Patho End Flashcards

1
Q

A basic reaction of the body to some form of injury is a

A

Disease Process

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2
Q

Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells is called

A

Neoplasia

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3
Q

Heat and redness associated with inflammation is produced by

A

Hyperemia

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4
Q

Some bacterial organisms produce substances that cause damage to the tissue and incite the inflammation process known as

A

Toxins

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5
Q

Chronic inflammation in a localized area, which often has centralized necrosis is called

A

A Granuloma

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6
Q

An accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue throughout the body is called

A

Anasacra

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7
Q

An inflammation associated with pus formation is

A

Suppurative

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8
Q

The protein-rich fluid associated with swelling in an inflammatory process is

A

Exudate

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9
Q

The protein-rich fluid associated with swelling in an inflammatory process is

A

Exudate

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10
Q

The low-protein fluid associated with the inflammatory process as seen in pulmonary edema is called

A

Transudate

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11
Q

A subcutaneous hematoma greater than 1 to 2 cm is called

A

Ecchymosis

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12
Q

An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as

A

Hematoma

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13
Q

When a reduction in the size or number of cells is an organ occurs, this results in

A

Atrophy

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14
Q

The study of neoplasms or tumors is called

A

Oncology

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15
Q

Benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in a glandlike pattern are

A

Adenomas

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16
Q

Diffuse spread of malignant neoplasms by invasion into a natural body cavity is called

A

Seeding

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17
Q

The major metastatic route of carcinomas is

A

Lymphatic spread

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18
Q

Assessing the aggressiveness or degree of malignancy is referred to as

A

Grading

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19
Q

To determine the most appropriate therapy, the disease process must be

A

Staged

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20
Q

The most common hereditary abnormality is

A

Enzyme deficiency

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21
Q

A gene always producing an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or heterozygous is called

A

Dominant

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22
Q

The modality of choice to demonstrate the multiple manifestations of AIDS in the central nervous system is

A

MRI

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23
Q

All of the following are additive diseases in terms of x-ray attenuation

A

Callus, Ascites, Pneumonia

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24
Q

Rupture of a blood vessel

A

Hemorrhage

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25
Q

Larger areas of bleeding into the skin

A

Purpura

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26
Q

Large (>1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise

A

Ecchymosis

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27
Q

An accumulation of blood in the tissue

A

Hematoma

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28
Q

Minimal bleeding into the skin or mucous membrane

A

Petechiae

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29
Q

Failure of normal development causing smaller cells

A

Hypoplasia

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30
Q

Number of cells in the tissue increases

A

Hyperplasia

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31
Q

Loss of uniformity of individual cells

A

Dysplasia

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32
Q

Increased size of the cells

A

Hypertrophy

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33
Q

Reduction in the number or size of cells

A

Atrophy

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34
Q

Forming benign large cystic masses

A

Cystadenoma

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35
Q

Composed of blood vessels

A

Angioma

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36
Q

Benign tumor consisting of fibrous tissues

A

Fibroma

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37
Q

Glandular cell malignancy

A

Adenocarcinoma

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38
Q

Tumor that grows in a glandlike pattern

A

Adenoma

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39
Q

A malignant tumor arising from connective tissue

A

Sarcoma

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40
Q

A cartilaginous tumor that is benign

A

Chondroma

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41
Q

malignancy of epithelial cell origin

A

Carcinoma

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42
Q

Soft, fatty tissue tumor

A

Lipoma

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43
Q

Recognition of foreign substance

A

Antigen

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44
Q

Chemically altered poisonous material

A

Toxoid

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45
Q

Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

A

Antibody

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46
Q

Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus

A

Vaccine

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47
Q

Form in lymphoid tissue

A

Immunoglobulin

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48
Q

Body makes harmless

A

Immune

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49
Q

The lower respiratory system consists of the

A

Trachea, Bronchi, and Bronchioles

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50
Q

The thin-walled sac wheere oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged with the blood in the pulmonary circulatory system is a

