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Sgts Test 2025 > HPM 9.1 > Flashcards

HPM 9.1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the program that encourages harmonious relations between the Department and its employees, and establishes procedures for the equitable and peaceful resolution of differences on employee relations?

Employee Wellness Program

Employee Assistance Program

Employee Relations Program

Peer Support Program

A

Employee Relations Program

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2
Q

Who is responsible for seeing that the employee relations policies of the California Highway Patrol are properly administered?

Managers

Supervisors

Officers

Both A and B

A

Both A and B

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3
Q

_______________ is/are responsible for developing, coordinating and administering employee relations policies and procedures for the Office of Commissioner.

The Academy

The Office of Employee Relations

Division Commanders

The Office of Legal Affairs

A

The Office of Employee Relations

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4
Q

True or False: The Office of Employee Relations is responsible for training managers and supervisors to enhance their understanding and develop their expertise in the principles and concepts of public sector employee relations?

A

True

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5
Q

True or False: Misapplications or failure to enforce the terms of each Bargaining Unit contract could result in violations which are subject to complaint and arbitration procedures.

A

False, …subject to the grievance and arbitration procedures.

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6
Q

The Dills Act is a series of Government Code Sections which govern_____ for represented employees of the State of California.

a) disability insurance

b) discipline

c) collective bargaining

d) wages

A

c) collective bargaining

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7
Q

“Represented employee” means an employee who is not designated as supervisory, managerial, confidential, or excluded under the Dills Act. Another name for represented employee is ______.

a) rank-and-file employee.

b) subordinate employee

c) tenured employee

d) secondary employee

A

a) rank-and-file employee.

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8
Q

Represented employees have certain rights as provided by the Dills Act and their contracts between the state and their exclusive representatives. If there is a conflict between departmental policy and the provisions of a negotiated contract, the contract shall be controlling.

a) True.

b) False

A

a) True.

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9
Q

Which employees do not have the right to file an unfair labor practice charge, nor are they entitled to bargaining units, exclusive representation, or contracts.

a) Excluded employees

b) Former employees

c) tenured employees

d) secondary employees

A

a) Excluded employees

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10
Q

Bargaining unit 5 lists two classifications of CHP employees, officer and _____.

a) manager

b) cadet

c) sergeant

d) supervisor

A

b) cadet

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11
Q

When an employee representative is acting in that capacity, they are on _______ _______ with management?

A. Equal ground

B. Lesser ground

C. Higher ground

A

A. Equal ground

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12
Q

What does management determine when they look at contracts?

A. Restrictions imposed on managerial authority.

B. Which rights have been relinquished or are shared with the exclusive representatives.

A

B. Which rights have been relinquished or are shared with the exclusive representatives.

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13
Q

Can a representative’s representational activity be used as a basis for discipline or discharge?

A. Yes.

B. No.

C. Sometimes.

A

B. No.

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14
Q

What is the role of the supervisor?

A. Directs the work force towards accomplishing the departments goals and serves as managements contact with departmental employee’s

B. Link between the CAHP and management.

A

A. Directs the work force towards accomplishing the departments goals and serves as managements contact with departmental employee’s

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15
Q

HPM 9.1, Employee Relations, p. 4-3, section 1(a)

What is the Dill’s Act?

A. Rules governing State employee organizations for unrepresented employees

B. Rules governing State employee overtime hours for represented employees.

C. Rules governing State employee organizations for represented employees.

A

C. Rules governing State employee organizations for represented employees.

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16
Q

HPM 9.1, Employee Relations, p. 4-3, section 1(c)

How many represented bargaining units are in the department?

A. 12

B. 10

C. 5

D. 13

A

A. 12

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17
Q

HPM 9.1, Employee Relations, p. 4-5, section 2(a)

Where are rules governing excluded employees located?

A. CPOLS

B. CalHR

C. Excluded Employee Bill of Rights

A

C. Excluded Employee Bill of Rights

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18
Q

An organization of employees and former employees of the state is called what?

A. A bona fide association

B. SRT

C. Retirees Forum.

A

A. A bona fide association

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19
Q

Where should questions regarding an organization claiming to represent departmental employees or the status of bona fide associations be directed?

A. CHP Academy

B. CHP H.Q.

C. Office of Employee Relations

D. CalHR

A

C. Office of Employee Relations

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20
Q

If there is a conflict between policy and contract, which takes precedence?

A. Contract.

B. Policy.

C. MOU.

D. SOP.

A

A. Contract

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21
Q

Who is permitted access to work locations?

A. The Public with a representative.

B. Officials and designated representatives of recognized employee organizations, including supervisory organizations.

A

B. Officials and designated representatives of recognized employee organizations, including supervisory organizations.

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22
Q

Who must a representative receive approval from to access a work location?

