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PT Elements > Exam 3 - Microbiology > Flashcards

Exam 3 - Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

complete virus particle

A

virion

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2
Q

what are some properties of viruses?

A

must have a host, can affect all cell types, and need to use an electron microscope to visualize it

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3
Q

The basic structure of viruses?

A

Nucleic acid and protein capsid

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4
Q

all virions contain a ___________

A

nucleocapsid

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5
Q

virions that have envelopes are called

A

enveloped viruses

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6
Q

virions lacking envelopes are called

A

naked viruses

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7
Q

what are capsids?

A

large macromolecular structures which serve as protein coat or virus

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8
Q

what do capsids do?

A

protect viral genetic material and aid in its transfer between host cells

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9
Q

what are capsids made up of?

A

protein subunits called protomers

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10
Q

what are the types of capsids?

A

helical, icosahedral, and complex

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11
Q

what is unique about the capsid of a bacteriophage?

A

it would be binal, and fall under complex because it has both icosahedral and helical

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12
Q

protein capsid and nucleic acid come together to make a

A

nucleocapsid

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13
Q

what do helical capsids look like?

A

shaped like hollow tubes with protein walls

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14
Q

what do icosahedral capsids look like?

A

a regular polyhedron with 20 equilateral faces and 12 vertices

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15
Q

what are examples of capsids with complex symmetry?

A

poxviruses and large bacteriophages

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16
Q

what is the envelope of a virus

A

outer, flexible, membranous layer of the virus

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17
Q

where do animal virus envelopes arise from?

A

host cell plasma or nuclear membranes

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18
Q

what are viral envelope proteins?

A

viral encoded and may project from the envelope surface as spikes or peplomers

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19
Q

what are viral envelope proteins used?

A

involved in viral attachment to host cell, used for identification of virus, may have enzymatic or other activity, may play a role in nucleic acid replication

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20
Q

what are the viral multiplication steps?

A
  1. attachment to host cell
  2. entry
  3. uncoating of genome
  4. synthesis
  5. assembly
  6. release
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21
Q

the turning of all or part of an organism in a particular direction in response to an external stimulus

A

tropism

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22
Q

receptor determines host preference, may be specific tissue

A

tropism

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23
Q

one reproductive choice

A

virulent phage

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24
Q

what does virulent phages do?

A

multiply immediately upon entry, lyse bacterial host cells

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25
Q

two reproductive options

A

temperate phages

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26
Q

what do temperate phages do?

A

reproduce lytically as virulent phages do, remain within host cell without destroying it

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27
Q

temperate phage changes phenotype of its host

A

lysogenic conversion

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28
Q

advantage to lysogeny for virus

A

phage remains viable but may not replicate

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29
Q

what are the three types of infection in eukaryotic cells?

A

cytocidal, persistent, cytopathic

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30
Q

what does cytocidal infection result in

A

cell death through lysis

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31
Q

persistent infections may last

A

years

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32
Q

cytopathic infections

A

degenerative changes, abnormalities

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33
Q

growth or lump of tissue

A

tumor

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34
Q

abnormal new cell growth and reproduction due to loss of regulation

A

neoplasia

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35
Q

reversion to a more primitive or less differentiated state

A

anaplasia

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36
Q

spread of cancerous cells throughout the body

A

metastasis

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37
Q

complex, multistep process that often involves oncogenes

A

carcinogenesis

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38
Q

cancer-causing genes, may come form the virus, may be transformed host proto-oncogenes which are involved in normal regulation of cell growth and differentiation

A

oncogenes

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39
Q

possible mechanisms by which viruses cause cancer

A

altered cell regulation, carry oncogene into cell and insert it into host genome, insertion of promoter or enhancer next to cellular proto-oncogene

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40
Q

virus belonging to papillomavirus family, nonenveloped icosehedral capsids, over 120 known viruses

A

HPV

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41
Q

what is the most common sexually transmitted disease?

A

HPV

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42
Q

HPV can infect by

A

infecting keratinocytes of skin or mucous membrane, warts, cancers

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43
Q

types of warts for HPV

A

plantar warts, verrucae vulgaris, anogenital codylomata

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44
Q

types of cancers with HPV

A

types 16, 18, 31, and 45; cervical (most common associated with HPV); degrade p53

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45
Q

Non-sexual transmission of HPV

A

direct contact, autoinoculation, prenatal

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46
Q

prevention of HPV

A

abstinence, condoms, vaccine

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47
Q

how many deaths is HIV responsible for

A

30 million

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48
Q

when was HIV first recognized by the CDC

A

1981

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49
Q

caused by human immunodeficiency virus; RNA virus family Retroviridae

A

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

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50
Q

how can you get HIV?

