Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PT Elements > AP Exam 2 > Flashcards

AP Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

the homeostatic control of body temperature through sweat (epidermis) and adjusting blood flow(dermis)

A

thermoregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

light touch, pressure, vibration, tickle, heat, cold, and pain sensed on the skin

A

cutaneous sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

passage of material from the external environment into body cells (minor role of skin)

A

absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

UV radiation which is then broken down by enzymes in the liver and kidneys to form active Vitamin D

A

Synthesis of Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

superficial layer of the skin; composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with 4-5 strata

A

Epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

deep layer of skin composed of loose areolar CT and dense irregular CT

A

Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a membrane that separates the dermis and the epidermis

A

Basement Membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ridges that provide better grip and are called “fingerprints”; reflect underlying dermal ridges

A

Epidermal Ridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the four types of cells in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes, Langerhans cells, Melanocytes, and Merkel Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most abundant cell in the epidermis (90%) which produce keratin and lamellar

A

Keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a tough, fibrous protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bodies which secrete water-repellant sealant

A

Lamellar Granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

stem-cell precursors of keratinocytes; arising from the stratum basale, these differentiate into keratinocytes as they become more superficial

A

Basal Keratinocytes/Basal Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the differentiation process that replaces the contents of keratinocytes with the protein keratin (2-4 weeks)

A

Keratinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the sloughing off of superficial keratinized cells as new cells are synthesized in the stratum basale

A

Desquamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a common skin cancer, arising from basal keratinocytes

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

dendrite cells of the epidermis; most prominent cells in the stratum spinosum; function as macrophages

A

Langerhans Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pigment-producing cells in the stratum basale

A

Melanocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cancers arising from melanocytes

A

Melanomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

specialized sensory-receptor cells found in the stratum basale that have an associated nerve

A

Merkel Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the four layers of the epidermal strata called?

A

Thin Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 5 layers of the epidermal strata, which only appear on the palms, soles, and digits, called? Hint: it’s hairless

A

Thick Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

thinnest epidermis (0.05 mm)

A

Eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Thickest Epidermis

A

Palms and soles (1.5 mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the order of all the stratum?

A

Corneum, lucidium, granulosum, spinosum, basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

deepest layer of the epidermis which is attached to the basement membrane and is composed of basal cells. Contains melanocytes and merkle cells

A

stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

thickest layer of the epidermis with “spiny” keratinocytes. Also includes Langerhans cells

A

Stratum Spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the layer of the epidermis where keratinocytes flatten and lose their organelles (apoptosis). this layer also synthesizes lipids to aid in waterproofing the skin and also stains the darkest

A

Stratum Granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A layer of epidermis only found in thick skin; “clear/translucent”

A

Stratum Lucidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most superficial layer of the epidermis consisting of 10-30 layers of “dead, keratin-filled sacs” which will “slough off”

A

Stratum Corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

increased keratinization

A

cornification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the “sloughing off” of the stratum corneum

A

desquamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the presence of too much keratin which then flakes off

A

dandruff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

active form of vitamin D which the epidermis produces from inactive vitamin D, obtained from UV radiation

A

calcitrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

vitamin that promotes bone health and immunity against bacterial, viral, and fungal infections

A

vitamin d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the superficial layer of the dermis, consisting of loose areolar CT and dermal papillae

A

papillary layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

nipple-like structures of the dermis that extend into the epidermis and create epidermal ridges on the hands/feet

A

dermal paillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

finger-like extensions of the dermis into the epidermis

A

interdigitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

deep layer of the dermis, composed of dense irregular CT which appears like a “reticular meshwork” and supports hair follicles, oil, and sweat glands

A

reticular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

where the hair originates from; epidermal penetrations into the dermis and is present in most thin skin. includes oil glands and erector pili muscles. functions: protection, reduced heat loss, and sensing light touch

A

hair follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

oil glands; typically associated with hair follicles and produce sebum; don’t usually appear in thick skin

A

sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

sweat glands. functions: regulate body temperature and elimination of wates

A

sudoriferous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the hypodermis which is composed of adipose tissue to store fat as well as allow passage of blood vessels and nerve endings; not part of the skin

A

subcutaneous layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

glands which secrete cerumen (earwax) and are located in the external auditory meatus

A

ceruminous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

head, dead, keratinized epidermal cells which provides protection for the digits

A

nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

layer of dead skin which “rides out” on the nail to form a protective seal

A

cuticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

an infection around the nail

A

paronychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

the white, crescent shape at the proximal end of the nail

A

lunula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

results of the edema separating the epidermis from the dermis

A

blisters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Tissues in Bones (6)

A

bone tissue, cartilage, dense CT, epithelium, fat tissue, nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are six functions of bones?