A. A representative desiring access to a work location must state the purpose and request approval from that location’s commander or designee.

B. A representative desiring access to a work location must state the purpose and request approval from that location’s clerical staff.

C. A representative desiring access to a work location must state the purpose and request approval from that location’s area Rep.

A

A. A representative desiring access to a work location must state the purpose and request approval from that location’s commander or designee.

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23
Q

Who must a representative obtain permission from to engage in representational matters?

A. A representative must obtain permission from their OIC to engage, during working hours, in a business relating to representational matters.

B. A representative must obtain permission from their immediate supervisor to engage, during working hours, in a business relating to representational matters.

C. A representative must obtain permission from CALHR to engage, during working hours, in a business relating to representational matters.

A

B. A representative must obtain permission from their immediate supervisor to engage, during working hours, in a business relating to representational matters.

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24
Q

What should happen if access is denied?

A. Call Dispatch and start a log.

B. go home.

C. reasonable alternatives should be provided.

A

C. reasonable alternatives should be provided.

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25
Q

5.Why may access be denied/delayed to a work location?

A

Answer: Access to a work location may be denied or delayed for reasons including safety, security, workload requirements, or other legitimate circumstances.

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26
Q

Who may post on an employee organization bulletin board?

A. Employee coffee funds.

B. A recognized employee organization.

C. local restaurant menus.

A

B. A recognized employee organization.

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27
Q

What shall be on any materials posted to the bulletin board? Who shall the materials be provided to?

A. The date and initials of the organization representative. A copy shall be provided to the commander.

B. The date and initials of the organization representative. A copy shall be provided to the supervisor.

C. The date and initials of the organization representative. A copy shall be provided to the Division Commander.

A

A. The date and initials of the organization representative. A copy shall be provided to the commander.

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28
Q

Who should be consulted regarding doubt to propriety of posted material?

A. CalHR

B. Unit 5

C. Clerical

D. OER

A

D. OER

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29
Q

What should happen if management wants to remove material?

A

Management should make reasonable effort to contact the affected employee organization to explain the reason. Management retains final authority for removal.

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30
Q

What shall employees not be do during working hours?

A. Employees shall not conduct/participate in employee organization business activities.

B. Employees are allowed conduct/participate in employee organization business activities as long as it is reasonable.

A

A. Employees shall not conduct/participate in employee organization business activities.

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31
Q

What is an employee’s non-working hours?

A. Court Call Back hours.

B. Lunch breaks, rest breaks, and time before and after work.

A

B. Lunch breaks, rest breaks, and time before and after work.

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32
Q

Solicitation may take place before or after working hours, or during meal and rest periods in non-working areas. True or False?

A

True

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33
Q

Where may literature be distributed and when? During non-working hours, after requesting and being granted access. Employee mailboxes _____ be used.

A. Cannot

B. May

A

b) May

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34
Q

State telephones can be used upon request, an employee organization shall have access, provided the use doesn’t result in toll charges or ______.

A. Interfere with Departmental operations.

B. International Calls are made.

A

A. Interfere with Departmental operations.

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35
Q

Can state vehicles be used during representational time?

A. Sometimes

B. Yes

C. No

A

C. No

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36
Q

What equipment and supplies may be used? Approved by who?

Answer: Reproduction equipment, Audio-visual equipment, facsimile equipment, electronic communications system. Approved by immediate supervisor.

A

Answer: Reproduction equipment, Audio-visual equipment, facsimile equipment, electronic communications system. Approved by immediate supervisor.

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37
Q

Can the Department’s internal mail system be used for organization business?

A. No.

B. Yes.

C. With Supervisor approval

A

A. No.

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38
Q

Can mail be opened?

A

Yes, unless marked “Personal and Confidential.”

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39
Q

Can State facilities can be used for organizational meetings upon approval of __________.

A. Division Chief

B. ASM

C. Commander/designee.

D. Clerical supervisor.

A

C. Commander/designee.

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40
Q

How should employee organizations be treated?

A. All recognized employee organization shall be treated OK.

B. All recognized employee organization shall be treated with respect.

C. All recognized employee organization shall be treated uniformly.

A

C. All recognized employee organization shall be treated uniformly.

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41
Q

What is the main consideration for approving use of release time?

a) Needs of the employee

b) Needs of the labor union

c) Needs of the command

d) None of the above

A

c) Needs of the command

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42
Q

State Release Time is State time used for representational purposes permitted by contract or policy.

True or False

A

True

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43
Q

Who grants release time?

a) Employee

b) Division Commander

c) CAHP

d) Immediate Supervisor

A

d) Immediate Supervisor

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44
Q

OT can be used for state release time.