A

when infected blood, semen, or vaginal secretions come in contact with uninfected person’s broken skin or mucous membranes; mother to child; contaminated sharps/needles

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51
Q

what can’t you get HIV from?

A

urine, coughing, sharing utensils, tears, saliva, sweat, casual contact (hugs, kissing)

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52
Q

HIV Life Cycle

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Entry
  3. RNA –> DNA
  4. Integration into human genome as provirus
53
Q

what happens in the attachment stage of HIV?

A

attaches to CD4 cells (T helper cells and other cells)

54
Q

what happens in the RNA –> DNA stage of HIV?

A

reverse transcriptase

55
Q

all HIV-infected individuals who have fewer than 200 CD4+ T cells/microliter of blood or a CD4+ cell percentage of lymphocytes of less than 14

A

AIDS

56
Q

how to diagnose HIV?

A

viral isolation and culture; detect reverse transcriptase activity or viral antigens; detect anti-HIV antibodies in the blood; PCR - genome analysis

57
Q

treatment for HIV?

A

no cure for AIDS; most successful treatment involves a combination of drugs

58
Q

is there an available vaccine for HIV currently

A

no, but ongoing research

59
Q

destruction or removal of all viable organisms

A

sterilization

60
Q

killing, inhibition, or removal of disease causing (pathogenic) organisms

A

disinfection

61
Q

agents, usually chemical, used for disinfection; usually used on inanimate objects

A

disinfectants

62
Q

reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe (based on public health standards)

A

sanitization

63
Q

prevent of infection of living tissue by microorganisms

A

antisepsis

64
Q

chemical agents that kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms when applied to tissue

A

antiseptics

65
Q

use of chemicals to kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms within host tissue

A

chemotherapy

66
Q

agents that kill microorganisms or inhibit their growth

A

antimicrobial agents

67
Q

cidal agents ____

A

kill

68
Q

static agents ______ ________

A

inhibit growth

69
Q

conditions influencing the effectiveness of antimicrobial agent activity

A

population size, population composition, concentration or intensity of an antimicrobial agent, duration of exposure, temperature, local environment

70
Q

how does population size effect antimicrobial agent activity

A

larger populations take longer to kill than smaller populations

71
Q

how does population composition affect antimicrobial agent activity

A

microorganism differ markedly in their sensitivity to antimicrobial agents

72
Q

physical control methods of microbial growth

A

heat, filtration, radiation

73
Q

how does moist heat work?

A

destroys viruses, fungi, and bacteria; boiling will not destroy spores and does not sterilize; degrades nucleic acids, denatures proteins, and disrupts membranes

74
Q

how does steam sterilization work?

A

must be carried out above 100 degrees using an autoclave; effective against all types of microorganisms including spores; quality control

75
Q

how does pasteurization work?

A

controlled heating at temperatures well below boiling; used for milk, beer, and other beverages; process does not sterilize but does kill pathogenes present and slow spoilage by reducing the total load of organisms present

76
Q

how does dry heat sterilization work?

A

less effective than moist heat sterilization, requiring higher temperatures and longer exposure times; oxidizes cell constituents and denatures proteins

77
Q

what does dry heat incineration do

A

bench top incinerators are used to sterilize inoculating loops used in microbiology laboratories

78
Q

how does filtration work

A

reduces microbial population or sterilizes solutions of heat-sensitive materials by removing microorganisms

79
Q

ultraviolet radiation

A

wavelength of 260 is the most bactericidal; causes thymine dimers preventing replication and transcription

80
Q

gamma radiation penetrates deep into objects; destroys bacterial endospores

A

ionizing radiation

81
Q

what are the chemical control agents

A

disinfection, antisepsis, sterilization

82
Q

when would you use moist sterilization

A

boil advisory

83
Q

when would you use steam sterilization

A

liquids, solids, things that aren’t heat sensitive

84
Q

when would you use dry sterilization?

A

glassware

85
Q

when would you use filtration sterilizaiton?

