
C-2 administer the medication in a shorter period of time
D-2 prevent the administration of the wrong medication

A

A-2 reduce the rick of needlestick injury

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73
Q

What is the name given 2 a closed glass container w/a rubber stopper that holds more than 1 dose of medication?

A-multi-dose vial
B-single-dose vial
C-ampule
D-unit-dose cartridge

A

A-multi-dose vial

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74
Q

What may occur if an = amount of air in NOT injected in2 a vial when withdrawing medication from the vial?

A-the vial may crack
B-the medication may become contaminated
C-air bubbles may enter the syringe
D-it may be difficult 2 remove medication from the vial

A

D-it may be difficult 2 remove medication from the vial

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75
Q

Which of the following is used 2 administer an ID injection?

A-tuberculin syringe
B-hypodermic syringe
C-insulin syringe
D-tubex injector

A

A-tuberculin syringe

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76
Q

A sub Q injection is given in2 what type of tissue?

A-muscle
B-dermal tissue
C-fat
D-connective tissue

A

C-fat

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77
Q

Which of the following sites is commonly used 2 administer a subcutaneous injection?

A-deltoid muscle
B-upper lateral arm
C-anterior forearm
D-gluteus medius muscle

A

B-upper lateral arm

78
Q

Which of the following needle lengths is used 2 administer a subcutaneous injection?

A-5/8 inch
B-1 1/2 inches
C-1 inch
D-3/8 inch

A

A-5/8 inch

79
Q

The vastus lateralis site is used most often 2 administer medication 2:

A-elderly patients
B-infants and young children
C-adolescents
D-adults

A

B-infants and young children

80
Q

What angle of needle insertion should b used 2 administer an IM injection?

A-parallel 2 the skin
B-10-15 degrees
C-45 degrees
D-90 degrees

A

D-90 degrees

81
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason 4 changing the location of an injection?

A-2 avoid injecting the medication in2 a major nerve or blood
vessel
B-2 provide a reference point if a problem results at the injection
site
C-2 locate the site if test results need 2 b read @ a later date
D-2 avoid overuse of a site if the patient requires more than 1
injection

A

A-2 avoid injecting the medication in2 a major nerve or blood
vessel

82
Q

ID injections r used 2 administer:

A-insulin injections
B-skin tests
C-allergy injections
D-pediatric immunizations

A

B-skin tests

83
Q

Which of the following is used 2 administer an ID injection?

A-23 G, 1/2 inch
B-21 G, 1 inch
C-22 G, 5/8 inch
D-27 G, 3/8 inch

A

D-27 G, 3/8 inch

84
Q

After administrating a tuberculin skin test, it should b read w/in:

A-48-72 hours
B-15-20 minutes
C-12-24 hours
D-36-48 hours

A

A-48-72 hours

85
Q

Which of the following methods of examination must b used when reading a tuberculin skin test?

A-inspection and palpation
B-auscultation and palpation
C-inspection and percussion
D-inspection only

A

A-inspection and palpation

86
Q

Erythema w/out induration occuring from a Mantoux test indicates:

A-a - reaction
B-a + reaction
C-a doubtful reaction
D-an allergic reaction

A

A-a - reaction

87
Q

What is the name 4 tuberculosis?

A-Mantoux test
B-Tine test
C-BCG
D-QuantiFERRON-TB Gold

A

D-QuantiFERRON-TB Gold

88
Q

What is the term 4 administration of fluids, medications, or nutrients through the IV route?

A-chemotherapy
B-transfusion
C-IV drip
D-infusion

A

D-infusion

89
Q

How much urine does the normal adult excrete each day?

A-1-3 liters
B-500-1,000 mL
C-750-2,000 mL
D-250-750 mL
E-250-500 mL
A

C-750-2,000 mL

90
Q

Polyuria may b caused by?

A-all of these
B-taking a diuretic
C-excessive intake of fluids
D-consumption of caffeine
E-diabetes mellitus
A

A-all of these

91
Q

When collecting a clean catch urine specimen, a front-2-back motion is used 2 cleanse the urinary meatus 2?

A-avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region in2 the area
being cleansed
B-prevent the cleaning solution from irritating the urinary meatus
C-avoid contaminating the distal urethra
D-stimulate urination
E-prevent patient discomfort during the cleansing process

A

A-avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region in2

the area being cleansed

92
Q

When collecting a clean catch urine specimen, a small amount of urine is voided in2 the toilet b4 obtaining the specimen 2?

