Nursing Exam 2 Flashcards by Avery H Eachus

what is the cerebrum responsible for?

a person’s mental status

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what is the cerebral cortex responsible for?

perception and behavior

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what is the frontal lobe responsible for?

SHORT term memory, expression of emotion, decision-making and problem-solving

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what is parietal lobe responsible for?

sensory data

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what is the temporal lobe responsible for?

Sounds and LONG term memory

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What is the limbic system responsible for?

survival behaviors and emotions

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what is the reticular activating system or RAS responsible for?

Awareness and arousal

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What are some examples of Present Illness?

Change of behavior, anxiety, depression

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What are some examples of past medical history?

neurological disorders, psychiatric disorders, medication use

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What is there to know about the MMSE or Mini-Mental State Examination?

you can score up to 31 and if you score 21 or less it warrants further evaluation

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What does GCS stand for?

Glascow Coma Scale

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What categories are under level of consciousness?

Alert and Oriented

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What four things should a person to know to be considered oriented?

person, place, time, situation

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What should you take into account when looking at a patient’s behavior and appearance?

mood, hygiene, body language

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What should you be looking for when you look at a patient’s language?

Normal, expected; Aphasia

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What is Sensory Aphasia?

Receptive

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What is Motor Aphasia?

Expressive

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What should you take into account when looking at a patient’s recent memory?

Short term, naming unrelated object, recalling 3 words or series of numbers

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What should you be looking for when checking a patient’s remote memory?

long term, recalling mother’s maiden name, an event in history, birthday

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What are some characteristics of delirium?

acute, sudden-short development, medical condition link, impairs consciousness, potentially reversible

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What are some characteristics of dementia?

Chronic, insidious-progressive, structural brain disease, impairs judgement, memory, through patterns

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What are the 12 Cranial Nerves?

Olfactory, Optic, Oculomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, Abducens, Facial, Auditory, Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, Spinal Accessory, Hypoglossal

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What is the function of the olfactory nerve?

smell

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what is the function of the optic, oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens?

eye movement and visual acuity

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what is the function of the facial and glossopharyngeal cranial nerves?

taste

What is the function of the auditory cranial nerve?

hearing

What is the function of the vagus nerve?

parasympathetic innervation

what is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?

movement of the tongue

what five things do you test for sensory function?

1. Pain 2. Temperature 3. Position 4. Vibration 5. Touch

What five things do you test for cerebellar function?

Coordination, Balance, Stereognosis, Graphesthesia, Proprioception

For Deep Tendon Reflexes, what does the grading look like?

0 - no response 1- sluggish 2 - active- NORMAL 3 - more brisk and hyperactive 4 - brisk and clonus

What does PERRLA mean?

pupils are equal, round, reactive to light and accomodation

what should pupils look like when examining?

they should be equal in size; 3-7 mm in diameter

What does BEFAST stand for?

Balance, Eyes, Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time is brain!

varied inability to speak, interpret or understand language

aphasia

difficult or unclear articulation of speech

dysarthria

blindness of a visual field

hemianopia

without coordination; the loss of full control of body movements

ataxia

a clinical stroke assessment tool to evaluate and document neurological status in stroke patients

NIHSS

Inflammatory Response 4 Steps:

1. Recognition 2. Activation 3. Release 4. Recruitment

what is a localized inflammatory response?

only affects that area of the body

what is a systemic inflammatory response?

affects the entire body

interval from the time the pathogen enters the body until the appearance of signs and symptoms

incubation period

interval from onset of nonspecific s&s to more specific s&s; individual can spread disease before having s&s

prodromal stage

when a patient manifests symptoms of infection - when infection is considered severe

acute illness stage

signs and symptoms begin to disappear due to reduced number of infectious agentes

period of decline

return to state of health

period of convalescence

What are different types of testing for infection?

urinary; blood; throat swab; x-ray or MRI; ultrasound; wound swab; spinal tap

What is the chain of infection?

Pathogen, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Entry, Susceptible Host

What are ways to eliminate pathogens

- disinfecting - sterilizing - cleaning - antimicrobial treatment

what are ways to eliminate reservoir spreading?

Hand hygeine, CHG bath prior to surgery, clean environment using proper chemicals and following protocols

What are some ways to eliminate portal of exit spreading?

- containing body fluids by using drains or dressings - sterile technique - masks - such as transporting infectious patient

what are some ways to eliminate modes of transmission?

- hand hygiene - barrier devices depending on the infectious agent - reduction of environmental factors to reduce vectors

what are some ways to eliminate portal of entry spreading?

- hand hygiene - barrier devices depending on the infectious agent - wounds covered - proper coverage of IV/device

what are some ways to eliminate susceptible host?

immunizations, proper nutrition, supplements, hygiene, controlling blood sugar, exercise, stress reduction, intact skin

What type of disease spreader is Scabies?

contact

Staph aureus

contact

hepatitis

contact

C. diff

contact

MRSA

contact

VRE

contact

ESBLs

contact

Herpes zoster/Shingles

contact

COVID

contact/droplet/airborne

infleunza

droplet

pertussis(whooping cough)

droplet

adenovirus

droplet

norovirus

droplet

rhinovirus(common cold)

droplet

mumps

droplet

rubella

droplet

mycoplasma pneumoniae

droplet

SARS-CoV1

droplet

Tuberculosis

airborne

smallpox

airborne

chickenpox

airborne

rubeola

airborne

disseminated herpes zoster

airborne

what does HAI stand for?

hospital associated infection

What are characteristics of an HAI?

- often preventable - increases length of stay - increases expense - increases potential for death

What are some common HAIs?

CAUTI, SSI, CLABSI, VAP

What does CAUTI stand for?

Catheter-associated urinary tract infection

What does SSI stand for?

surgical site infection

what does CLABSI stand for?

catheter line associated blood stream infection

what does VAP stand for?

ventilator assisted pneumonias

What does MRDOS stand for?

multidrug-resistant organisms

What is Active Immunity?

diseases causes immune system to produce antibodies; long-lasting

What is passive immunity?

individual is given antibodies vs producing on their own; short lived; protection is immediate

what is herd immunity?

large percentage of population is protected against a certain disease

If there is redness at the injection site of vaccine, what should you do?

cool compress for 24 hours, then warm or cold prn

Why would you have an anaphylactic reaction?

previous vaccine, components in vaccine

if an anaphylactic reaction occurred, what would you do?

secure and maintain airway, circulation, and prevent further exposure

What does VAERS stand for?

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System