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Radiology courses > Pathology Quizzes semester 2 > Flashcards

Pathology Quizzes semester 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The stomach wall is composed of how many layers

A

Four

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2
Q

What is the length of the average adult small intestine

A

22 feet

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3
Q

The small intestine is divided into how many distinct portions

A

3

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4
Q

The main function of the small bowel are

A

Digestion of food

Absorption of food

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5
Q

The gallbladder produces bile? (T/F)

A

False

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6
Q

The vermiform appendix of the colon is attached to the

A

Cecum

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7
Q

The contraction waves by which the digestive tube moves its contents towards the rectum is called

A

Peristalsis

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8
Q

Deglutition is defined as “swallowing food.” (T/F)

A

True

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9
Q

For which type of body habitus is the stomach nearly vertical

A

Asthenic

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10
Q

The greater omentum lies between the greater curvature of the stomach and the liver. (T/F)

A

False

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11
Q

The largest gland in the body is the

A

Liver

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12
Q

The opening between the small intestine and the large intestine is called the

A

Ileocecal valve

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13
Q

Which part of the colon is closest to the ileocecal valve

A

Ascending colon

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14
Q

The pancreas is an accessory organ for the digestive system? (T/F)

A

True

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15
Q

The gall bladder functions to

A

Store and concentrate bile

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16
Q

The splenic flexure is on the left side of the abdominal cavity. (T/F)

A

True

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17
Q

Functions of the stomach include

A

Storage of food

Chemical breakdown of food

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18
Q

If the patient is prone, the fundus will be filled with barium. (T/F)

A

False

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19
Q

The most distal portion of the small intestine is the

A

Ileum

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20
Q

The main functions of the large intestine are

A

Reabsorption of fluids

Elimination of waste products

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21
Q

Which type of diverticula arises in the distal 10 cm of the esophagus

A

Epiphanic

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22
Q

Perforation of the esophagus may be a complication of all of the following

A

Peptic Ulcer

Instrumentation

Neoplasm

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23
Q

What is mastication

A

Chewing

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24
Q

Qhat is the most common manifestation of peptic ulcer disease

A

Duodenal ulcer

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25
Q

Which organisms are most often responsible for infectious esophagitis

A

Candida fungus and Herpesvirus

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26
Q

Which type of diverticula arises from the posterior wall of the cervical esophagus

A

Zenker’s

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27
Q

Deglutition is defined as

A

Swallowing

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28
Q

Failure of a satisfactory esophageal lumen to develop separately from the trachea is termed

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

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29
Q

Acquired tracheoesophageal (TE) fistulas are commonly (50%) caused by

A

Malignancy of the mediastinum

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30
Q

Which of the following is strongly correlated with esophageal carcinoma

A

Excessive alcohol intake

Smoking

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31
Q

Which type of esophageal diverticula contains all layers of the wall

A

Traction

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32
Q

What is esophageal atresia

A

A congenital condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch

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33
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder

A

Store and concentrate bile

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of acute esophagitis

A

(GERD) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

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35
Q

Where does the process of digestion begin

A

Mouth

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36
Q

Where is the stomach do most gastric cancers occur

A

Distal stomach

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37
Q

Dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus are termed

A

Varices

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38
Q

Where does the greatest amount of digestion occur

A

Duodenum

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39
Q

Smooth muscle contractions that move the contents of the digestive system along the GI tract are called

A

Peristalsis

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40
Q

Difficulty swallowing is termed

A

Dysphagia

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41
Q

What is the most common abnormality found in the upper GI exams

A

Hiatal Hernia

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42
Q

A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause that often affects the terminal ileum is called

A

Crohn’s disease

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43
Q

In which age group is appendicitis most common

A

Children and adolescents

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44
Q

Progressive shortening and rigity of the colon and absent haustral patterns are radiographic evidence of

A

Chronic ulcerative colitis

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45
Q

What is intussusception

A

The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another

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46
Q

This disorder is caused by a loss of bowel motility

A

Adynamic ileus

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47
Q

What is one of the most typical forms of primary colon cancers

A

Annular

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48
Q

A common disorder of intestinal motor activity in which fluid and gas do not progress normally through an unobstructed bowel is called

A

Adynamic Ileus

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49
Q

Varicose veins of the lower end of the rectum that cause symptoms of pain, itching, and bleeding are

