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D2 Summer > Microbio Week 5 & 6 - Online Lectures (Exam 2) > Flashcards

Microbio Week 5 & 6 - Online Lectures (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main difference between the immune response triggered by extracellular bacteria versus intracellular bacteria?

A

T cell-mediated immunity is absolutely required for clearance of intracellular bacteria not extracellular bacteria.

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2
Q

Althouth viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens, the immune response elicited is different compared to intracellular bacteria. Chose the correct statement characterizing the immune response against virus.

Viruses elicit a poor antibody response.
Viruses do not involve CTL-mediated killing of infected cells.
Viruses induce a strong production of IFNα that induces an antiviral state.
Viruses induce a strong production of IFNγ that induces an antiviral state.
Viruses induce eosinophil degranulation.

A

Viruses induce a strong production of IFNα that induces an antiviral state.

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3
Q

What cells of immune response and outcome are associated with…

Intracellular bacteria

A

Th1-activation of macrophages

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4
Q

What cells of immune response and outcome are associated with…

Virus

A

IFNα−inhibition of viral replication

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5
Q

What cells of immune response and outcome are associated with…

Helminths

A

Th2-eosinophil degranulation

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6
Q

What cells of immune response and outcome are associated with…

Extracellular fungus

A

Th17-neutrophil recruitment

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7
Q

Which of the following mechanisms describes how autoantibodies can kill self cells in a Type II Hypersensitivity response that results in autoimmune disease?

Autoantibody-mediated opsonization and phagocytosis of self cells.
Destruction of self cells mediated by inflammatory cytokines.
Destruction of self cells via T cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
Autoantibody-mediated immune complex deposition that directly kills self-cells.
Autoantibody-mediated signaling through cell surface receptors induction of abnormal physiologic responses.

A

Autoantibody-mediated opsonization and phagocytosis of self cells.

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8
Q

What is one of the characteristics of autoimmunity?

Genes are not involved in autoimmunity development.
Male are at greater risk for developing autoimmune diseases.
Immune cells mount an immune response against self-antigens.
Infectious agents play no role in the initiation of autoimmune diseases.

A

Immune cells mount an immune response against self-antigens.

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9
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies?

A

Primary = genetic defects
Secondary = non-genetic

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10
Q

Which disease corresponds with defective production of reactive oxygen intermediates by phagocytes?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

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11
Q

Which disease corresponds with absent or deficient expression of B2 integrins causing defective leukocyte adhesion-dependent functions?

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency - 1

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12
Q

Which disease has absent or deficient expression of leukocyte ligands for endothelial E or P selectins?

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency - 2

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13
Q

Which disease has defective lysosomal function in neutrophils, macrophages, and dendritic cells?

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

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14
Q

MOA of leukocyte adhesion deficiency - 1

A

Mutation in gene encoding B chain of B2 integrins -> can’t bind to endothelium

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15
Q

MOA of leukocyte adhesion deficiency - 2

A

Mutation in gene encoding a protein required for synthesis of sialyl-Lewis X component of E and P selectins

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16
Q

Severed combined immunodeficiency (SCID) affects both ________ and ___________________ immunity

A

humoral; cell-mediated

(both forms of adaptive immunity)

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17
Q

SCID can occur due to defects in… (4)

A

Cytokine signaling
Nucleotide salvage pathways
VDJ recombination
Thymic development

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18
Q

Which SCID has decreased T cells but normal or increased B cells?

A

X-linked SCID

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19
Q

MOA of X-linked SCID

A

Y cytokine receptor mutation

Defective T cell maturation due to lack of IL-17 signals

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20
Q

Which SCID has a progressive decrease in T and B cells?

A

Autosomal recessive SCID

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21
Q

MOA of autosomal recessive SCID due to ADA or PNP deficiency

A

ADA or PNP deficiency leads to accumulation of toxic metabolites

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22
Q

Which SCID has decreased T and B cells and reduced serum Ig?

A

Autosomal recessive SCID due to other causes

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23
Q

MOA of autosomal recessive SCID due to other causes

A

Mutations in RAG genes or other genes involved in VDJ recombination or IL-7R signaling

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24
Q

Which antibody deficiencies are due to a pre-B receptor checkpoint defect?

A

Agammaglobulinemia (X-linked and autosomal recessive forms)

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25
Q

Person who has selective IgA deficiency is deficient in

A

IgA

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26
Q

Person who has common variable immunodeficiency has decreased ___ cell numbers

A

B

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27
Q

Describe the X-linked form of Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

Defect in T helper cell-mediated B cell, macrophage, and dendritic cell activation

Mutation in CD40L

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28
Q

Describe the autosomal recessive form of Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

Defect in T helper cell-mediated B cell, macrophage, and dendritic cell activation
mutation in CD40

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29
Q

Bare lymphocyte syndrome

A

Defective MHC Class II expression -> decreased CD4 T cells

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30
Q

If someone has MHC Class I deficiency which cells will be reduced

A

CD8 T Cells

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31
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Defective T cell activation

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32
Q

DiGeorge syndrome has decreased _____ cells

A

T

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33
Q

MOA of immunodeficiency caused by HIV

A

Direct toxic effects of infection on CD4 T cells

Plasma membrane is compromised -> lethal influx of Ca2+

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34
Q

Describe the immune response to HIV

A

CD8 T cells expand but provide limited protection

CD4 T cells help CD8 T cells

35
Q

Mechanisms of immune evasion by HIV

A

High mutation rate
Downregulates Class I expression

36
Q

Oral manifestations in AID pts receiving treatment

A

HPV virus
Caries

37
Q

Any molecule produced in the body that has antigenic properties

A

Self-antigen

38
Q

Two main adaptive immune response mediators

A

T cells
Autoantibodies

39
Q

Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) response is primarily mediated by __________ cells

A

Th1 CD4 cells

40
Q

Which types of hypersensitivity can lead to autoimmune diseases?

A

Types II, III, and IV

41
Q

In hemolytic anemia there is destruction of RBC’s.

Which Type II mechanism is responsible?

A

Complement dependent

42
Q

What is the target of complement/Fc receptor mechanism (ADCC) in Type II hypersensitivity?

A

TISSUE self-antigens

43
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris is a rare skin disorder involving blisters in the mucus membranes.

Which Type II mechanism is responsible?

A

Auto-antibodies against proteins in epidermis - actual mechanism is unknown

44
Q

What is the target of autoantibody-mediated alteration of physiological responses?

A

Receptors

45
Q

Name an autoimmune disease caused by Type III hypersensitivity

A

Systemic Lupus erythematosus

46
Q

What is lupus caused by?

A

immune complex deposition
-> complexes cause vasculitis, rashes, arthritis

47
Q

What are the antigens involved in lupus?

A

nucleic acids, histones, ribosomes

48
Q

Which cells mediate Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

T cells

49
Q

What do T cells recruit to cause tissue destruction in Hashimotos (Type IV)?

A

Lymphocytes and macrophages

50
Q

What leads to decreased TH production in Hashimotos (Type IV hypersensitivity)?

A

Autoantibodies interfere with iodine uptake

51
Q

What cells target beta cells that produce insulin in Type I diabetes (Type IV hypersensitivity)?

A

CD8 cells

(CD4 cells are also involved)

52
Q

What cells infiltrate the brain and spinal cord, causing neurologic dysfunction, in Multiple Sclerosis (Type IV hypersensitivity)?

A

Activated T cells and macrophages

53
Q

Causes of autoimmune disease

A

Genes, immune regulation, environment

54
Q

Autoimmune diseases are most strongly genetically linked to specific _______ genotypes.

A

MHC
-> more so MHC Class II

55
Q

Which environmental factors can play a role in autoimmune disease?

A

hormones
infection
traumatic injury

56
Q

T/F: Males are at greater risk of developing most autoimmune diseases

A

False!! Females are at greater risk

57
Q

What are some proposed mechanisms for initiation of autoimmunity by trauma or infection? (3)

A

1) release of sequestered antigen
2) activation/migration of APC in target organ
3) molecular mimicry

58
Q

Describe the 1st and second “hits” of the pathogenic mechanism of autoimmune disease

A

1: genetic susceptibility
2: infection, injury

59
Q

What is the goal of autoimmune disease treatment?

A

Downregulate autoantigen-specific immune response while allowing protective immune response to be functional
-> this is very difficult to achieve

60
Q

Therapeutic strategies for autoimmune diseases

A

Tx with antagonists against pro-inflammatory mediators

(ex: cytokines, chemokines, co-stimulatory molecules, integrins, T/B cell signaling molecules)

61
Q

What are the following describing?

1) prevents virally-induced tumors by controlling viral infection
2) prevents development of chronic inflammatory environments
3) eliminates tumors directly through immune surveillance theory

A

Primary roles of the immune system in the prevention of cancer

62
Q

Some viruses encode _______ that can directly induce tumor development

A

oncogenes

63
Q

Examples of viral cancers

A

HPV
HTLV-1
Epstein Barr virus
Herpes (HHV8)

64
Q

What is this describing?

Immune system identifies and eliminates early stage cancer before it has the chance to grow

A

Immune surveillance theory

65
Q

Why do immune responses frequently fail to prevent growth of tumors? (3)

A

1) tumors are derived from host cells
2) rapidly growing
3) special mechanisms to evade host immune response

66
Q

Primary immune responses to tumors (5)

A

tumor specific CD8 T cells
tumor specific CD4T cells
tumor specific antibodies
NK cells
M1 macrophages

67
Q

What is the principal mechanism of tumor immunity?

A

CD8 T cells

68
Q

CD8 T cell induction requires cross presentation by ____________ cells and frequently requires _______ cell help

A

dendritic; CD4 T

69
Q

Tumor specific CD4 T cells produce ____ and ______ to increase Class I expression and activate macrophages

A

TNF and IFNgamma

70
Q

NK cells attack cells with decreased

A

MHC Class I

71
Q

T/F: M2 macrophages can help with tumor regression.

A

False! They are bad and enhance tumor progression

72
Q

Why are tumors bad antigen-presenting cells? (3)

A

1) reduced immunogenicity
2) no adhesion molecules
3) no co-stimulatoy molecules or MHC Class II molecules

73
Q

How do tumor cells exhibit reduced immunogenicity?

A

They can lose their antigens spontaneously or they can lose MHC Class I molecules

74
Q

How can tumors evade the immune system? (4)

A

1) attract inhibitory cells
2) express immunosuppressive factors
3) inhibit NK cell activity
4) block antibodies

75
Q

How do monoclonal antibodies treat cancer?

A

they can directly eliminate the tumor cells or interfere with tumor growth

76
Q

Two examples of immune adjuvants

A

Bacilli Calmette-Guerin
TLR 7 agonist

77
Q

Two examples of cytokine therapy

A

IL-2
TNF

both are pretty toxic tho

78
Q

Examples of prophylactic immune therapy

A

Vaccines against oncogenic microorganisms
Antibiotic treatment

79
Q

First FDA approved therapeutic vaccine for prostate cancer

A

Provenge

80
Q

Why have immunotherapies not been as effective as we would expect?

A

Negative regulators of immune response Interference

81
Q

Examples of negative regulators of immune response (3)

A

CD4+CD24+ regulatory T cells
CTLA-4
PD-1

82
Q

What are some of the “new” strategies for tumor immunotherapy?

A

Down-regulatory regulatory T cells
Inhibit negative signaling by CTLA-1 and PD-1

83
Q

_____________ blocks negative signaling from CTLA-4

A

Ipilimumab

84
Q

______________ blocks negative signaling from PD-1

A

Nivolumab

D2 Summer (37 decks)

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