A
  1. structural framework
  2. movement
  3. hemopoiesis
  4. protection
  5. mineral homeostasis
  6. fat storage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

minerals stored in bones

A

calcium and phosphorus for mineral homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

the formation of blood cells which occurs in red bone marrow

A

hemopoiesis (hematopoiesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

the shaft of long bones and is made mainly of compact bone and stores yellow bone marrow in the medullary cavity

A

diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

the end of the bone that articulates with adjacent bones and are covered with hyaline cartilage (articular cartilage)

A

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

the zone of growth on a long bone, located between the diaphysis and epiphysis and also includes the epiphyseal plate. it also serves to transfer the load of weight-bearing joint surfaces to the diaphysis

A

metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

area of hyaline cartilage for bone growth located in the metaphysis, along the epiphyseal border

A

epiphyseal plate or growth plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

closed growth plate

A

epiphyseal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

the cavity in the diaphysis which contains yellow bone marrow (triglycerides) and is lined by endosteum

A

medullary canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

a thin, vascular layer of tissue that lines the inner surfaces of bones and has osteogenic capabilities (similar to periosteum). During appositional growth, assists in bone resorption on inner surfaces

A

endosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

most superficial layer of bone; contains osteogenic cells which can differentiate into osteoblasts to assist in bone repair and growth. contains nerves to sense damage and pain

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

bone tissue consisting of widely separated cells surrounded by a large amount of matrix and has 4 main cell types

A

osseous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the four main cell types of the osseous tissue?

A

osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

cells that undergo cell division and develop into osteoblasts; most primative/stem cells

A

osteogenic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

bone-building cells which promote bone deposition

A

osteoblasts

66
Q

mature bone cells that maintain bone tissue

A

osteocytes

67
Q

bone cells derived from monocytes which break down bone tissue (resoprtion)

A

osteoclasts

68
Q

a type of white blood cell

69
Q

a structural support surrounding the bone cells, composed of inorganic salts (hardness) and collagen fibers (strength)

70
Q

the deposition of calcium carbonate salts into a framework of collagen fibers; can only occur with the presence of collagen fibers

A

calcification (mineralization)

71
Q

uncalcified bone matrix

72
Q

dense, hard bone arranged in osteons and found on the outer aspect of bones

A

compact bone/cortical bone

73
Q

the central canal of osteons that contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels and are surrounded by concentric lamellae

A

haversian canal

74
Q

vascular channels in compact bone allowing for the passage for blood vessels, lymphatics vessels, nerves of the medullary cavity, periosteum, and connection of central canals

A

Volkmann Canals

75
Q

rings of hard, calcified ECM

A

Concentric Lamellae

76
Q

little, pit-like space which house osteocytes

77
Q

a small channel that radiates from a lacuna and are filled with ECF and provide routes for nutrients and oxygen to reach the osteocytes

A

canaliculus

78
Q

forms the interior structure of short, flat, and irregular bones and epiphysis of long bones and contains trabeculae and is filled with red bone marrow for hemopoiesis

A

spongy bone/trabecular bone

79
Q

irregular latticework of thin columns of bone surrounding many spaces filled with red bone marrow

A

trabeculae

80
Q

maintaining proper levels of calcium in the body, particularly in the blood stream. Important for muscle contractions, nerve impulses, and enzyme activity

A

calcium homeostasis

81
Q

chemical messengers released into the blood stream that travel to a different location of the body for a physiological affect

82
Q

hormones for Ca2+ homeostasis

A

PTH, calcitrol, calcitonin

83
Q

the hormone secreted by the parathyroid gland which increases blood Ca2+ through bone resorption decreased Ca2+ in urine, and indirect increase of Ca2+ absorption from the gut through activation of calcitriol

84
Q

active form of vitamin D which increases blood Ca2+ through increasing Ca2+ absorption from the gut and decreasing Ca2+ in the urine

85
Q

hormone secreted by the thyroid gland which decreases Ca2+ levels by inhibiting osteoclastic acitivty