A-flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra
B-ensure the collection of an adequate amount of urine
C-ensure the specimen cup isn’t overfilled
D-remove pathogens from the bladder
E-prevent irritation of the urethra

A

A-flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra

93
Q

A 24-hour urine specimen may b collected 2?

A-diagnose a UTI
B-detect pregnancy
C-detect the presence of liver disease
D-determine the cause of kidney stone 4mation
E-determine if a patient has diabetes mellitus

A

D-determine the cause of kidney stone 4mation

94
Q

What is included in a complete urinalysis?

A-a physical examination of urine
B-a chemical examination of urine
C-none of these
D-microscopic examination of urine sediment
E-all of these
A

E-all of these

95
Q

The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen 2 b?

A-light amber
B-red-orange
C-foul-smelling
D-yellow-brown
E-red
A

D-yellow-brown

96
Q

Which of the following test results indicates a contrated urine specimen?

A-protein: trace
B-pH: 6
C-RBC's:3/HPF
D-specific gravity: 1.025
E-ketone bodies: <1
A

D-specific gravity: 1.025

97
Q

Which of the following is an example of quantative test result?

A-trace
B-scant
C-small
D-< or = to 2
E-500 mg/dL
A

E-500 mg/dL

98
Q

Which of the following substances is normally found in urine?

A-all of these
B-ketones
C-urea
D-leukocytes
E-none of these
A

C-urea

99
Q

The pH of most urine specimens is?

A-positive
B-acidic
C-neutral
D-alkaline
E-negative
A

B-acidic

100
Q

A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is?

A-acidic
B-neutral
C-contaminated
D-infected
E-alkaline
A

E-alkaline

101
Q

Which of the following urine tests may b positive when a patient has undiagnosed diabetes mellitus?

A-nitrate
B-all of these
C-glucose
D-protein
E-bilirubin
A

C-glucose

102
Q

Which of the following urine tests may b positive when a patient has hepatitus?

A-protein
B-bacteria
C-glucose
D-ketone bodies
E-bilirubin
A

E-bilirubin

103
Q

How should regent strips b stored?

A-all of these
B-in a dry area
C-in a dark container
D-in a cool area
E-w/the cap closed tightly
A

A-all of these

104
Q

Y is a first-voided morning specimen preferred 4 performing a microscopic examination of urine?

A-it contains fewer microorganisms
B-it contains more dissolved substances
C-it is more dilute
D-it contains more abnormal substances
E-it's the only specimen that will contain HCG
A

B-it contains more dissolved substances

105
Q

Which of the following is usually found in the urine sediment of a patient w/candidiasis?

A-yeast
B-casts
C-parasites
D-bacteria
E-sperm
A

A-yeast

106
Q

What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman?

A-estrogen
B-testosterone
C-human chorionic gonadotropin
D-calcitonin
E-progesterone
A

C-human chorionic gonadotropin

107
Q

Difficult or painful urination is called?

A-dysuria
B-retention
C-anuria
D-micturition
E-diuresis
A

A-dysuria

108
Q

Presence of blood in urine is called?

A-diuresis
B-polyuria
C-anuria
D-glycosuria
E-hematuria
A

E-hematuria

109
Q

The immediate need 2 urinate is called?

A-frequency
B-urgency
C-urinary incontinence
D-micturition
E-dysuria
A

B-urgency

110
Q

What is the inability 2 retain urine in the bladder?

A-diuresis
B-urinary incontinence 
C-anuria
D-oliguria
E-dysuria
A

B-urinary incontinence

111
Q

What is the inability 2 control urination at night (bedwetting)?

A-micturition
B-urinary incontinence
C-nocturia
D-nocturnal enuresis
E-diuresis
A

D-nocturnal enuresis

112
Q

If the internal control of a urine pregnancy test does not perform as expected, the test results r interpreted as?

A-weakly reactive
B-positive
C-invalid
D-negative
E-false positive
A

C-invalid

113
Q

What is the inability 2 empty the bladder; the urine is being produced normally by the kidneys but is not being voided?

