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PT Elements > Nursing Exam 2 > Flashcards

Nursing Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the cerebrum responsible for?

A

a person’s mental status

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2
Q

what is the cerebral cortex responsible for?

A

perception and behavior

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3
Q

what is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

SHORT term memory, expression of emotion, decision-making and problem-solving

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4
Q

what is parietal lobe responsible for?

A

sensory data

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5
Q

what is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A

Sounds and LONG term memory

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6
Q

What is the limbic system responsible for?

A

survival behaviors and emotions

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7
Q

what is the reticular activating system or RAS responsible for?

A

Awareness and arousal

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8
Q

What are some examples of Present Illness?

A

Change of behavior, anxiety, depression

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9
Q

What are some examples of past medical history?

A

neurological disorders, psychiatric disorders, medication use

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10
Q

What is there to know about the MMSE or Mini-Mental State Examination?

A

you can score up to 31 and if you score 21 or less it warrants further evaluation

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11
Q

What does GCS stand for?

A

Glascow Coma Scale

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12
Q

What categories are under level of consciousness?

A

Alert and Oriented

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13
Q

What four things should a person to know to be considered oriented?

A

person, place, time, situation

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14
Q

What should you take into account when looking at a patient’s behavior and appearance?

A

mood, hygiene, body language

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15
Q

What should you be looking for when you look at a patient’s language?

A

Normal, expected; Aphasia

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16
Q

What is Sensory Aphasia?

A

Receptive

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17
Q

What is Motor Aphasia?

A

Expressive

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18
Q

What should you take into account when looking at a patient’s recent memory?

A

Short term, naming unrelated object, recalling 3 words or series of numbers

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19
Q

What should you be looking for when checking a patient’s remote memory?

A

long term, recalling mother’s maiden name, an event in history, birthday

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20
Q

What are some characteristics of delirium?

A

acute, sudden-short development, medical condition link, impairs consciousness, potentially reversible

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21
Q

What are some characteristics of dementia?

A

Chronic, insidious-progressive, structural brain disease, impairs judgement, memory, through patterns

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22
Q

What are the 12 Cranial Nerves?

A

Olfactory, Optic, Oculomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, Abducens, Facial, Auditory, Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, Spinal Accessory, Hypoglossal

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23
Q

What is the function of the olfactory nerve?

A

smell

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24
Q

what is the function of the optic, oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens?

A

eye movement and visual acuity

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25
Q

what is the function of the facial and glossopharyngeal cranial nerves?

A

taste

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26
Q

What is the function of the auditory cranial nerve?

A

hearing

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27
Q

What is the function of the vagus nerve?

A

parasympathetic innervation

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28
Q

what is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

movement of the tongue

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29
Q

what five things do you test for sensory function?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Temperature
  3. Position
  4. Vibration
  5. Touch
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30
Q

What five things do you test for cerebellar function?

A

Coordination, Balance, Stereognosis, Graphesthesia, Proprioception

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31
Q

For Deep Tendon Reflexes, what does the grading look like?

A

0 - no response
1- sluggish
2 - active- NORMAL
3 - more brisk and hyperactive
4 - brisk and clonus

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32
Q

What does PERRLA mean?

A

pupils are equal, round, reactive to light and accomodation

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33
Q

what should pupils look like when examining?

A

they should be equal in size; 3-7 mm in diameter

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34
Q

What does BEFAST stand for?

A

Balance, Eyes, Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time is brain!

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35
Q

varied inability to speak, interpret or understand language

A

aphasia

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36
Q

difficult or unclear articulation of speech

A

dysarthria

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37
Q

blindness of a visual field

A

hemianopia

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38
Q

without coordination; the loss of full control of body movements

A

ataxia

39
Q

a clinical stroke assessment tool to evaluate and document neurological status in stroke patients

A

NIHSS

40
Q

Inflammatory Response 4 Steps:

A
  1. Recognition
  2. Activation
  3. Release
  4. Recruitment
41
Q

what is a localized inflammatory response?

A

only affects that area of the body

42
Q

what is a systemic inflammatory response?