A

Calcitonin

86
Q

most prominent artery to the bone

A

nutrient artery

87
Q

hole in the bone through which the nutrient artery passes through

A

nutrient foramen

88
Q

central canals of the osteons through which nutrients for the osteocytes travel

A

nutrient canal

89
Q

bone formation through initial formation, bone growth, remodeling and repair

A

ossification

90
Q

embryonic type of CT from which all types of CT arise

A

mesenchyme

91
Q

formation of bones directly from mesenchyme and only for formation of flat bones

A

intramembrous ossificaiton

92
Q

what are the four steps of the intramebranous ossification

A
  1. development of ossification centers
  2. calcification of bone matrix
  3. formation of trabeculae
  4. development of the periosteum and compact bone
93
Q

The first step of intramebranous ossificication where mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteogenic cells, then into osteoblasts which lay down uncalcified bone matrix (osteoid)

A

development of ossification centers

94
Q

bone formation including a cartilage model; bone formation for ALL bones but flat bones

A

endochondrial ossification

95
Q

what are the six steps of endochondrial ossification

A
  1. development and growth of hyaline cartilage model
  2. development of bone collar
  3. development of a primary ossification center
  4. development of medullary canal
  5. development of secondary ossification centers
  6. formation of articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate
96
Q

a layer of compact bone, formed by the osteoblasts, which runs the length of the diaphysis under the periosteum which blocks nutrients from entering the cartilage, allowing it to die

A

bone collar

97
Q

growth of bones that occurs at the epiphyseal growth plate; cartilage, formed by chondroblasts, is degraded and replaced by osseous tissue; plate closes between 18-25 yrs. of age

A

longitudinal bone growth

98
Q

bone growth in diameter, accomplished through bone resorption in the medullary cavity; necessary for bone remodeling

A

appositional bone growth

99
Q

the ongoing replacement of old bone tissue with new bone tissue; old bone is destroyed by osteoclasts and new bone is constructed by osteoblasts; for normal growth and repairing injuries

A

bone remodeling

100
Q

loss of bone minerals which can be prevented through weight-bearing activities

A

demineralization

101
Q

what are the elements necessary for bone remodeling?

A
  1. weight-bearing activities
  2. vitamins (A, C, and D)
  3. minerals (calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium)
  4. hormones (hGH and sex hormones)
102
Q

a break in a bone

103
Q

a series of microscopic breaks in a bone, often without evidence of injury

A

stress fracture

104
Q

a fracture caused by diseased or weakened bones

A

pathologic fracture

105
Q

fracture where skin is intact

A

simple fracture

106
Q

fracture where skin is broken

A

compound fracture

107
Q

occurs straight across the bone

A

transverse fracture

108
Q

a fracture that runs down the bone

A

linear fracture

109
Q

occurs at an angle across the bone

A

oblique fracture

110
Q

a fracture in which the bone has been twisted apart; often a sign of abuse

A

spiral fracture

111
Q

a break in which the broken bones retain their alignment

A

non-displaced fracture

112
Q

a break where bone ends are out of normal alignment

A

displaced fracture

113
Q

where a young bone bends and only partially breaks

A

greenstick fracture

114
Q

bone breaks into many fragments

A

comminuted fracture

115
Q

a fragment of bone tears away from the main bone

A

avulsion fracture

116
Q

one bone fragment is firmly driven into another

A

impacted fracture

117
Q

what are the treatments for a bone fracture? (3)

A
  1. anatomic realignment (if necessary)
  2. immobilization
  3. restoration of function
118
Q

an infection of the bone, resulting from a compound fracture

A

osteomyelitis

119
Q

what are the four body repairs for fractures?

A
  1. phagocytes (clean up dead bone tissue)
  2. chondroblasts (form fibrocartilage at broken ends)
  3. osteoblasts (replace fibrocartilage with spongy bone)
  4. bone modeling
120
Q

a condition resulting from demineralization of bone and bone resorption outpaces bone formation

A

osteoporosis

121
Q

softening and weakening of bones in children due to vitamin D deficiency; leads to bow leggedness

122
Q

“brittle bone disease” caused by a genetic mutation affecting collagen formation. Blue sclera is a common indication

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

123
Q

shortening of a muscle to produce force

A

contraction

124
Q

the lengthening of a muscle to return to a non-contracted state

A

relaxation

125
Q

voluntary muscle which attaches to bones and cartilage, providing movement

A

skeletal muscle

126
Q

often called “muscle fibers”