A-frequency
B-pyuria
C-anuria
D-dysuria
E-retention
A

E-retention

114
Q

An electrocardiogram is a recording of the?

A-opening and closing of the valves of the heart
B-force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels
C-contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
D-systole readings
E-electrical activity of the heart

A

E-electrical activity of the heart

115
Q

Electrocardiography is used 2?

A-evaluate chest pain or shortness of breath
B-detect dysrhythmia
C-detect the presence of cardiac ischemia
D-all of these
E-determine the presence of hypertrophy of the heart

A

D-all of these

116
Q

What is a cardiac cycle?

A-1 complete heartbeat
B-contraction of the atria
C-contraction of the atrium
D-contraction of the ventricles
E-relaxation of the entire heart
A

A-1 complete heartbeat

117
Q

How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized?

A-16 mm
B-5 mm
C-10 mm
D-2 mm
E-12 mm
A

C-10 mm

118
Q

How many leads r there on a standard electrocardiogram?

A-6
B-12
C-11
D-8
E-15
A

B-12

119
Q

A device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses released by the heart is known as?

A-electrode
B-a sticker
C-an amplifier
D-an electrolyte
E-a lead wire
A

A-electrode

120
Q

Which electrode is used as a ground reference?

A-left leg
B-right leg
C-left arm
D-bipolar leads
E-right arm
A

B-right leg

121
Q

A disposable electrode is held in place by?

A-an adhesive backing on the electrode
B-contact paper
C-glue
D-hook and pile tape
E-a vacuum cup
A

A-an adhesive backing on the electrode

122
Q

Chest lead V2 is located at the?

A-5th intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
B-5th intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum
C-5th intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
D-4th intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum
E-4th intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum

A

E-4th intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum

123
Q

What r artifacts?

A-rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru
B-the marking code recorded by the ECG 2 indicate which
lead is being run
C-additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
D-unusual electrical impulses from the heart
E-a type of standardization mark

A

C-additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph

124
Q

Holter monitor electrocardiography is used 2?

A-detect cardiac dysrhythmias that r intermittent in nature
B-assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily
activites
C-all of these
D-assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker
E-evaluate patients w/unexplained chest pain
F-none of these

A

C-all of these

125
Q

What term is used 2 refer 2 an electrocardiogram result that is w/in normal limits?

A-normal sinus rhythm 
B-WNL
C-baseline recording
D-sinus arrhythmia
E-LVH
A

A-normal sinus rhythm

126
Q

The purpose of pulmonary function testing is 2?

A-dilate the bronchial tubes 2 increase airflow
B-detect cardiac dysrhythmia's
C-assess inspiration
D-assess lung functioning
E-remove mucus from the bronchial tubes
A

D-assess lung functioning

127
Q

Which of the following r asthma triggers?

A-house dust
B-tobacco smoke
C-vigorous physical exercise
D-all of these
E-animal dander
A

D-all of these

128
Q

What happens 2 the bronchial tubes during an asthma attack?

A-they dilate and produce mucus
B-they become hard and stiff
C-they constrict, swell and become clogged w/mucus
D-they dilate and go in2 a spasm
E-they become hyposensitive 2 allergens
A

C-they constrict, swell and become clogged w/mucus

129
Q

The purpose of a peak flow meter is 2?

A-measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs
B-diagnose asthma
C-prevent an asthma attack
D-deliver asthma medication 2 the lungs
E-measure how much air flows out of the lungs

A

A-measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs

130
Q

Which of the following is NOT a guideline 4 measuring peak flow rate?

A-calculate an averge of 3 acceptable breathing manuvers
B-document the highest of 3 recordings
C-tightly seal the lips around the mouthpiece
D-blow all the air out of the lungs as fast as possible
E-take a deep breath until the lungs r full

A

A-calculate an averge of 3 acceptable breathing manuvers

131
Q

What is the baseline?

A-represents the contraction of the atria
B-represents the time from the end of atrial depolarization 2 the beginning of ventricular depolarization
C-represents the period of time when the heart rests
D-represents the contraction of the ventricles
E-represents the time from the beginning of atrial depolarization 2 the beginning of ventricular depolarization

A

C-represents the period of time when the heart rests

132
Q

Which represents the contraction of the atria?

A-T wave
B-U wave
C-P wave
D-P-R segment
E-QRS complex
A

C-P wave

133
Q

What is known as the pacemaker?