A

Alveolus

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51
Q

The blood supply to nourish and support lung tissue is the

A

Bronchial circulation

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52
Q

For what purpose is a chest radiograph obtained after endotracheal tube insertion

A

To ensure proper placement and position

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53
Q

What is the common result of an endotracheal tube that is positioned too low and into the right main bronchus

A

Left lung atelectasis

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54
Q

Which type of internal device is used for chemotherapy and long-term venous access

A

Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)

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55
Q

The newborn who experiences underaeration of the lung resulting from the lack of surfactant has

A

Hyaline membrane disease

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56
Q

Croup is a

A

Viral infection of the subglottic region of the trachea

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57
Q

An inflammatory exudate caused by pneumococcus causing the affected lung to appear solid is

A

Alveolar pneumonia

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58
Q

Sharply circumscribed encapsulation of the tuberculosis bacilli is known as a

A

Tuberculoma

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59
Q

The hallmark of pulmonary overinflation is cases of emphysema is

A

Flattened diaphragms

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60
Q

Squamous carcinoma typically arises from the_____causing gradual narrowing of the bronchial lumen

A

Major central bronchi

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61
Q

The most common malignant lung neoplasm arising from the mucosa of the bronchial tree is

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

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62
Q

Inflammation caused by bacillus (mycobacterium) resulting in lesions or cavities that may calcify in the apices is known as

A

Tuberculosis

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63
Q

Stomach, thyroid, and pancreas carcinomas metastasize to the lung by

A

Lymphangitic spread

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64
Q

Thymoma is a lesion in the ____mediastinum

A

Anterior

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65
Q

The posterior mediastinum is the location of

A

Aneurysms of the descending aorta

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66
Q

Permanent abnormal dilation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic components of the bronchial wall defines

A

Bronchiectasis

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67
Q

Pneumococcal infection causing affected lung to appear solid

A

Alveolar pneumonia

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68
Q

Staphylococcal infection originating in the bronchi or bronchial mucosa

A

Bronchopneumonia

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69
Q

Viral or fungal infection preponderantly in the alveoli

A

Interstitial pneumonia

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70
Q

Esophageal or gastric contents in the lung cause pneumonia

A

Aspiration pneumonia

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71
Q

Bone that develops within the connective tissue is called

A

Intramembranous ossification

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72
Q

A rare hereditary bone dysplasia involving the bone resorption mechanism of calcified cartilage is

A

Osteopetrosis

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73
Q

For brittle bone disease, the radiographer should

A

Decrease the exposure factors

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74
Q

The disease process that begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane causing synovial proliferation is called

A

Rheumatiod arthritis

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75
Q

The most common form of degenerative arthritis that has osteophyte development is

A

Osteoarthritis

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76
Q

Which of the following results when a pyogenic organism enters the joint through the blood, direct extension or trauma

A

Infectious arthritis

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77
Q

A disease process usually caused by accelerated bone resorption results in

A

Osteoporosis

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78
Q

Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton appearing as a loss of bone density is

A

Osteomalacia

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79
Q

In Paget’s disease, the beginning phase involves bone

A

Destruction

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80
Q

Lobulated borders from endosteal scalloping containing focal areas of high signal intensity on T2-weighted MR images are suggestive of an

A

Enchondroma

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81
Q

The bone lesion typically seen as a small (<1 cm) round area with a lucent center is a

A

Osteoid osteoma

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82
Q

An expansile lucent lesion demonstrating a sharp demarcation from normal adjacent bone having a thin sclerotic rim is a

A

Unicameral cyst

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83
Q

For detecting asymptomatic bone metastasis, the modality of choice is

A

Radionuclide bone scan

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84
Q

A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone is caused by a tumor or infection is known as what type of fracture

A

Pathologic

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85
Q

Secondary growth center at the end of the shaft

A

Epiphysis

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86
Q

Flat bone growth by addition of osseous tissue on the outer surface

A

Appositional growth

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87
Q

Thin processes of bone that are part of the cancellous bone

A

Trabeculae

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88
Q

Cell that removes bone

A

Osteoclast

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89
Q

Bone destruction throughout life

A

Resorption

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90
Q

Where the shaft flares meeting the growth plate

A

Metaphysis

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91
Q

Tubelike structure within the shaft

A

Medullary cavity

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92
Q

Bone matrix consist of complex structural units, haversian system

A

Compact bone

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93
Q

Weblike arrangement of marrow filled spaces

A

Spongy bone

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94
Q

Marrow is lined by an inner membrane

A

Endosteum

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95
Q

Most common malignant tumors

A

Bone metastasis

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96
Q

Most often arise from the outer table of the skull

A

Osteoma

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97
Q

Eccentric lucent lesion in the metaphysis

A

Giant cell tumor

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98
Q

Osteoblasts producing spicules of calcified bone

A

Osteogenic Sarcoma

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99
Q

Benign projection with a cartilaginous cap

A

Osteochondroma

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100
Q

Cartilaginous tumor arising from the medullary canal

A

Enchondroma

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101
Q

Disseminated malignancy of plasma cell

A

Multiple myeloma

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102
Q

Often contains punctate or amorphous calcifications in its cartilaginous matrix

A

Chondrosarcoma

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103
Q

Difficult to penetrate, increase factors

A

Osteoid osteoma

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104
Q

No change in bone, no change in factors

A

Osteoarthritis

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105
Q

Easy to penetrate, decrease factors

A

Osteogenic imperfecta

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106
Q

Easy to penetrate, increase factors

A

Osteoporosis

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107
Q

Difficult to penetrate, increase factors

A

Osteopetrosis

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108
Q

Which type of severe infection occurs almost exclusively in diabetic patients and causes acute necrosis of the entire kidney

A

Emphysematous pyelonephritis

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109
Q

Which imaging modality is the safest and most accurate in detecting renal calculi

A

Noncontrast helical CT

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110
Q

What term is applied to a renal calculus that completely fills the renal pelvis

A

Staghorn calculus

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111
Q

What is nephrocalcinosis

A

A condition of calcium deposits within the renal parenchyma

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112
Q

Calcium deposits within the renal parenchyma are termed

A

Nephrocalcinosis

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113
Q

What population is most likely to develop stones in the urinary bladder

A

Elderly males

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114
Q

The most common renal neoplasm is a

A

Hypernephroma

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115
Q

Which are causes of enlarged kedneys

A

Polycystic renal disease

Renal vein thrombosis

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116
Q

Which are causes of small kidneys with smooth contours

A

Nephrosclerosis

Chronic glomerulonephritis

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117
Q

Nonsuppurative inflammation of the tuft of the capillaries in the Bowman’s capsule

A

Glomerulonephritis

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118
Q

Inflammation of the urinary bladder

A

Cystitis

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119
Q

A destructive condition involving the terminal portion of the renal pyramids

A

Papillary necrosis

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120
Q

Suppurative infection of the kidneys and the renal pelvis

A

Pyelonephritis

121
Q

The heart is lined with a smooth, delicate membrane called the

A

Endocardium

122
Q

The heart rate is controlled by the

A

Autonomic nervous system

123
Q

Which hormone increases heart rate and increases the force of its contractions

A

Epinephrine

124
Q

The left artioventricular (AV) valve is also called the

A

Mitral valve

125
Q

Which structure seperates the right and left sides of the heart

A

Septum

126
Q

The tricuspid valve is located

A

Between the right atrium and ventricle

127
Q

Deoxygenated venous blood returns to the heart via the

A

Superior and inferior vena cava

128
Q

The right ventricle pumps blood into the

A

Pulmonary artery

129
Q

The pulmonary veins empty into the

A

Left atrium

130
Q

Deoxygenated blood is carried from the heart to the lungs via the

A

Pulmonary arteries

131
Q

Which of the following is termed the “pacemaker” of the heart

A

SA node

132
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of the impulse of a heartbeat through components of the conduction system

A

SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

133
Q

The most common congenital cardiac lesions are

A

Left to right shunts

134
Q

Which congential cardiac lesion appears radiographically as an enlarged left atrium, left ventricle, and central pulmonary arteries, along with diffuse increased pulmonary vasculature

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

135
Q

Which congenital cardiac lesion appears radiographically as an enlarged right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary outflow tract

A

Atrial septal defect

136
Q

Which of the following is an abnormal vascular connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

137
Q

All left to right. shunts can be complicated by the development of

A

Pulmonary hypertension

138
Q

Which imaging modality is the most definitive, yet the most invasive, for demonstration of the heart atria and ventricles

A

Angiography

139
Q

What is the most common cause of cyanotic conginital heart disease

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

140
Q

Which of the following shows up clinically as normal blood pressure in the upper extremities and low blood pressure in the lower extremities

A

Coarctation of the aorta

141
Q

Rib notching is a radiographic characteristic of

A

Coarctation of the aorta

142
Q

Which of the following causes ischemic heart disease as a result of decreased oxygen to the myocardium

A

Coronary artery disease

143
Q

Which of the following are causes of congestive heart failure

A

Hypertension

Impaired heart contractions

Increased peripheral resistance to blood flow

144
Q

The most common cause of pulmonary edema is

A

Elevated pulmonary venous pressure

145
Q

What is an aneurysm

A

An area of an artery in which the walls are dilated

146
Q

A localized dilation of an artery is termed

A

Aneurysm

147
Q

An autoimmune disease that results from a reaction of a patient’s antibodies against antigens from a previous streptococcal infection is called

A

Rheumatic fever

148
Q

What structures are typically damaged by rheumatic fever

A

Heart valves

149
Q

Which of the following conditions are complications of rheumatic fever

A

Mitral valve stenosis

Aortic valve insufficiency

Aortic valve stenosis

150
Q

A disease in which the growth of nodules or vegetations on the heart valves is caused by deposits of bacteria or fungi is known as

A

Infective endocarditis

151
Q

Which of the following is a major source of fatal pulmonary emboli

A

Deep vein thrombosis

152
Q

Which of the following is a noninvasive technique used for diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis

A

Color flow Doppler ultrasound

153
Q

All of the following are predisposing factors to the development of coronary artery disease

A

Obesity

Hypertension

Smoking

154
Q

All of the following are causes of aortic stenosis

A

Idiopathic calcific stenosis

Congenital valvular deformity

Rheumatic heart disease

155
Q

Right to left shunts are the most common congenital cardiac lesions (T/F)

A

False

156
Q

Deep vein thrombosis is a primary source of pulmonary embolism (T/F)

A

True

157
Q

Rheumatic fever is a primary cause of valvular disease (T/F)

A

True

158
Q

Radiography is of little value in the demonstration of infective endocarditis (T/F)

A

True

159
Q

Enlarged left atrium, left ventricle, and pulmonary arteries

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

160
Q

Enlarged right atrium and ventricle

A

Arterial septal defect

161
Q

Blurred vascular markings, ‘butterfly” pattern when severe

A

Pulmonary edema

162
Q

Cardiomegaly, cardiothoracic ration greater than 50%

A

Congestive Heart Failure

163
Q

Which of the following supplies the striated skeletal muscles

A

Somatic nervous system

164
Q

Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of

A

Multiple sclerosis

165
Q

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the spinal cord

A

Brainstem

166
Q

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the midbrain

A

Diencephalon

167
Q

What is the function of the tentorium cerebelli

A

Seperate the cerebral occipital lobe from the cerebellum

168
Q

Networks of capillaries in the ventricles that form CSF are known as

A

Choroid plexuses

169
Q

What is the function of the arachnoid villi

A

Absorption of CSF into the venous blood

170
Q

A brain abscess is usually the result of a

A

Chronic infection of the sinuses, middle ear, or mastoid or systemic infection that is pneumonia