A

muscle cells

127
Q

the cell membrane of muscle fibers which contains transverse tubules and can carry APs

A

sarcolemma

128
Q

oxygen-binding protein that stores oxygen and speedily delivers it to the mitochondria to aid in ATP production; located in the muscle cell rather than the blood

129
Q

located on the periphery of the skeletal muscle cell; multinucleated

130
Q

proteins that generate force; myosin and actin

A

contractile proteins

131
Q

protein in thick myofilaments

132
Q

main component of thin filaments that myosin-binding sites

133
Q

function as “on/off” switches of contractions; tropomyosin, troponin

A

regulatory proteins

134
Q

two other protein components of thin myofilaments besides actin

A

troponin and tropomyosin

135
Q

proteins that keep thick and thin filaments in proper alignment; titin

A

structural proteins

136
Q

giant protein and main structural anchor/spring; connects the Z disc to the M line to limit ROM to the sarcomere; third most abundant protein in the muscle

A

Titin (connectin)

137
Q

lightly organized thick and thin filaments within a skeletal muscle cell

A

myofilaments

138
Q

basic contractile unit of a muscle that extends from Z disc to Z disc; shortens during a muscle contraction which shortens the entire muscle; striated

139
Q

arrangement of many sarcomeres connected end-to-end along the entire muscle cell; tube-like structure that’s wrapped in sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

myofibrils

140
Q

network of saccules and tubes that house calcium which is released to cause muscle contractions and reabsorbed during relaxation; covers myofibrils

A

sacroplasmic reticulum

141
Q

type of skeletal muscle fiber which contracts slowly but is fatigue resistant; uses aerobic respiration, thus has increased mitochondria and myoglobin

A

slow oxidative (SO)

142
Q

type of skeletal muscle fiber which can contract quickly but fatigues more easily than SO; uses aerobic respiration but can switch to anaerobic (glycolysis); “intermediate fibers”

A

Fast Oxidative-Glycolidic (FOG)

143
Q

type of skeletal muscle fiber that can contract powerfully and rapidly but also fatigues quickly; uses anaerobic glycolysis; few myoglobin (thus, pale in color)

A

Fast Glycolytic (FG)

144
Q

sheet of CT (rather than a cord) which surrounds the epimysium among other things

145
Q

a bundle of muscle fibers

146
Q

highly deadly poison produced by clostridium botulinum prevents the release of ACh leading to botulism (muscle weakness)

A

Botulinum Toxin

147
Q

bacteria taht causes botulism

A

clostridium botulinum

148
Q

an abnormal decrease in muscle tone normally due to brain, spinal cord, or nervous system damage; “floppy baby syndrome” in infants

149
Q

decreased reflexes

A

hyporeflexia

150
Q

a state of limpness in which muscle tone is lost

151
Q

excessive muscle tone often accompanies by hyperreflexia; often result of damge to upper motor neurons (stroke, brain tumor, Parkinson’s); muscle rigidly or spasticity

A

hypertonia

152
Q

overly strong reflex

A

hyperreflexia

153
Q

a phasic change in muscle tone where a limb will “snap” back from passive stretching

A

spasticity

154
Q

a decrease in the size of an organ or body part due to the decrease size of the cells; “wasting away” often due to underuse

155
Q

what are the three factors that determine tension?

A
  1. # of fibers in a motor unit
  2. type of fibers in a motor unit
  3. stretch of the fibers before contraction
156
Q

what are the three factors that determine tension?

A
  1. # of fibers in a motor unit
  2. type of fibers in a motor unit
  3. stretch of the fibers before contraction
157
Q

what are the three types of fibers?

A
  1. type 1 (SO)
  2. type 11a (FOG)
  3. type 11b (FG)
158
Q

fibers that are smallest in diameter and least powerful

A

Type 1 (SO)

159
Q

fibers that are intermediate in diameter and have strength

A

Type 11a (FOG)

160
Q

Fibers that are greatest in diameter and have strength

A

Type 11a (FG)

161
Q

sthe immediate and direct source of energy for muscle contractions, but is in limited amounts

A

Cytosolic ATP

162
Q

catabolizing the small amounts of creatine phosphate in the skeleatl muscle cells generates ATP for inital conttractions

A

Creatine phosphate

PT Elements (43 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions