Microbio Week 1 (Exam 1) Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Very few microbes are always pathogenic

A

True

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2
Q

Most microbes are _____________ pathogenic; but many are potentially pathogenic if they get in the wrong place

A

never

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3
Q

Name the method of staining used to differentiate bacterial species into two groups

What are the two groups?

A

Gram staining

Gram + and Gram -

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4
Q

Gram stain differentiates bacteria by their chemical and physical properties of their cell walls by detecting?

A

Peptidoglycan

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5
Q

Study of living things too small to see (and viruses)

A

Microbiology

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6
Q

Dr Graham said “things will stay sterile as long as ______ can’t settle on them”

A

dust

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7
Q

Difference between bacteria (prokaryotes) and eukaryotes

A

Bacteria lack organelles

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8
Q

What is a “strain”?

A

Any isolated colony

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9
Q

What does identification and characterization of bacteria typically first involve?

A

Growth of laboratory “pure cultures”

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10
Q

_________ examination of specimens is faster, and sometimes available

A

Direct

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11
Q

T/F A strain of bacteria has a different name than the species it comes from

A

True!

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12
Q

2 cocci

A

Diplococci

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13
Q

Cluster of cocci

A

Staphylococci

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14
Q

Chains of cocci

A

Streptococci

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15
Q

Curved rod

A

Vibrio

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16
Q

Spheres

A

Cocci

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17
Q

Rods

A

Bacili

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18
Q

What is the primary characteristic for classification of bacteria, and is observed at the same time as the shape and arrangement by light microscopy?

A

Gram stain

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19
Q

What color is gram + bacteria?

A

Purple

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20
Q

What color is gram - bacteria?

A

Pink

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21
Q

Presence of both an inner and outer membrane is characteristic of which bacteria?

A

Gram -

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22
Q

What oral pathology and lesions can be caused by pathogenic bacteria?

A

Actinomysis
Diptheria
Scarlet fever
Syphilis
Gonorrhea

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23
Q

Father of Microbiology

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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24
Q

Name the order of increasing complexity of microbes

A

Virus
Bacteria
Fungi
Parasite

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25
Q

Two categories of parasites

A

Protozoa and worms

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26
Q

3 types of fungi

A

Yeast, mold, dimorphic

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27
Q

Uses an emulsion to trap single nucleic acid templates in wells, PCR amplify them, and then light monitor

A

Pyrosequencing

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28
Q

Bacteria are best defined as what?

A

a different type of cell

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29
Q

Who discovered the concept of sterility/germ theory?

A

Louis Pasteur

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30
Q

What has to be done FIRST in order to identify and characterize bacteria?

A

Grow a pure culture

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31
Q

Steps of Gram stain

A
  1. Prepare heat-fixed film of bacteria on slide
  2. Stain w/ crystal violet (1 min) and rinse w/ water
  3. Treat w/ iodine (1 min) and rinse w/ water
  4. Decolorize with acetone/ethanol (few seconds) and rinse w/ water
  5. Counterstain with basic fuchsin or safranin (1 min) and rinse w/ water
  6. Blot dry and view under oil immersion
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32
Q

What would happen if we didn’t decolorize with ethanol?

A

Everything looks purple

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33
Q

What would happen if we didn’t use safranin?

A

Gram - would be clear

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34
Q

Overview/steps of bacterial ID

A

Specimen
Direct exam
Culture
Pure culture and ID to species
Species name established
Typing/fingerprinting for taxonomic or epidemiological purposes

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35
Q

3 characteristics used to ID bacteria

A

Do they grow w/o oxygen?
Are spores formed?
Are they motile?

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36
Q

Growth requires oxygen as final e- acceptor

A

Aerobic

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37
Q

Growth uses inorganic molecules or CO2

A

Anaerobic

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38
Q

Energy generating metabolism which involves the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation by ETCs

A

Respiration

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39
Q

Conversion of products of glycolysis to other forms w/o additional ATP gains

A

Fermentation

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40
Q

Which bacteria are able to form metabolically inert forms that are stable for long periods of time in the environment?

A

Gram +

(ex: Clostridium and Bacillus)

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41
Q

Example of spore-forming bacteria

A

Terminal (endo) spore of Clostridium tetani

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42
Q

Example of tetanus agent

A

Clostridium tetani

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43
Q

What method remains the technology of the future?

A

Sequencing

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44
Q

What is the best way to compare bacteria? (ON EXAM)

A

16S rRNA gene sequence alignment (we use genus AND species)

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45
Q

What can you use to obtain lots of DNA for sequencing part of the chromosome that codes for the ribosome’s rRNA?

A

PCR

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46
Q

T/F: RNA sequencing is the final step in identifying bacteria.

A

False! It’s DNA sequencing

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47
Q

What is the purpose of PCR?

A

to amplify a specific desired fragment of DNA

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48
Q

When using a phylogenetic tree, you can get ____ clusters that correspond to _____ domains of life

A

3; 3

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49
Q

The small ribosome subunit ______ rRNA sequence is widely used, with ____% identify threshold used to define a group as a ______ or ______

A

16S; 97%; type; species

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50
Q

How many types of bacteria are in the human oral cavity?

A

700

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51
Q

Do entire genome sequences confirm 16S rRNA phylogeny?

A

YES

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52
Q

What do microbiologists really only use to classify/name bacteria?

A

Genus and species

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53
Q

T/F The genus and species must be bolded

A

FALSE; they must be italicized!

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54
Q

What abbreviation is used to represent multiple species within a genus?

A

“ssp”

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55
Q

Subtyping test based on differences in microbial surfaces aka antigens

A

Serotyping

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56
Q

Types of bacteria were first recognized by _______, and ________ _________ like cell shape, surface structures, and ability to grow on different media

A

staining; visible features

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57
Q

__________ (surface antigens) and identification of secreted and other _________ ___________ then allowed further distinctions of bacteria

A

Serotyping; enzyme activities

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58
Q

We now have nucleic acid (sequence) analyses, particularly _________ comparisons that indentified relationships between __________

A

rRNA; species

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59
Q

Bacteria divide by asexual ____________ fission

A

binary

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60
Q

Bacteria are given nutrients as a source of energy and can grow _____________

A

exponentially

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61
Q

Bacteria grow and assemble substrates into _______________. Name some examples

A

macromolecules

examples: polymers, proteins, and nucleic acids

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62
Q

How is the energy for biosynthetic pathways obtained?

A

respiration or fermentation

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63
Q

How are nutrients obtained?

A

Uptake

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64
Q

T/F: Bacteria can’t tolerate extreme and variable conditions like nutrients, temp, pH, atmosphere.

A

False! They CAN tolerate

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65
Q

What does glucose become in glycolysis?

A

2 pyruvate

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66
Q

How is NAD regenerated after glycolysis?

A

NADH -> NAD via fermentation (pyruvate becomes lactic acid)

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67
Q

Why is respiration favored over fermentation?

A

With O2, we can generate much more ATP

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68
Q

Pyruvate is completely oxidized to CO2 via?

A

Krebs cycle

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69
Q

With oxygen, many bacteria can use the Krebs cycle to then generate much more energy through the?

A

Electron transport chain (ETC)

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70
Q

In the ETC, ATP is generated by what process?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

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71
Q

Carbohydrates or other macromolecules are incompletely oxidized, with pyruvate being converted into organic acids or into ethanol and CO2

A

Fermentation

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72
Q

What is fermentation useful for?

A

Identifying bacteria biochemically

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73
Q

Name some other electron acceptors that bacteria can use in anaerobic respiration

A

Nitrate
Sulfate
Carbonate
Other ions

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74
Q

The use of oxygen or other e- acceptors allows _______ _________ ________ and advantages in different environments

A

more efficient growth

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75
Q

Anaerobic respiration can produce less/more ATP than aerobic respiration

A

Less

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76
Q

How many moles of ATP are produced from aerobic respiration?

A

38

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77
Q

What type of phosphorylation does fermentation use?

A

substrate-level

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78
Q

Most bacteria we discuss are what type?

A

Facultative anaerobes

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79
Q

Bacteria that can grow in presence or absence of oxygen

A

Facultative anaerobes

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80
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in fermentation?

A

An organic molecule

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81
Q

Which bacteria CANNOT tolerate oxygen?

A

Obligate anaerobes

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82
Q

Which bacteria can only grow in the presence of oxygen?

A

Aerobes

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83
Q

Why do bacteria need so much metabolism and energy?

A

To polymerize biological macromolecules from precursors

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84
Q

Some bacteria have very high nutrient requirements, so they can only live where?

A

Inside cells

(these are call host dependent intracellular bacteria)

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85
Q

Name 2 common human pathogenic bacteria w/ high nutrient requirements

A

Genus Mycoplasma
Genus Chlamydiae

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86
Q

Lacks peptidoglycan, small size and genome, cause pneumonia, contributes to pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Mycoplasma

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87
Q

Two cell forms, requires ATP, causes eye infections, genital infections or pneumonia

A

Chlamydiae

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88
Q

Which bacteria divide in a coordinated fashion and have a polar septum?

A

Streptococci

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89
Q

Which bacteria divide in a random fashion and have a random septum?

A

Staphylococci

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90
Q

There are 4 bacteria at noon and they doubled every 30 mins, how many bacteria would there be at 2pm?

A

64

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91
Q

Name the phases of the bacterial growth curve

A

Lag phase
Exponential/log phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase

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92
Q

When is growth initiated?

A

When diluted bacteria is added to a new liquid culture medium

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93
Q

When is growth terminated?

A

With depletion of nutrients

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94
Q

T/F All cells in a bacterial population are growing

A

FALSE

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95
Q

Name of non-growing (phenotypically resting) bacteria on complex biofilm populations that can resist the immune system antibiotics; they can also regrow on removal of treatment

A

Persisters

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96
Q

What’s an alternative to binary fission? When will it occur?

A

Sporulation

Occurs when nutrients become limited or the environmental conditions become stressful

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97
Q

Term for not metabolically active

A

Inert

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98
Q

T/F: All bacteria will form spores.

A

FALSE; only some bacteria produce spores

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99
Q

Asymmetric cell division to produce a tough survival form called a spore

A

Sporulation

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100
Q

What are the two most common Gram + bacteria that produce spores?

A

Bacillus (aerobe)
Clostridium (anaerobe)

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101
Q

What are some characteristics of spore forming bacteria?

A

-asymmetric division
-metabolically inert
-resistant to solar radiation and drying
-contain all components necessary for regeneration and vegetative growth (like a plant seed or fungal cyst)

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102
Q

What is the only way to kill bacterial spores?

A

Autoclave or bleach

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103
Q

T/F Bacterial spores can die by a 100 degree boil

A

FALSE

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104
Q

A structured community of micro organisms that is adhered to a surface and enclosed in carbohydrates and proteins

A

Biofilm

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105
Q

What diseases are caused by dental biofilm?

A

Dental caries
Periodontitis
Otitis media
Endocarditis

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106
Q

Name the common biofilm bacteria that causes these diseases
1. caries
2. periodontitis
3. otitis media
4. endocarditis

A
  1. strep mutans
  2. anaerobic Gram (-) bacteria
  3. Moraxella
  4. viridans streptococci
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107
Q

Which phase of bacterial growth are endospores MOST likely to form?

A

Stationary

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108
Q

Which Gram (-) bacteria LACKS peptidoglycan? this is an exception

A

Mycoplasma

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109
Q

Bacterial cells have a rigid cell ______ surrounding the _________ _________

A

wall; cytoplasmic membrane

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110
Q

What is the only aspect of bacterial cells more complex than in eukaryotic cells?

A

Envelope (wall/membrane)

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111
Q

Cell walls maintain ________ and __________ and provide strength to bacteria. This is important in resisting changes in osmolarity of the external environment

A

size; shape

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112
Q

What does the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria act as?

A

Selective permeability barrier

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113
Q

The lipid bilayer also contains ________ machinery, __________ apparatus, and environmental sensors

A

transport; secretion

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114
Q

____________ ___________ machinery is associated w/ inner or cytoplasmic face for oxidative phosphorylation

A

Electron transport

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115
Q

Flagella are for ___________ while pili are for _____________

A

motility; attachment

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116
Q

Physical characteristics specific for Gram + bacteria

A

Wall
Teichoic acids
Thick peptidoglycan layer
Polysaccharide capsule at outermost surface

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117
Q

Physical characteristics specific for Gram - bacteria

A

Envelope
LPS
Thin peptidoglycan layer
Periplasm
Polysaccharide capsule at outermost surface

118
Q

T/F: The cell membrane of bacteria is a selectively permeable barrier

A

True

119
Q

The ETC is associated with the inner/outer face of the membrane

A

inner

120
Q

The lipid bilayer of bacteria contains unique features such as…

A

1) transport machinery
2) secretion apparatus
3) environmental sensors

121
Q

Describe the structure of the peptidoglycan cell wall

A

Repeating disaccharide and cross-linking peptides

122
Q

What is the major target of antibiotics?

A

Bacterial cell wall made of peptidoglycan (sugar and protein)

123
Q

What are M and G in the cell wall peptidoglycan structure?

A

Carbohydrates

124
Q

T/F: Techoic acids have a + charge

A

False!! They’re anionic

125
Q

These bacteria have Gram + cell walls and stain “acid fast”

A

Mycobacteria

126
Q

Why do mycobacteria stain acid fast?

A

They have additional long-chain fatty acids called “mycolic acids”

127
Q

What do we compare mycolic acid to? What do we compare peptidoglycan to?

A

Mycolic acid = wax
Peptidoglycan = glue

128
Q

What are mycobacteria resistant to?

A

Decolorization (unlike other Gram + bacteria!!)

129
Q

LPS acts as a _________ _________ in Gram - bacteria

A

permeability barrier

130
Q

Peptidoglycan in Gram - bacteria is shielded by _____, which can contribute to ___________ ____________!

A

LPS; antibiotic resistance

131
Q

The LPS layer in Gram (-) bacteria is made of 2 parts. What are they?

A

1) O antigen: highly variable polysaccharide used for strain typing

2) Lipid A: endotoxin, has inflammatory properties and is called a virulence factor

132
Q

Endotoxin, has inflammatory properties and is called a virulence factor; part of LPS

A

Lipid A

133
Q

Highly variable polysaccharide used for strain typing; part of LPS

A

O antigen

134
Q

What is the bioactive component of LPS?

A

Lipid A

135
Q

Beyond the bacterial cell wall, there can be an external carbohydrate capsule for both Gram + and Gram - bacteria. What purpose does this serve?

A
  1. Adheres to surfaces, forms colonies and biofilms, environmental resistance
  2. Evades immune system, reduces phagocytosis, shields protein antigens
136
Q

What is the external carbohydrate capsule made of?

A

Polysaccharides

(or less often, proteins)

137
Q

The polysaccharide capsule is now used in?

A

Vaccines

138
Q

What does HOK stand for?

A

H = Flagella
O = O antigen on LPS
K = Capsule

139
Q

What types of bacteria have flagella?

A

All motile Gram + and Gram -
Eukaryotic protozoans

140
Q

What types of bacteria have fimbria/pilli?

A

Gram - only

141
Q

What is the function of flagella?

A

Motility

142
Q

What is the function of fimbria/pilli?

A

Attachment

143
Q

Where are flagella anchored to?

A

Cell membrane/wall

144
Q

What is flagella composed of?

A

Polymerized protein called “flagellin”

145
Q

What is flagellin recognized by?

A

Innate immune response

146
Q

These Gram (-) bacteria have a unique flagella in the periplasmic space

A

Oral spirochetes

Ex: Treptonema (very important in dentistry!)

147
Q

T/F Fimbria/pilli are thinner and there are much more per cell than flagella

A

True

148
Q

Which is shorter and more rigid:

Flagella or fimbriae/pilli

A

Fimbriae/pilli

149
Q

This is a major virulence factor of pathogenic escherichias like E. coli and allows colonization of urinary tract epithelium

A

Fimbriae/pilli

150
Q

Fungi are eukaryotes that have a cell wall but lack?

A

Peptidoglycan

151
Q

The major component of plant and fungi cell walls are carbohydrates.

Name an example

A

Chitin

152
Q

Gram negative bacteria have both an inner and outer membrane. Gram positive bacteria lack the ___________ membrane

A

outer

153
Q

Name a gram (-) oral spirochete that has a unique flagella in its periplasmic space

A

Treptonema

154
Q

What is the distinction in how the bacterial terms “cell wall” and “envelope” are commonly used?

A

wall for Gram positives, envelope for Gram negatives

155
Q

Why are Gram positive bacteria typically more sensitive to widely used antibiotics like beta lactams ?

A

The peptidoglycan target is on the outside of the bacteria

156
Q

What is the most significant function of a capsule for a pathogenic bateria?

A

They can block phagocytosis by immune cells

157
Q

Which of these features of bacterial walls and envelopes are specific to Gram negative bacteria? Mark all correct answers

Teichoic acids
Capsules
LPS
Flagella
Fimbriae

A

LPS
Fimbriae

158
Q

What is the size of the smallest moving object a person can see?

A

0.1 mm

159
Q

What was Anthony Leeuwenhoek ‘s nationality?

A

Dutch

160
Q

Complete set of microbes in a niche

A

Microbiome

161
Q

Entire total gene sequence of a sample or that obtainable from a niche or body site

A

Metagenome

162
Q

Bacterial in nature are often growing exponentially.

A

False

exponential growth is unsustainable, and only seen routinely briefly in lab cultures.

163
Q

Where does most of the material go when you are composting garabage?

A

Into the air, as carbon dioxide

164
Q

Bacterial DNA is present on a linear/circular chromosome with 2 things. What are they?

A

Circular chromosome with transposons and plasmids

165
Q

What do bacteria ALWAYS have?
What do bacteria sometimes have?

A

ALWAYS have transposons
Sometimes have plasmids

166
Q

Bacteria lack a ___________, but their genetic info is present in a _________ __________ within the cell

A

nucleus; nuclear region

167
Q

Bacteria have a ________ ___________ chromosome

A

single circular

168
Q

What kind of proteins are associated with the single circular chromosome in bacteria?

A

Non-specific proteins

(but no histones)

169
Q

Bacteria have no nuclear membrane, which allows simultaneous _____________ and _____________

A

transcription; translation

170
Q

Plasmid DNA replication can be done with?

A

2 replication forks

171
Q

__________ can be exchanged between strains

A

Plasmids

172
Q

What do plasmids have?

A

Protein coding regions

173
Q

What do protein coding regions in plasmids include?

A

Colonization factors
Virulence determinants

174
Q

Plasmids contribute to the ____________ of many species

A

pathogenicity

175
Q

What can other plasmids carry coding sequences for?

A

Antibiotic resistance
Conjugation pilli
Entire metabolic pathways

176
Q

How do plasmids that share a region readily join together?

A

By cross-over homologous recombination

(called a “Campbell” recombination)

177
Q

What is central in the origin of recombinant DNA technology?

A

Plasmids

178
Q

Repetitive, mobile genetic elements

A

Transposons

179
Q

Transposons always encode _______________ enzymes integration into a chromosome target site, with or without additional ________

A

recombinase; genes

180
Q

Transposons can move to __________ or back, possibly inactivating an existing ___________

A

plasmid; gene

181
Q

Some transposons contain genes for bacterial surface ______, which allows them to move between cells

A

pilli

182
Q

Bacteria can encode proteins by maintaining DNA sequences as what 3 things?

A

Chromsome
Plasmids
Transposons

183
Q

Who created the “Central Dogma”?

A

Francis Crick

184
Q

Describe the “central dogma” of molecular biology

A

DNA -> (transcription) -> RNA -> (translation) -> Protein

185
Q

What are the 3 major processes in maintenance and expression of bacterial genetic information?