A

Hemorrhoids

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50
Q

What is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children

A

Intussusception

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51
Q

The most common cause of mechanical small bowel obstruction is

A

Fibrous adhesions

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52
Q

The cause of regional enteritis is unknown (T/F)

A

True

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53
Q

A condition of acquired herniations of mucosa and submucosa through muscular layers at points of weakness of the bowel wall is known as

A

Diverticulitis

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54
Q

Small bowel obstructions are usually caused by intraluminal neoplasms (T/F)

A

False (Surgeries)

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55
Q

A twisting of the bowel on itself that may lead to obstruction is termed

A

Volvulus

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56
Q

A typical saw-tooth configuration on a barium enema exam is evidence of

A

Diverticulosis

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57
Q

What is one of the most common causes of obstruction in the large bowel

A

Primary colon cancer

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58
Q

Where in the colon do most primary cancers arise

A

In preexisting polyps

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59
Q

Crohn’s disease most commonly occurs in geriatric patients (T/F)

A

False

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60
Q

Which imaging modality is the gold standard for appendicitis

A

CT

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61
Q

Telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another is called volvulus (T/F)

A

False (Intussusception)

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62
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma is more common in persons with cirrhosis (T/F)

A

True

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63
Q

Pneumoperitoneum is a sign of perforation of the GI tract (T/F)

A

True

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64
Q

Which technique is appropriate when imaging a patient with known liver cirrhosis complicated by ascites

A

Increase kVp

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65
Q

What is the primary cause of acute cholecystitis

A

Impacted gallstone in the cystic duct

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66
Q

What condition results from chronic cholecystitis in which the gallbladder becomes fibrotic and calcified

A

Porcelain Gallbladder

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67
Q

Which modality is the most effective for detection of carcinoma of the pancreas

A

CT

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68
Q

What is a common complication of cirrhosis

A

Ascites-fluid in the abdomen

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69
Q

What is the modality of choice to image hepatocellular carcinoma

A

CT

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70
Q

Porcelain gallbladder increases the risk of gallbladder carcinoma (T/F)

A

True

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71
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Excessive alcohol consumption

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72
Q

Which types of gallstone are most prevalent in the United States

A

Cholesterol

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73
Q

About 60% of pancreatic cancers occur in the tail of the pancreas (T/F)

A

False-they occur in the head of the pancreas

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74
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma most commonly occurs in patients with

A

Diffuse hepatocellular disease

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75
Q

A twisting of the bowel on itself that may lead to obstruction is termed

A

Volvulus

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76
Q

Which of the following is a sign of perforation of the GI tract

A

Pneumoperitoneum

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77
Q

Inflammation or necrosis

A

Pancreatic pseudocyst

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78
Q

Excessive alcohol consumption

A

Acute pancreatitis

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79
Q

Obstruction of cystic duct by an impacted gallstone

A

Acute cholecystitis

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80
Q

Perforation of the GI tract

A

Pneumoperitoneum

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81
Q

Primary liver cancer is more common than liver metastasis (T/F)

A

False

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82
Q

What is the current imaging modality of choice for the gallbladder

A

Ultrasound

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83
Q

What are the functions of the vertebral column

A

Supports the trunk and skull

Encloses and protects the spinal cord

Provides muscle attachments

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84
Q

When viewed from the side, the vertebral column presents how many curves

A

4

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85
Q

Which vertebral areas have a lordotic curve

A

Cervical

Lumbar

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86
Q

Which vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve

A

Thoracic

Sacrum and coccyx

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87
Q

Which vertebral process projects laterally and slightly posteriorly from the junction of the laminae and pedicles

A

Transverse process

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88
Q

How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column in an adult

A

26

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89
Q

The vertebra prominence is the name given to the

A

Seventh cervical vertebrae

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90
Q

The opening lin the cervical vertebrae for the transmission of the vertebral artery and veins are called the

A

Transverse foramen

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91
Q

On each side of the sacral base is a large wing-like mass called the

A

Ala

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92
Q

The vertebral body and the vertebral arch surround the space called the

A

Vertebral foramen

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93
Q

The vertebral foramen of the first cervical vertebra contains the

A

Dens and the spinal cord

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94
Q

The second cervical vertebra is called the

A

Axis

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95
Q

The articulations between the superior and inferior articular processes are called the