True or False

A

False

45
Q

Who has the right to representation and at what levels

a) Only Civilian staff and top level

b) An Employee at all levels

c) None of the above

A

b) An employee at all levels

46
Q

How much State Release Time may be granted?

A

A reasonable amount of time to complete the business with prior supervisor notification

47
Q

What is the normal amount of State Release Time?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

A

b) 4 hours at each level

48
Q

Can an excluded employee use Release Time to represent another excluded employee?

A

yes

49
Q

Is an employee allowed Release Time for self-representation?

A

yes

50
Q

What form shall be utilized for withdrawal of contributory bank, pending advanced notice to who?

a) CHP 611

b) CHP 610

c) CHP 710

d) CHP 810

A

b) CHP 610

51
Q

Who has obtains supervisory approval for reimbursable paid leave?

a) Area Commander

b) Division Commander

c) Appropriate Commissioner

d) OER

A

d) OER

52
Q

What is the duration of a paid leave of absence?

a) Not less than 1 day

b) No more than 1 year

c) No more than 180 days

d) A and B

A

d) A and B

53
Q

How long shall the request for paid leave of absence be retained?

a) 2 years at the command level

b) 12 months at the command level

c) 3 years at OER

d) B and C

A

d) B and C

54
Q

A grievance among represented employees alleges a violation of?

a) Policy

b) SOP

c) Law

d) Contract

A

d) Contract

55
Q

A complaint among represented employees alleges a violation of?

a) Policy

b) SOP

c) Law

d) Contract

A

a) Policy

56
Q

A grievance / complaint normally progresses through the following levels:

A

Informal Level (immediate supervisor)

Level 1 – Area commander

Level 2 – Division commander

Level 3 – Office of Commissioner

Level 4 – Director of the Dept. of Human Resources

Arbitration

57
Q

Through the grievance / complaint process, employees are entitled to?

a) Confidentiality

b) Anonymity

c) Transparency

d) None of the above

A

a) Confidentiality

58
Q

he Informal Level includes the following steps?

A

Discussion – Should include the affected employee, occur as soon as possible, allow adequate time to fully discuss the matter, and include suggested solutions.

Investigation – Investigate thoroughly now as it is more difficult to resolve at a formal level.

Informal Response – Discuss the response with others in the management team.

Adjustment (or correction) – Errors must be admitted and corrected promptly. Denials should be explained to the employee.

59
Q

If a formal written grievance / complaint is submitted prior to an informal discussion the command should do what?

a) Return the grievance /complaint to the employee

b) send emails

c) write a complaint to division cause the officers are being mean

A

a) Return the grievance /complaint to the employee

60
Q

A formal grievance / complaint contains what three elements?

a) Alleged violation

b) Statement of the problem

c) Proposed remedy

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

A

d) All of the above

61
Q

The response to a grievance / complaint should include what elements:

a) Introduction,
b) Management’s position

c) Decision.

d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

62
Q

grievance / complaint may be filed on what forms?

a) CHP 94

b) STD 630

c) CHP 610

d) A and B

A

d) A and B

63
Q

Processing a Grievance / Complaint – Step 1: A copy of the formal grievance/complaint, the first level response, and all pertinent documentation necessary to investigate the issue in dispute shall be forwarded to the respective Division and the Office of Employee Relations (OER) within _____ after issuance of the response.

a) 5 Business Days

b) 5 Calendar Days

c) 5 Working Days

d) None of the above

A

c) 5 Working Days

64
Q

Processing a Grievance / Complaint – Step 2: A copy of the grievance/complaint, the second level response, and all pertinent documentation necessary to investigate the issue in dispute shall be forwarded to the affected command and OER within _____ after issuance of the response.

a) 5 Business Days

b) 5 Calendar Days

c) 5 Working Days

d) None of the above

A

c) 5 Working Days

65
Q
  1. Processing a Grievance / Complaint – Step 3: Upon appeal to the third level, OER will forward a copy of the third level appeal to the affected commands within three working days after receipt. A copy of the departmental response will be forwarded to the affected commands within _____ after issuance.

a) 3 Business Days

b) 5 Calendar Days

c) 3 Working Days

d) None of the above

A

c) 3 Working Days

66
Q

Processing a Grievance / Complaint – Step 4: California Department of Human Resources (CalHR) sends the Department a copy of the response to a Level 4 appeal. The OER, in turn, will provide copies of the Level 4 response to the affected commands within _____ after receipt.

a) 3 Business Days

b) 5 Calendar Days

c) 3 Working Days

d) None of the above

A

c) 3 Working Days

67
Q

grievance must be filed within _____ of the causing event.