A-phrenic nerve
B-bundle of Hls
C-AV node
D-SA node
E-AV valves
A

D-SA node

134
Q

The QRS is a representation of?

A-atrial contraction or depolarization
B-ventricular contraction or depolarization
C-atrial systole
D-atrial contraction
E-ventricular relaxation
A

B-ventricular contraction or depolarization

135
Q

The U wave is?

A-not always seen and is typically small, by definition, follows the T 
    wave
B-represents atrial depolarization
C-atrial relaxation 
D-1 complete heartbeat
E-ventricular depolarization
A

A-not always seen and is typically small, by definition,

follows the T wave

136
Q

The ______________ segment shows when the ventricle is contracting but no electricity is flowing through it. It usually appears as a straight level line between the QRS complex and the T wave.

A-ST
B-RS
C-PR
D-OPQRST
E-QRS
A

A-ST

137
Q

How many electrodes r placed on the body 4 a 12 Lead ECG?

A-3
B-1
C-13
D-10
E-12
A

D-10

138
Q

Pericarditis is?

A-hole in the heart
B-blood disorder
C-lack of iron
D-an inflammation of the pericardium
E-lack of folic acid
A

D-an inflammation of the pericardium

139
Q

Please select the correct additive 4 the green tube

A-no additive
B-sodium citrate
C-EDTA
D-heparin

A

D-heparin

140
Q

This color of tube has either EDTA or no additive in it

A-light blue
B-lavender
C-royal blue
D-green

A

C-royal blue

141
Q

This lavender tube has the following additive in it

A-thixotropic gel
B-EDTA
C-heparin
D-sodium citrate

A

B-EDTA

142
Q

The plain red top tube has this type of additive

A-no additive
B-thixotropic gel
C-heparin
D-sodium citrate

A

A-no additive

143
Q

This color of tube has a combination of sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate as the additive?

A-red/grey speckled
B-grey
C-green
D-light blue

A

B-grey

144
Q

In the order of the draw in phlebotomy, the 1st tube drawn is?

A-green
B-red
C-yellow
D-light blue

A

C-yellow

145
Q

Whenever a grey tube is drawn, the number of inversions performed is between _____ and _____

A-5 and 12
B-8 and 10
C-10 and 15
D-5 and 10

A

B-8 and 10

146
Q

Whenever blood is drawn from a patient, the chances of _____________ can occur. This means the cells w/in the specimen have broken down 2 the point where it is useless 4 many tests.

A-hemolysis
B-hemoconcentration
C-anticoagulation
D-coagulation

A

A-hemolysis

147
Q

The butterfly technique of venipuncture is also known as the __________ ____________ method

A-wright brother
B-winged diffusion
C-winged infusion
D-double hinged

A

C-winged infusion

148
Q

The _____________ cubital vein is considered the best 1 4 drawing blood

A-median
B-brachial
C-centralized
D-rolling

A

A-median

149
Q

The serum separator tube (SST) should remain in an upright position and at room temperature 4 ______ to ______ minutes prior 2 being centrifuged.

A-30
B-20
C-10
D-15

A

C-10

150
Q

Whenever a plain red tube completes its centrifuge time, the MA must use extra caution 2 make sure?

A-the serum has plenty of red blotches
B-2 invert the specimen 15-20 times
C-the serum doesn’t reintegrate w/the red cells
D-the additives r mixed

A

C-the serum doesn’t reintegrate w/the red cells

151
Q

When performing venipuncture, the person drawing the blood must always use the same angle and depth 2 enter the vein.

A-true
B-false

A

B-false

152
Q

When using the butterfly method 2 draw blood, the MA should keep the tubes above the patient, just as u would w/a IV

A-true
B-false

A

B-false

153
Q

The last tube color 2 b drawn is the grey top.

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

154
Q

Ideally, the correct gauge of needle 2 use in the butterfly method of drawing blood is the 23G

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

155
Q

Once whole blood has been separated in a non-coagulant tube, there r 3 distinct layers. The top being plasma, middle layer buffy coat and at the bottom r the cells.

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

156
Q

The tourniquet is placed about 3-4 inches above the bend of the elbow.

A-true
B-false

A

A-true

157
Q

All blood tubes have an expiration date clearly marked upon them. If u draw blood on an expired tube, it’s ok because the lab will understand and still run the tests that were ordered

A-true
B-false

A

B-false

158
Q

A disorder in which there is an increase in the red cell mass is?

A-anemia
B-polycythemia
C-histiocytosis
D-leukopenia
E-leukocytosis
A

B-polycythemia

159
Q

Which of the following tests r generally included in a CBC?

A-hematocrit
B-WBC count
C-platelet count
D-all of these

A

D-all of these

160
Q

Which of the following is the normal hemoglobin range 4 an adult female?

A-10-14 g/dL
B-16-20 g/dL
C-14-18 g/dL
D-12-16 g/dL

A

D-12-16 g/dL

161
Q

Anemia, hypertension, cirrhosis of the liver, severe hemorrhaging and hemolytic reactions can all cause?

A-an increase in the hemoglobin level
B-an increase in the hematocrit level
C-normal hemoglobin level and increased hematocrit level
D-a decrease in the hematocrit level and an increase in the
hemoglobin level
E-a decrease in the hemoglobin level

A

E-a decrease in the hemoglobin level

162
Q

The measurement of the percentage volume of packed RBC’s in whole blood is?

A-hematocrit
B-differential
C-hemoglobin
D-CBC
E-INR
A

A-hematocrit

163
Q

The normal range of the WBC count 4 an adult is?

A-4,500 - 11,000 WBC’s per cubic millimeter of blood
B-no answer text provided
C-more than 11,000 WBC’s per deciliter of blood
D-less than 11,000 WBC’s per deciliter of blood
E-less than 11,000 WBC’s per cubic millimeter of blood

A

A-4,500 - 11,000 WBC’s per cubic millimeter of blood

164
Q

An acute infection such as appendicitis can cause?

A-polycythemia
B-leukopenia
C-anemia
D-leukocytosis

A

D-leukocytosis

165
Q

Which of the following is the normal range 4 the RBC count in an adult?

A-male:2-4 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 2-3.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood

B-male:4.5-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 4-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood

C-male:6-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 5-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood

D-male: 6-10 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 4-7.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood

E-male:4-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood
-female: 4.5-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood

A

B-male:4.5-6.2 million per cubic millimeter of blood

-female: 4-5.5 million per cubic millimeter of blood

166
Q

Which of the following is the correct documentation 4 a hematocrit reading?

A-34%
B-48
C-50 mm^3
D-12 g/dL
E-48 mg/kg
A

A-34%

167
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of WBC?

A-monocytes
B-basophils
C-thrombocytes
D-neutrophils
E-eosinophil
A

C-thrombocytes

168
Q

What r the RBC indices?

A-the chemistry panel
B-measurements that r reported as part of the CBC
C-a test that measures a person’s blood sugar control over 2-3
months
D-a measurement that provides information on the person’s
leukocytes
E-tests that provide information on the status of the cardiovascular system

A

B-measurements that r reported as part of the CBC

169
Q

Y must WBC’s b stained when performing a manual differential cell count?

A-WBC’s r not stained when performing a manual differential cell
count
B-the WBC’s can b identified by the color of the cell walls
C-WBC’s r clear and colorless and must b stained 2 b identified
D-WBC’s r purple if not stained
E-the stain can help distinguish between RBC’s and WBC’s

A

C-WBC’s r clear and colorless and must b stained 2 b identified

170
Q

What does the PT test measure?

A-measures the person’s leukocyte levels
B-the length of time that it takes 4 an individual 2 stop bleeding
C-measurements that r reported as part of the CBC
D-the length of time that it takes 4 an individual’s blood 2 form a
clot
E-measures the status of the cardiovascular system

A

D-the length of time that it takes 4 an individual’s blood 2 form a clot

171
Q

What is the range 4 a PT/INR result of a healthy individual w/a normal clotting ability?

A-1.0-2.2
B-0.8-1.2
C-1.2-8.0
D-0.0-1.2

A

B-0.8-1.2

172
Q

Which of the following tests is NOT included in a CBC?

A-hematocrit
B-differential WBC count
C-hemoglobin
D-prothrombin time (PT)

A

D-prothrombin time (PT)

173
Q

The RBC indices assist in the diagnosis of the different types of?