A

antibiotics, vitamins, hormones

86
Q

when would you use gamma radiation sterilization

A

food, plastic pipette, heat sensitive, sutures, plastic tubing

87
Q

commonly used as laboratory and hospital disinfectants; act by denaturing proteins and disrupting cell membranes

A

phenolics

88
Q

among the most widely used disinfectants and antispetics; bactericidal, fungicidal, but not sporicidal; denatures proteins and possibly dissolve membrane lipids

A

alcohols

89
Q

any of five elements: fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine; important antimicrobial agents

A

halogens

90
Q

skin antispetic; oxidizes cell constituents and iodinates proteins; at high concentrations may kill spores

A

iodine

91
Q

oxidizes cell constituents; important in disinfection of water; destroys vegetative bacteria and fungi

A

chlorine

92
Q

detergents that have antimicrobial activity and are effective disinfectants

A

quaternary ammonium compounds

93
Q

aldehydes are what

A

sporocidal drugs

94
Q

what would you use to sterilize glass?

A

ethylene oxide and betapropiolactone

95
Q

who discovered antibiotics?

A

Alexander Fleming

96
Q

more than half of our antibiotics are produced by species of

A

streptomyces

97
Q

narrow spectrum of microbial activity

A

affects gram-positive bacteria but few gram-negative

98
Q

broad spectrum antibiotic

A

affects a broad range of gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria

99
Q

lipopolysaccharide layer of gram-negative

A

porin channels

100
Q

action of antimicrobial drugs

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis, synthesis of essential metabolites, and injures plasma membrane

101
Q

common core structure of penicillin

A

B-lactam ring and side chain

102
Q

inhibitors of the cell wall

A

penicillin, carbapenam, polypeptide(bacitracin and vancomycin)

103
Q

what inhibits protein synthesis?

A

tetra, erthro, chloram, strepto

104
Q

what inhibits the plasma membrane

A

polymyxin B

105
Q

what inhibits DNA

A

Cipro

106
Q

What inhibits RNA

A

rifampicin

107
Q

what inhibits competitive inhibitors:

A

sulfa drugs

108
Q

extracted from the culture of penicillium

A

natural penicillin

109
Q

narrow spectrum of activity, drug of choice against staphlyococci, streptococci, and several species of spirochetes; acidity of stomach diminishes its concentration

A

Penicillin G

110
Q

stable in the stomach

A

Penicillin V

111
Q

created to overcome disadvantages of natural penicillins

A

semisynthetic penicillins

112
Q

effective against many gram-negative and gram-positive; ampicillin and amoxicillin

A

extended-spectrum penicillin

113
Q

interfere with DNA replication and RNA synthesis

A

nucleic acid synthesis

114
Q

folic acid is necessary for synthesis of what

A

protein, DNA, and RNA

115
Q

agents affect fungal sterols

A

antifungal drugs

116
Q

what percentage of infectious illnesses are caused by viruses

A

60%

117
Q

what percentage of infectious illnesses are caused by bacteria

A

15%

118
Q

what are the target steps in viral infection

A
  1. entry and fusion inhibitors
  2. uncoating, genome integration, and nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors
  3. interference with assembly and release protease inhibitors
  4. exit inhibitors
119
Q

test to guide chemotherapy

A

diffusion method

120
Q

what is the disk-diffusion method

A

disk impregnated with known concentration of agent place don agar with organism

121
Q

what cells are resistant to antimicrobial drugs

A

persister cells

122
Q

bacteria resistant to a large number of antibiotics

A

superbugs

123
Q

mechanisms of resistance

A

enzymatic destruction or inactivation of the drug, prevention of penetration to the target site within the microbe, alteration of the drug’s target site, rapid efflux of the antibiotic

124
Q

enzymatic destruction or inactivation of the drgu

A

mainly affects antibiotics that are natural products

125
Q

prevention of penetration

A

porin opening so molecules can’t pass into periplasmic space; gram-negative bacteria are usually more resistant

126
Q

alteration of drug’s target site

A

modification of the target site which neutralizes the effects of antibiotics without significantly affecting cellular function

127
Q

rapid efflux of antibiotics

A

proteins in the plasma membrane of gram-negative bacteria, pumps expel antibiotics, pump normally there to eliminate toxic substances

128
Q
A

PT Elements (43 decks)

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