A

Zygapophyseal joints

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96
Q

The central nervous system is composed of the

A

Brain and Spinal cord

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97
Q

The largest part of the brain is the

A

Cerebrum

98
Q

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the spinal cord

A

Brainstem

99
Q

The hindbrain consists of the

A

Pons and medulla

100
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum

A

Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance

101
Q

The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers. The tough, outermost covering is called the

A

Dura mater

102
Q

Which of the following is an extension of the dura mater that projects downward into the longitudinal fissure to separate the cerebral hemispheres

A

Falx cerebri

103
Q

The ventricles of the brain are filled with

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

104
Q

How many fluid containing cavities make up the ventricular system of the brain

A

4, two lateral, the third and fourth ventricles

105
Q

What supplies to the striated skeletal muscles

A

Somatic nervous system

106
Q

The ventricles of the brain are filled with

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

107
Q

The basic unit of the nervous system is the

A

Neuron

108
Q

Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of

A

Multiple Sclerosis

109
Q

What are components of the peripheral nervous system

A

Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves

Autonomic nerves

110
Q

Viral inflammation of the brain is termed

A

Encephalitis

111
Q

The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers. The tough outermost covering is called the

A

Dura mater

112
Q

Networks of capillaries in the ventricles that form CSF are known as

A

Choroid plexuses

113
Q

A focal neurologic defect that completely resolves within 24 hours is known as a

A

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

114
Q

What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor

A

Glioma

115
Q

The central nervous system is composed of the

A

Brain and spinal cord

116
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of glioma

A

Astrocytoma

117
Q

Which of the following is caused by venous bleeding in the cranium

A

Subdural hematoma

118
Q

What is the most common facial bone fracture

A

Nasal bones

119
Q

What are the most common primary malignancies that metastasize to the brain

A

Lung and breast

120
Q

What term is used to denote the sudden dramatic development of a focal neurologic deficit

A

Stroke

121
Q

A condition in which brain impulses are disturbed and that causes symptoms ranging from loss of consciousness to violent seizures is

A

Epilepsy

122
Q

Which of the following degenerative neurologic diseases causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig)

123
Q

Which benign CNS tumor arises from arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura

A

Meningioma

124
Q

The middle menigeal layer is the arachnoid membrane (T/F)

A

True

125
Q

The smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue are controlled by the

A

Autonomic nervous system

126
Q

The most common type of primary brain tumor is a glioma (T/F)

A

True

127
Q

The functions of the kidney include

A

Removing waste products from the blood

Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

Secreting substances that affect blood pressure

128
Q

Which kidney is longer and narrower

A

Left

129
Q

The microscopic components of the parenchyma of the kidney are called

A

Nephrons

130
Q

The cluster of blood capillaries contained within the capsule of a nephron is called the

A

Glomerulus

131
Q

What serves as the filter for the blood in the kidney

A

Glomerulus

132
Q

The cup-shaped recesses in the center of each kidney that receive the urine from the collecting ducts are called

A

Calyces

133
Q

What serves as the reservoir for urine

A

Urinary bladder

134
Q

Where do the ureters enter the bladder

A

Posterior wall

135
Q

Chronic cystitis is evidence radiographically by a decrease in bladder size and wall irregularity (T/F)

A

True

136
Q

What is the most common type of fusion anomaly

A

Horseshoe kidney

137
Q

In an average person, the nephrons filter about____L of water out of glomerular blood each day

A

190

138
Q

What term is applied to an acquired condition that occurs when one kidney is required to do the job of two

A

Compensatory hypertrophy

139
Q

What is an ectopic kidney

A

A kidney that is not located in the normal location

140
Q

A miniature replica of a kidney is termed

A

Hypoplastic kidney

141
Q

Urinary calculi are asymptomatic while they are in the kidney (T/F)

A

True

142
Q

A rare anomaly in which there is a third, rudimentary kidney is termed

A

Supernumerary kidney

143
Q

What is the cause of hydronephrosis

A

Blockage above the level of the bladder

144
Q

What is oliguria

A

A smaller than normal amount of urine

145
Q

A smaller amount of urine is termed

A

Oliguria

146
Q

A hypoplastic kidney is a small third kidney and a rare developmental anomaly (T/F)

A

False

147
Q

A suppurative inflammatory process of the kidney and renal pelvis is termed

A

Pyelonephritis

148
Q

Urine formation begins in the glomerulus (T/F)

A

True

149
Q

What term is applied to a renal calculus that completely fills the renal pelvis

A

Staghorn calculus

150
Q

A nonsuppurative inflammatory process involving the tuft of capillaries within the Bowman’s capsule is called

A

Glomerulonephritis

151
Q

When the kidneys are fused together at their lower poles, they are termed a

A

Horseshoe kidney

152
Q

What is a ureterocele

A

Cystic dilation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the urinary bladder

153
Q

Which urinary disease occurs almost exclusively in males and is defined as a thin transverse membrane that causes bladder outlet obstruction and may lead to severe hydronephrosis, hydroureter, and renal damage

A

Posterior urethral valves

154
Q

Blockage above the level of the bladder causes dilation of the renal pelvicalyceal system, which is called

A

Hydronephrosis

155
Q

A rare anomaly in which a kidney fails to develop is called

A

Unilateral renal agenesis

156
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

157
Q

What is the most common hospital-acquired infection

A

Cystitis

158
Q

The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron (T/F)

A

True

159
Q

Cystic dilatation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the urinary bladder is called a

A

Ureterocele

160
Q

What term is used to describe an abnormally positioned kidney

A

Ectopic kidney

161
Q

Ureteroceles are commonly associated with duplicated ureters (T/F)

A

True

162
Q

Where does the formation of urine begin

A

Glomerulus

163
Q

The most common renal neoplasm is

A

Hypernephroma

164
Q

A very smooth radiopaque rim demonstrating the “beak sign” indicates

A

Renal cyst

165
Q

What is the most common unifocal mass of the kidney

A

Renal cyst

166
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice to diagnose renal vein thrombosis

A

Ultrasound

167
Q

What are the causes of small kidneys with smooth contours

A

Nephrosclerosis

Chronic glomerulonephritis

168
Q

The medical term that means to void or empty the bladder of urine is

A

Micturate

169
Q

Which of these is a common symptom of a renal neoplasm

A

Painless hematuria

170
Q

What is the most common abdominal neoplasm in infancy and childhood

A

Wilms’ tumor

171
Q

What are the causes of enlarged kidneys

A

Polycystic renal disease

Renal vein thrombosis

172
Q

What condition most commonly occurs in children who are severely dehydrated

A

Renal vein thrombosis

173
Q

The vaginal end of the uterus is the

A

Cervix

174
Q

The junction of the ductus and the seminal vesicle forms the

A

Ejaculatory duct

175
Q

Parts of the female reproductive system include

A

Ovaries

Uterine tubes

176
Q

Parts of the male reproductive system include the

A

Testes

Seminal vesicle

Bulbourethral glands

177
Q

What is the function of the seminal vesicles

A

Secrete a thick, fructose-rich liquid, which is a sperm energy source

178
Q

Which male gland lies just beneath the bladder and surrounds the urethra

A

Prostate

179
Q

What is the function of the prostate gland

A

Secrete a thin, alkaline fluid essential to sperm motility maturation

180
Q

Estrogen is secreted by the

A

Ovaries

181
Q

Which of the following develops after ovulation

A

Corpus luteum

182
Q

The corpus luteum secretes

A

Progesterone

183
Q

Fertilization normally occurs in the

A

Fallopian tubes

184
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy

A

A pregnancy that implants somewhere other than the uterus

185
Q

Prostate cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in men (T/F)

A

False

186
Q

What is the function of the seminal vesicles

A

Secrete a thick, fructose-rich liquid, which is a sperm energy source

187
Q

What is the function of the prostate gland

A

Secrete a thin, alkaline fluid essential to sperm mortality

188
Q

What is the second most common malignancy in men

A

Carcinoma of the prostate

189
Q

Transrectal ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality for the detection of

A

Carcinoma of the prostate

190
Q

Which imaging modality is the most effective screening technique for skeletal metastasis of prostate carcinoma

A

Nuclear Medicine

191
Q

Which imaging modality is used as a screening technique when a testis is not palpated in the scrotal sac

A

Ultrasound

192
Q

The twisting of the gonad on its pedicle is known as

A

Testicular torsion

193
Q

What imaging modalities may be used to diagnose testicular tumors

A

MRI and US

194
Q

A condition of the undescended testis is known as

A

Cryptorchidism

195
Q

The most common site of hematogenous metastasis of prostate cancer is

A

Bone

196
Q

The preferred imaging modality for demonstration of testicular torsion depends upon

A

The age of the patient

197
Q

Which male gland lies just beneath the bladder and surrounds the urethra

A

Prostate

198
Q

What is the common cause of an inability to empty the urinary bladder in males

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

199
Q

Leiomyomas are

A

Benign, smooth muscle tumors of the uterus

200
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy

A

A pregnancy that implants somewhere other than the uterus

201
Q

What are the characteristics of a malignancy in the breast

A

Poorly defined mass with fine, radiating spicules

202
Q

A painful condition in which endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus is termed

A

Endometriosis

203
Q

What are radiographic imaging procedures of the female reproductive system that are commonly used today

A

Mammography

Hysterosalpingography

204
Q

What is used to diagnose cervical cancer

A

PAP smear

205
Q

What is gynecomastia

A

Abnormal breast enlargement in males

206
Q

What most commonly occurs in postmenopausal women

A

Endometrial carcinoma

207
Q

What are the causes of pelvic inflammatory disease in women

A

Venereal disease

Complication of intrauterine devices

Multiple sexual partners

208
Q

Breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in women (T/F)

A

True

209
Q

Uterine fibroids are also known as leiomyomas (T/F)

A

True

210
Q

Fertilization normally occurs in the

A

Fallopian tubes

211
Q

On ultrasound, simple cysts in the breast demonstrate as

A

Fluid-filled lesions with smooth borders

212
Q

What is the most common malignancy in women ages 44-50

A

Breast cancer

213
Q

What is the result of excessive growth hormone

A

Hyperpituitarism

214
Q

If hypopituitarism occurs in a person whose bone growth is still active, then _____results

A

Gigantism

215
Q

If hypopituitarism occurs in a person whose bone growth has ceased, then _____results

A

Acromegaly

216
Q

Graves disease is related to the thyroid gland (T/F)

A

True

217
Q

What is a major complication of diabetes Mellitus

A

Atherosclerosis

218
Q

A diabetic patient is NPO for an upper GI exam. While waiting for the radiologist to arrive, the patient complains of feeling lightheaded, and you notice the patient is trembling. What is indicated, and what should be done

A

Hypoglycemic shock, the patient should be given sugar in the form of candy or orange juice

219
Q

Where is the thyroid gland located

A

In the neck at the level of the larynx

220
Q

Epinephrine is secreted by the

A

Adrenals

221
Q

The gonadotropins are secreted by the

A

The anterior lobe of the pituitary

222
Q

Gradually marked enlargement and thicking of the bones of the face and jaw are termed

A

Acromegaly

223
Q

Which hormone causes contraction of smooth muscle, especially in the uterus

A

Oxytocin

224
Q

The pituitary gland is often called the master gland of the body because the hormones it secretes control most glandular activity throughout the body (T/F)

A

True

225
Q

Which hormones are known as the fight or flight hormones

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

226
Q

What are the major glands of the endocrine system

A

Thyroid

Parathyroid

Adrenals

Pituitary

227
Q

Which radiographic characteristics are highly suggestive of acromegaly

A

Thickening of the heel pad to greater than 23 mm

228
Q

The posterior lobe of the pituitary produces

A

Vasopressin and Oxytocin

229
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located

A

The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

230
Q

The only natural iodine-containing substance in the body is

A

Thyroxine

231
Q

Diabetes insipidus is related to diabetes mellitus (T/F)

A

False

232
Q

Which of the following is an inherited generalized disorder of connective tissue with ocular, skeletal, and cardiovascular manifestations

A

Marfan syndrome

233
Q

A group of chronic inherited conditions in which fat replaces muscle is known as

A

Muscular dystrophy

234
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins can be stored within the body tissues (T/F)

A

True

235
Q

Arachnodactyly is characteristic of persons with

A

Marfan Syndrome

236
Q

Water-soluble vitamins can be stored within body tissues (T/F)

A

False

237
Q

Which of the following is a connective tissue disorder, likely an immune-complex disease, which primarily affects young or middle age women

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

238
Q

An excess of adipose tissue resulting from a consistent excessive caloric intake as compared with calories required, or used, by daily activities refers to

A

Obesity

239
Q

The most common trisomy disorder is

A

Down syndrome

240
Q

Which of the following is an extremely malignant skin cancer

A

Melanoma

241
Q

Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency in

A

Vitamin D

Radiology courses (68 decks)

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