171
Q

Which of the following types of gliomas are slow growing and tend to calcify

A

Oligodendrocytomas

172
Q

Which of the following is a slow-growing, benign tumor that occurs on the eighth cranial nerve

A

Acoustic neuroma

173
Q

Which of the following is caused by arterial bleeding in the cranium

A

Epidural hematoma

174
Q

What is the most common facial bone fracture

A

Nasal bones

175
Q

Which fracture separates the zygoma from the other facial bones

A

Tripod

176
Q

Which of the following involves bilateral and horizontal fractures of the maxilla

A

Le Fort Fracture

177
Q

Paralysis on one side of the body is termed

A

Hemiplegia

178
Q

Which of the following is used to initially screen patients of a suspected ischemic attack

A

Color-flow Doppler ultrasound

179
Q

A rupture of a berry aneurysm is a major cause of

A

Subarachnoid hemmorrhage

180
Q

Which of the following CNS degenerative disorders has the CT pathologic hallmark of atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen, causing focal dilatation of the frontal horns?

A

Huntington’s Disease

181
Q

Which of the following degenerative neurologic diseases causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig)

182
Q

Which type of primary brain tumor usually arises in the walls of the fourth ventricle in children and the lateral ventricles in adults

A

Ependymoma

183
Q

Which type of skull fracture can cause separation of the suture

A

Diastatic

184
Q

Where is the most common site for traumatic arteriovenous fistulas to arise in the CNS

A

The internal carotid artery and cavernous sinus

185
Q

What position is recommended to obtain facial bone radiographic images to evaluate facial trauma

A

Upright

186
Q

What position is recommended to obtain trauma images of the facial bones which the patient cannot be positioned upright

A

Dorsal decubitus

187
Q

The cerebellum is the largest portion of the brain (T/F)

A

False

188
Q

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by the herpes simplex virus (T/F)

A

True

189
Q

The nasal bones are the most commonly fractured facial bones (T/F)

A

True

190
Q

Radiography of the skull for fractures is essential to the diagnosis of associated brain injury (T/F)

A

False

191
Q

Star shaped fracture with multiple fracture lines radiating from a central point is

A

Stellate fracture

192
Q

Bilateral horizontal fractures of the maxillae

A

Le Fort Fracture

193
Q

Results from a direct blow to the orbit

A

Blow out fracture

194
Q

Fracture that separates the zygoma from other facial bones

A

Tripod Fracture

195
Q

Slow growing and most common form of glioma

A

Astrocytoma

196
Q

Arises from the embryonic neural tube

A

Chordoma

197
Q

Benign tumor arising from arachnoid membrane

A

Meningioma

198
Q

Slow-growing, benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve

A

Acoustic neuroma

199
Q

A basic reaction of the body to some form of injury is a

A

Disease Process

200
Q

A bioconcave, disk shaped blood cell without a nucleus that contains hemoglobin is a

A

Erythrocyte

201
Q

Which of the following is defined as an iron based protein that carries oxygen from the respiratory tract to the body tissues

A

Hemoglobin

202
Q

In a normal person, the white blood cell count is

A

5000 to 10000/mm^3

203
Q

Which of the following increase in response to allergic and parasitic conditions

A

Eosinophils

204
Q

Which of the following defend the body against bacteria

A

Neutrophils

205
Q

Which of the following will increase the absorption of iron

A

Increase in vitamin C

206
Q

Iron deficiency anemia usually results fro

A

Chronic blood loss

207
Q

What type of anemia is caused by defective red blood cells with a shortened life span

A

Hemolytic anemia

208
Q

Which type of anemia is caused by a b12 deficiency

A

Megaloblastic anemia

209
Q

Which type of hemolytic anemia occurs preponderantly in a persons of Italian, Greek, or Sicilian descent

A

Thalassemia

210
Q

Which form of hemolytic anemia causes the most severe radiographic changes

A

Thalassemia

211
Q

Aplastic anemia results from

A

Failure of bone marrow to function

212
Q

Thrombocytopenia is defined as

A

A deficiency in the number of platelets in the blood

213
Q

A deficiency in the number of platelets is called

A

Purpura

214
Q

Where are white blood cells produced

A

Red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

215
Q

Where are platelets produced

A

Red bone marrow

216
Q

A hematologic disorder characterized by hyperplasia of the bone marrow (neoplastic) that results in increased production of erythrocytes, granulocytes, and platelets defines

A

Polycythemia vera

217
Q

Sickle cell anemia is a type of aplastic anemia (T/F)

A

False

218
Q

A hereditary defect that causes abnormal red blood cell production is the most common cause of anemia (T/F)

A

False

219
Q

Iron deficiency

A

Anemia

220
Q

Virus

A

Mononucleosis

221
Q

Inherited anomaly

A

Hemophilia

222
Q

Platelet deficiency

A

Purpura

223
Q

Neoplastic hyperplasia of bone marrow

A

Primary polycythemia

224
Q

Hemolytic anemia

A

Thalassemia

225
Q

Neoplasm of the lymphoreticular system

A

Hodgkin’s disease

226
Q

Neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells

A

Leukemia

227
Q

Which of the following are major glands of the endocrine system

A

Adrenal

Thyroid

228
Q

The production of aldosterone is primarily regulated by the secretion of ______ in the _______

A

Renin, Kidneys

229
Q

Which endocrine gland secretes cortisone

A

Pituitary

230
Q

Which group of steroid hormones is sex hormones that tend to masculinize the body to retain amino acids, and to enhance protein synthesis

A

Androgens

231
Q

Which of the following are responses to epinephrine

A

Stimulated heart activity

Increased blood pressure

Increased levels of blood glucose

232
Q

Cushings syndrome is caused by

A

An excess of glucorticoid hormones

233
Q

Which of the following diseases may be caused by an adrenal carcinoma

A

Cushing’s syndrome and aldosteronism

234
Q

Which of the following is the second most common malignancy in children

A

Neuroblastoma

235
Q

The gonodotropins are secreted by the

A

Anterior lobe of the pituitary

236
Q

The posterior lobe of the pituitary produces

A

Vasopressin and oxytoxin

237
Q

Vasopressin acts to protect a person from

A

Excessive water loss

238
Q

If hyperpituitarism occurs in a person whose bone growth has ceased, then ______ results

A

Acromegaly

239
Q

Exophthalmos is a major physical finding in

A

Graves’ disease

240
Q

Excess thyroid hormone production from the entire gland results in

A

Graves’ disease

241
Q

Hypothyroidism dating from birth causes

A

Cretinism

242
Q

Enlargement of the thyroid gland not associated with inflammatory or neoplastic process and not initially associated with hyperthyroidism and myxedema is known as

A

Goiter

243
Q

What is the common type of thyroid carcinoma

A

Papillary

244
Q

What is the usual appearance of thyroid carcinomas on radioactive iodine nuclear medicine scans

A

Solitary cold nodule

245
Q

The hormones secreted by the parathyroid glands function to

A

Regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the blood

246
Q

Which of the following is a major complication of diabetes Mellitus

A

Atherosclerosis

247
Q

Which of the following can cause insulin shock

A

Too much insulin

Not enough food

248
Q

What is the most common type of Hyperparathyroidism

A

Secondary

249
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Chronic renal failure

250
Q

The risk of thyroid cancer is increased in persons who have childhood therapeutic neck irradiation (T/F)

A

True

251
Q

Epinephrine is produced in

A

Pituitary gland

252
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone is produced in

A

Pituitary gland

253
Q

Growth hormone is produced in

A

Pituitary gland

254
Q

Androgens are produced in

A

Adrenal glands

255
Q

Which of the following are radiographic imaging procedures of the female reproductive system that are commonly used today

A

Mammography

Hysterosalpingography

256
Q

A ______ is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis

A

Chancre on the genitals

257
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the secondary stage of syphilis

A

Nonitching skin rash

258
Q

Which stage of syphilis is incurable

A

Tertiary

259
Q

Which of the following body systems may be affected by the tertiary stage of syphilis

A

Skeletal

Cardiovascular

CNS

260
Q

Which stage of syphilis produces radiographic evidence of this disease

A

Tertiary

261
Q

Radiographic evidence of gonorrhea is

A

Septic arthritis with articular erosion and joint space narrowing

262
Q

Common complications seen in infants with congenital syphilis include

A

Mental retardation and deafness

263
Q

Sperm go through the final stage of maturation in the ______

A

Epididymis

264
Q

The most common site of hematogenous metastasis of prostate cancer is

A

Bone

265
Q

Which imaging modality is the most effective screening technique for skeletal metastasis of prostate carcinoma

A

Nuclear Medicine

266
Q

What is cryptorchidism

A

The condition of an ectopic or undescended testis

267
Q

A condition of an undescended testis is known as

A

Cryptorchidism

268
Q

What condition is associated with cryptorchidism

A

Malignancy

269
Q

The perfect imaging modality for the demonstration of testicular torsion depends on

A

Age of the patient

270
Q

Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between the end of menses and ovulation

A

Proliferative

271
Q

Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between ovulation and the onset of menses

A

Secretory

272
Q

The proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle occurs

A

Between the end of menses and ovulation

273
Q

The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle occurs

A

Between ovulation and the onset of menses

274
Q

What is the most common germ cell tumor in women

A

Dermoid cyst

275
Q

Leiomyomas are

A

Benign, smooth muscle tumors of the uterus

276
Q

Which of the following most commonly occurs in postmenopausal women

A

Endometrial carcinoma

277
Q

On ultrasound simple cysts in the breast demonstrate as

A

Anechoic center with thin echogenic capsule

278
Q

How does a rupture silicone breast implant demonstrate on US

A

Snowstorm appearance

279
Q

Which imaging modality is best for demonstration of breast tissue surrounding breast implants

A

MRI

280
Q

Which ultrasound fetal measurement is most accurate for determining fetal age between 12 to 16 weeks

A

Biparietal diameter (BPD)

281
Q

Which is the most accurate US measurement of fetal age in later pregnancy (second and third trimesters)

A

Fetal femoral length

282
Q

Which term refers to a very small volume of amniotic fluid

A

Oligohydramnios

283
Q

An excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid is termed

A

Polyhydramnios

284
Q

Fetal urinary tract disorders are often indicated by

A

Oligohydramnios

285
Q

Fetal abnormalities of the central nervous system can often cause

A

Polyhydramnios

286
Q

Which of the following are US evidence of an ectopic pregnancy

A

Fluid in the cul de sac

Enlarged uterus without a gestational sac

287
Q

What is trophoblastic disease

A

A spectrum of pregnancy related disorders causing either benign or malignant neoplasms

288
Q

What is a choriocarcinoma

A

A malignant form of trophoblastic disease

289
Q

Hydatidiform mole is a malignancy of the pregnant uterus (T/F)

A

False

290
Q

Biparietal diameter is an accurate measure of fetal age in later pregnancy (more than 33 weeks) (T/F)

A

False

291
Q

The two primary categories of testicular tumors are seminomas and teratomas (T/F)

A

True

292
Q

The most common type of germ cell tumor

A

Dermoid cyst (teratoma)

293
Q

A malignancy following a faulty fertilization

A

Choriocarcinoma

294
Q

The most common benign tumor of the breast

A

Fibroadenoma

295
Q

A benign, smooth muscle tumor of the uterus

A

Leiomyoma

296
Q

A progesterone-secreting mass that develops after the mature ovum is expelled

A

Coprus luteum

297
Q

A small cavity in the ovary in which the ovum matures before expulsion

A

Graafian follicle

298
Q

A pus-filled, inflamed fallopian tube

A

Pyosalpinx

299
Q

A type of testicular tumor

A

Seminoma