A

affects the entire body

43
Q

interval from the time the pathogen enters the body until the appearance of signs and symptoms

A

incubation period

44
Q

interval from onset of nonspecific s&s to more specific s&s; individual can spread disease before having s&s

A

prodromal stage

45
Q

when a patient manifests symptoms of infection - when infection is considered severe

A

acute illness stage

46
Q

signs and symptoms begin to disappear due to reduced number of infectious agentes

A

period of decline

47
Q

return to state of health

A

period of convalescence

48
Q

What are different types of testing for infection?

A

urinary; blood; throat swab; x-ray or MRI; ultrasound; wound swab; spinal tap

49
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

Pathogen, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Entry, Susceptible Host

50
Q

What are ways to eliminate pathogens

A
  • disinfecting
  • sterilizing
  • cleaning
  • antimicrobial treatment
51
Q

what are ways to eliminate reservoir spreading?

A

Hand hygeine, CHG bath prior to surgery, clean environment using proper chemicals and following protocols

52
Q

What are some ways to eliminate portal of exit spreading?

A
  • containing body fluids by using drains or dressings
  • sterile technique
  • masks - such as transporting infectious patient
53
Q

what are some ways to eliminate modes of transmission?

A
  • hand hygiene
  • barrier devices depending on the infectious agent
  • reduction of environmental factors to reduce vectors
54
Q

what are some ways to eliminate portal of entry spreading?

A
  • hand hygiene
  • barrier devices depending on the infectious agent
  • wounds covered
  • proper coverage of IV/device
55
Q

what are some ways to eliminate susceptible host?

A

immunizations, proper nutrition, supplements, hygiene, controlling blood sugar, exercise, stress reduction, intact skin

56
Q

What type of disease spreader is Scabies?

A

contact

57
Q

Staph aureus

A

contact

58
Q

hepatitis

A

contact

59
Q

C. diff

A

contact

60
Q

MRSA

A

contact

61
Q

VRE

A

contact

62
Q

ESBLs

A

contact

63
Q

Herpes zoster/Shingles

A

contact

64
Q

COVID

A

contact/droplet/airborne

65
Q

infleunza

A

droplet

66
Q

pertussis(whooping cough)

A

droplet

67
Q

adenovirus

A

droplet

68
Q

norovirus

A

droplet

69
Q

rhinovirus(common cold)

A

droplet

70
Q

mumps

A

droplet

71
Q

rubella

A

droplet

72
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

droplet

73
Q

SARS-CoV1

A

droplet

74
Q

Tuberculosis

A

airborne

75
Q

smallpox

A

airborne

76
Q

chickenpox

A

airborne

77
Q

rubeola

A

airborne

78
Q

disseminated herpes zoster

A

airborne

79
Q

what does HAI stand for?

A

hospital associated infection

80
Q

What are characteristics of an HAI?

A
  • often preventable
  • increases length of stay
  • increases expense
  • increases potential for death
81
Q

What are some common HAIs?

A

CAUTI, SSI, CLABSI, VAP

82
Q

What does CAUTI stand for?

A

Catheter-associated urinary tract infection

83
Q

What does SSI stand for?

A

surgical site infection

84
Q

what does CLABSI stand for?

A

catheter line associated blood stream infection

85
Q

what does VAP stand for?

A

ventilator assisted pneumonias

86
Q

What does MRDOS stand for?

A

multidrug-resistant organisms

87
Q

What is Active Immunity?

A

diseases causes immune system to produce antibodies; long-lasting

88
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

individual is given antibodies vs producing on their own; short lived; protection is immediate

89
Q

what is herd immunity?

A

large percentage of population is protected against a certain disease

90
Q

If there is redness at the injection site of vaccine, what should you do?

A

cool compress for 24 hours, then warm or cold prn

91
Q

Why would you have an anaphylactic reaction?

A

previous vaccine, components in vaccine

92
Q

if an anaphylactic reaction occurred, what would you do?

A

secure and maintain airway, circulation, and prevent further exposure

93
Q

What does VAERS stand for?

A

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System

PT Elements (43 decks)

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