A-influenza
B-hepatitis
C-anemia
D-leukemia

A

C-anemia

174
Q

How many blood smears r required 4 a differential WBC count?

A-1
B-2
C-5
D-3

A

B-2

175
Q

The results of a differential WBC count indicates there r no basophils. This is considered?

A-normal
B-above normal
C-inaccurate
D-below normal

A

A-normal

176
Q

What is the function of warfarin?

A-2 inhibit the 4mation of blood clots
B-2 speed up production of RBC’s
C-2 encourage blood clotting
D-2 prevent fibrillation

A

A-2 inhibit the 4mation of blood clots

177
Q

How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed?

A-every 2-4 weeks
B-every 6 months
C-once each week
D-every 2 months

A

A-every 2-4 weeks

178
Q

What is the purpose of quality control?

A-2 check the precision of the test 2 determine weather it is
providing accurate results
B-2 ensure that the test results r reliable and valid
C-2 confirm the expiration of the test
D-2 identify the test results

A

B-2 ensure that the test results r reliable and valid

179
Q

What is the purpose of performing a fasting blood glucose test?

A-2 maintain blood glucose levels as close 2 normal as
possible in order 2 reduce symptoms of the disease and delay or
prevent long-term complications of diabetes
B-2 assist in diagnosing or charting the progress of RA, acute
rheumatic fever, widespread malignancy and bacterial infections
C-2 evaluate the progress and regulate treatment of a person w/
diabetes and as a routine screening procedure 2 detect
prediabetes and diabetes
D-2 check 4 progressive damage 2 the body organs resulting in
blindness, kidney disease, nerve damage and circulation
problems

A

C-2 evaluate the progress and regulate treatment of a
person w/diabetes and as a routine screening procedure 2
detect prediabetes and diabetes

180
Q

What type of specimen is required 4 most blood chemistry tests?

A-RBC’s
B-serum
C-plasma
D-clotted blood

A

B-serum

181
Q

The use of a standard 2 detect errors caused by laboratory equipment that is not working properly is known as?

A-proficiency testing
B-calibration
C-quality analysis
D-standardization

A

B-calibration

182
Q

Which of the following may cause a control 2 fail 2 produce expected results?

A-error in technique
B-outdated testing regents
C-improper storage of testing components
D-all of these

A

D-all of these

183
Q

The function of glucose in the body is 2?

A-maintain healthy epithelial tissue
B-assist in normal blood clotting
C-make bones and teeth hard
D-provide energy 4 the body

A

D-provide energy 4 the body

184
Q

What is the term 4 glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue 4 later use?

A-carbohydrate
B-lipoprotein
C-glucogon
D-glycogen

A

D-glycogen

185
Q

What hormone is required 4 the normal use of glucose in the body?

A-insulin
B-bilirubin
C-estrogen
D-glycogen

A

A-insulin

186
Q

According 2 the American Diabetes Association, what is the normal range 4 a fasting blood glucose level?

A-100-125 mg/dL
B-20-80 mg/dL
C-70-99 mg/dL
D-140-160 mg/dL

A

C-70-99 mg/dL

187
Q

What term is used 2 describe an abnormally low level of glucose in the blood?

A-glycosuria
B-hypoglycemia
C-acidosis
D-hyperglycemia

A

B-hypoglycemia

188
Q

The hemoglobin Ac1 test measures the?

A-average amount of glucose in the blood over a 3 month period
B-amount of glycogen in the body over a 30 day period
C-amount of hemoglobin in the blood
D-fasting blood glucose level

A

A-average amount of glucose in the blood over a 3 month period

189
Q

The recommended A1c level 4 an individual w/diabetes is?

A-less than 6 %
B-less than 7 %
C-8-9 %
D-greater than 8 %

A

B-less than 7 %

190
Q

The buildup of fatty deposits on the walls of the arteries is known as?

A-atherosclerosis
B-pericarditis
C-congestive heart failure
D-thrombophlebitis

A

A-atherosclerosis

191
Q

A total cholesterol reading of 250 is considered?

A-desirable
B-low
C-borderline high
D-high

A

D-high

192
Q

The BUN test is used 2?

A-detect anemia
B-detect kidney disease
C-assess liver functioning
D-assess thyroid functioning

A

B-detect kidney disease

Today's Medical Assistant (46 decks)

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