A

Replication
Transcription
Translation

186
Q

DNA synthesis by DNA-dependent DNA polymerases

A

Replication

187
Q

mRNA synthesis by RNA polymerases on a DNA template

A

Transcription

188
Q

Protein synthesis by ribosomes with tRNA and associated factors

A

Translation

189
Q

What are replication, transcription, and translation all important targets for?

A

Antibiotics

190
Q

What is central in colonization, virulence, and pathogenicity?

A

Presence and expression of bacterial genes

(these include cell walls, toxins, flagella, pili, capsule, biofilms, etc)

191
Q

T/F: DNA replication has 3 forks

A

False! There are only 2

192
Q

Why are plasmids important?

A

1) give the bacteria more capacity
2) allow for communication between bacteria

193
Q

A resistance plasmid that confers resistance to antibiotics

A

R plasmid

194
Q

Plasmids sharing a region readily join together by cross-over homologous recombination

A

Campbell recombination

195
Q

Some transposons contain genes coding for bacterial surface pili; this allows them to move between cells. What are these transposons called?

A

Conjugative transposons

196
Q

Which enzyme transcribes bacterial DNA into RNA?

A

RNA polymerase

197
Q

The function of RNA polymerase is to

A

Recognize promoters

198
Q

What does RNA polymerase initiate the synthesis of?

A

mRNA

199
Q

A sequence in the DNA that binds RNA polymerase

A

Promoter

200
Q

How are bacterial mRNAs are different from eukaryotic mRNAs?

A

Half of bacterial mRNAs encode for more than 1 protein

(eukaryotic mRNAs can only encode for 1 protein)

201
Q

Multiple proteins open reading frames are only seen in bacteria

A

Polycistronic mRNA

202
Q

Single translatable open reading frame

A

Monocistronic mRNA

203
Q

The first ever gene identified was in E. coli and it allowed for ______________ fermentation. It encodes ______ mRNA with ______ protein coding regions, later called a bacterial ________

A

lactose; 1; 3; operon

204
Q

An RNA coding region is the heritable unit of controlled gene expression

A

Gene

205
Q

What do ribosomes begin translating as they are made?

A

mRNAs

206
Q

Ribosomes have 2 components that make up their large and small subunits. What are they?

A

rRNAs + proteins

207
Q

Bacterial and eukaryotic ribosomes are different enough to be an important target for what?

A

Antibiotics

208
Q

Bacteria have 3 ways of exchanging DNA. Name them

A

1) transformation
2) transduction
3) conjugation

209
Q

Cells take up naked DNA from the environment and lyse
(only some bacteria do this)

A

Transformation

210
Q

Phages carry host DNA,
(most bacteria do this)

A

Transduction

211
Q

Cells mate through specialized appendages; usually between same species

A

Conjugation

212
Q

What do DNA recombination and genetic transfer in bacteria allow for the spread of?

A

Virulence genes and antibiotic resistant genes

213
Q

DNA goes directly into the environment, often by lysis

A

Transformation

214
Q

Bacteria undergoing _____________ have naked DNA susceptible to DNAses

A

transformation

215
Q

T/F Transformation requires cell-cell contact

A

FALSE; cell-cell contact is NOT required in transformation

216
Q

Virus that attacks bacteria and replicates by invading living cell and using cell’s molecular machinery

A

Bacteriophage

217
Q

What are bacteriophages composed of?

A

DNA and protein

218
Q

What are the 2 basic types of phages?

A
  1. Lytic (aka virulent)
  2. Lysogenic (aka temperate)
219
Q

Infection of susceptible bacteria ALWAYS leads to destruction of bacteria and release of new infectious phage

A

Lytic phage (virulent)

220
Q

Depending on growth conditions, the phage can either lyse the host or be integrated into the chromosome

A

Lysogenic phage (temperate)

221
Q

T/F Phages are NOT perfect machines, and rare mistakes lead to incorporating bacterial DNA into mobile phage particles

A

True

222
Q

Name a bacteria that’s encoded by a lysogenic bacteriophage and can cause a membrane-like coating in the throat

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

223
Q

Transfer of F plasmid DNA from F+ donor cell to F- recipient cell

A

Conjugation

224
Q

What does an F+ plasmid mean?

A

You already have the plasmid

225
Q

F plasmid excised from Hfr chromosome carrying new regions and now the donor is called

A

F’

226
Q

Conjugative F plasmids can also integrate like a phase and move host chromosome to an integrated F plasmid called

A

Hfr+

227
Q

What is plasmid mediated conjugation known to cause?

A

Resistance to spread quickly through Gram - species

228
Q

What is it called when ribosomes begin translating mRNAs as they are made in prokaryotes?

A

Polysomes

229
Q

What is the biggest cause of community developed drug resistance?

A

More antibiotics being used in agriculture and farming

230
Q

U.S. average antibiotic prescriptions per person per year

A

0.88 antibiotic prescription/person/year

231
Q

Selective inhibitor of microbial cells

A

Antimicrobial

232
Q

What does a higher prescription dose that is given out longer and more frequently lead to?

A

More antibiotic resistance

(this is what we see in hospitals)

233
Q

Which antibiotic is used most often in cattle farming?

A

Tetracycline

234
Q

What was the first antibiotic?

A

Penicillin

235
Q

One of the first antimicrobial agents discovered in 1935

A

Sulfonamides

236
Q

This antimicrobial agent inhibits folic acid synthesis by inhibiting PABA, which inhibits synthesis of purines and pyrimidines

A

Sulfonamide

237
Q

What do sulfonamides inhibit?

A

Folic acid synthesis

238
Q

T/F You want to treat a bacterial infection with a drug that is specific as possible

A

True!! We want antibiotics that are narrow spectrum

**they used to think you wanted activity against a wide variety (broad spectrum), but now we know that is incorrect

239
Q

What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic

A

Bactericidal = kills bacteria
Bacteriostatic = inhibits growth of bacteria

240
Q

The ideal antibacterial agent should have…

A

1) target is a bacterial factor absent in human cells
2) minimal toxicity and bio-available
3) narrow spectrum

241
Q

Which is better, broad spectrum or narrow spectrum?

A

Narrow! This will only kill the unwanted bacteria

242
Q

Another name for antibiotics

A

Secondary metabolite

243
Q

What is a reason that injected penicillin, then oral, remains the #1 antibiotic in dentistry?

A

It has narrow spectrum (targets Gram + strep only)

244
Q

What are antibiotics really?

A
  1. Antimicrobials produced by live organisms
  2. Secondary metabolites
245
Q

What are the 3 major targets of antibiotics?

A

Bacterial wall synthesis
Protein synthesis
Nucleic acid synthesis

(some also target the membrane or enzymatic functions - ex: Neosporin)

246
Q

What do antimicrobials rely on?

A

Selective cellular inhibition

247
Q

What are the major classes of antibiotics?

A

Beta-lactams
Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Linocosamides
Quinolones

248
Q

Class of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

B-lactams

249
Q

3 examples of B-lactams

A

Penicillins (1st gen)
Cephalosporins (2nd gen)
Carbapenems (3rd gen)

250
Q

Classes of antibiotics that inhibit ribosome/protein synthesis

A

Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Lincosamides

251
Q

Class of antibiotics that inhibit DNA synthesis

A

Quinolones

252
Q

3 most common antibiotics in dentistry

A
  1. Beta lactams
  2. Erythromycin or azithromycin
  3. Clindamycin

(Clindamycin moves up to spot #1 if the pt is elderly, at risk, or has a bone infection!!)

253
Q

What % of people are allergic to Beta lactams?

A

3-10%

254
Q

2 examples of Macrolides

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin

255
Q

Example of Lincosamides

A

Clindamycin

256
Q

Example of Quinolones

A

“-floxacins”

257
Q

What do bacteria have that is similar to plant cells?

A

Turgor (can easily lead to lysis)

258
Q

What do Beta-lactams specifically target in order to inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Peptidoglycan

(NAG-NAM amino sugar polymer + a D-ala cross linked peptide residue)

259
Q

What reaction does Beta-lactam target that allows them to inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

D-ala transpeptidation

260
Q

B-lactams bind to these proteins which can make the cell wall weaker if bacteria are growing

A

Penicillin binding proteins (also called wall transpeptidases)

261
Q

What do Beta-lactams resemble?

A

D-ala

262
Q

What is a Beta-lactam technically considered?

A

Competitive inhibitor

263
Q

The Beta-lactam Penicillin is a ____ member ring. If you switch the sulfur for a carbon, you get _________, which is also a ____ member ring.

A

5; Carbapenem; 5

264
Q

The Beta-lactam Cephalosporin is a ____ member ring

A

6

265
Q

Which antibiotic is a “glycopeptide” inhibitor of cell wall synthesis?

A

Vancomycin

(has similar but different MOA than Beta-lactams)

266
Q

What does Vancomycin bind to? (this is different than Beta-lactams!!)

A

D-ala

267
Q

What is Vancomycin used to treat?

A

C diff

268
Q

What is the mechanism of the Macrolide antibiotic Erythromycin?

A

Binds 23S rRNA of the 50S subunit
Inhibits chain translocation like Clindamycin and Azithromycin

269
Q

Which drug is #2 in dental usage after Beta-lactams (used when there is an allergy)?

A

Erythromycin (a Macrolide antibiotic)

270
Q

What do nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors bind to in non-growing bacteria?

A

RNA polymerase

(this prevents transcription and gene expression)

271
Q

4 examples of nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors

A

Rifampicin
Rifampin
Metronidazole
Sulfonamides

272
Q

What do DNA synthesis inhibitors (Quinolones) target?

A

DNA gyrase

273
Q

Which antibiotic is used for aggressive periodontitis?

A

Metronidazole

274
Q

What bacteria does Metronidazole target?

A

Anaerobic bacteria

275
Q

What kind of antibiotic is Metronidazole?

A

Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor

276
Q

T/F Development of resistance, which involves altered uptake of a drug, is rare when taking Metronidazole

A

True!

277
Q

What can absolutely NOT be mixed with Metronidazole?

A

Alcohol

278
Q

15 antibiotics we need to know

A

Vancomycin
Amoxicillin
Penicillin V vs G
Augmentin
Trimethoprim
Sulfamethoxazole
Cirpofloxacin
Nalidixic Acid
Metronidazole
Rifampicin
Streptomycin
Tetracycline
Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Clindamycin

279
Q

What are the 4 major classes of antibiotic resistance mechanisms?

A
  1. Enzymatic modification/degradation of the antibiotic
  2. Altering the target of the antibiotic
  3. Change flux of antibiotic
  4. Intrinsic resistance
280
Q

What are the 2 common enzymes targeted in antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. B-lactamase (most common)
  2. Aminoglycoside phosphotransferase
281
Q

What are the 2 most common mechanisms for altering the target of the antibiotic in antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Spontaneous mutation (most common)
  2. Acquire new genes/enzymes
282
Q

What are 2 ways bacteria can change the flux of the antibiotic in antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Pump antibiotic out of cell
  2. Decreased uptake (more specific pores, multiple antibiotic resistance (MAR))
283
Q

What are 3 ways bacteria have intrinsic resistance in antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Permeability barrier of Gram -
  2. Lack of peptidoglycan
  3. Biofilms
284
Q

Recombination between two DNA helixes that are aligned over shared sequence (>400 bp)

A

Homologous recombination

285
Q

Which one of these is NOT a bacterial genetic element?

Ribosome
Circular chromosome
Transposon
Plasmid

A

Ribosome

286
Q

What is unique about bacterial genes or transcription units compared to those of eukaryotes?

A

They can have more than one protein coding region

287
Q

What additional capabilities do temperate (or “lysogenic”) bacteriophages have compared to lytic phages?

A

Ability to do specialized transduction

288
Q

What is the main reason the community acquired resistant bacterial infections are increasing?

A

Use of antibiotics in farming, and unregulated disposal of excess drugs

289
Q

What are antibiotics as found in Nature?

A

bacterial signal molecules and secondary metabolites; produced by fungi and soil bacteria

290
Q

What is clavulanic acid?

A

Inhibitor of Beta lactamase