a) 10 business days

b) 15 business days

c) 20 calendar days

d) 21 calendar days

A

d) 21 days

68
Q

Response to an Informal Discussion is to be issued within…

a) 7 business days

b) 7 calendar days

c) 7 working days

d) None of the above

A

b) 7 calendar days

69
Q

Level 1-3 of complaint process must have a response in _____ days?

a) 21 business days

b) 21 calendar days

c) 21 working days

d) None of the above

A

b) 21 calendar days

70
Q

Response time to level 4 of the complaint process must be completed within ________ days
a) 45 business days

b) 45 calendar days

c) 45 working days

d) None of the above

A

b) 45 calendar days

71
Q

Length of time for appeal
Level 1 7 calendar days
Level 2 14 calendar days Level 3 14 calendar days Level 4 14 calendar days

A

Length of time for appeal
Level 1 7 calendar days
Level 2 14 calendar days Level 3 14 calendar days Level 4 14 calendar days Level

72
Q

An excluded employee ___________ is a dispute of one or more employees involving the application or interpretation of a statute, regulation,
policy, or practice which falls under the jurisdiction of California Department of Human Resources (CalHR).

a) Grievance

b) Complaint

c) Arbitration

d) Mitigation

A

a) Grievance

73
Q

. _______________ is the individual identified by the appointing power
who assigns, reviews and directs the work of an employee.

a) Immediate supervisor

b) Sergeant

c) commander

d) Division Commander

A

a) Immediate supervisor

74
Q

(True/False) All employees have the right to confidentiality during the grievance process.

A

True

75
Q

What shall be accomplished prior to appealing to a level 1 grievance?

A

Informal Discussion with Immediate Supervisor

76
Q

The employee or the employee’s representative shall discuss the grievance with their immediate supervisor. This discussion must occur within how many days of the event(s) or circumstance(s) causing the grievance.

a) 10 working days

b) 10 business days

c) 10 calendar days

d) None of the above

A

a) 10 working days and 21 calendar days for represented employees

77
Q

Within how many days, the immediate supervisor shall render their decision either verbally or in writing.

a) 5 working days

b) 5 business days

c) 5 calendar days

d) None of the above

A

a) 5 working days and 7 calendar days for represented employees

78
Q

Normally, the levels of appeal for an excluded employee grievance are

_____________ (Level 1), ______________ (Level 2), ______________ (Level 3), and the ________________ (Level 4).

A

Area Commander, Division Commander, Office of the Commissioner, Director of CalHR

79
Q

A grievant may/may not withdraw a grievance at any time; however,
they should/shall not file a subsequent grievance on the same alleged incident or issue.

A

May and shall not

80
Q

True/False- Interest Arbitration occurs when negotiations have come to an impasse. An arbitrator is called in to resolve the issue. The Ralph C. Dills Act does not mandate it in California.

A

True

81
Q

The ruling of the arbitrator is usually called an ________.

a) Reward

b) Win

c) Award

d) final

A

c) Award

82
Q

True/False- CalHR and OER handles the arbitration hearings.

A

True

83
Q

What is form is a management proposal form?

a) CHP 501

b) CHP 605

c) CHP 602

d) CHP 105

A

CHP 605

83
Q

Who is designated by the Governor to be the State’s Chief Negotiator?

a) State Financial Department

b) Cal HR

c) OER

A

b) Cal HR

84
Q

Managements actions toward employee organizations stem from what Act?

a) Free labor act

b) Dills Act

c) Negociation Act

A

b) Dills Act

85
Q

If a request for meet and confer by a bargaining unit 5 member has been made, and a CAHP Rep and Commander are scheduled to meet, can the officer participate in the meeting?

A

Discretion of the commander

86
Q

True/False- if an allegation of an unfair practice is alleged, PERB Attorney conducts an investigation to determine if a prima facie case is present.

A

True

87
Q

Managers and supervisors (should or shall) take all normal steps to maintain the effective and efficient operation of a state business?

A

should

88
Q

Where normal operations dictate a particular job assignment or enforcement of job related rules or regulations, you (should or shall) not fail to take such action because an employee is not sympathetic to an employee organization.

A

Should

89
Q

True/False- The following employees are expressly excluded from collective bargaining by the Dills Act. Managers, supervisors, and confidential employees—who comprise the Departments management team.

A

True

90
Q

When the state meets and confers with employee organizations representing “represented employees” there (is or is not) a requirement to reach an agreement on proposals?

A

Is not

91
Q

True or false: Managerial employees have no representational rights under the Dills Act.

A

True

92
Q

Pay and be benefits for other excluded employees is determined by ________?

A

Cal HR

93
Q

Pay and be benefits for other excluded employees is determined by ________?

A

false

94
Q

Prior to removing an employee for cause from a specialty pay position, what must first be obtained?

A

Approval from appropriate assistant commissioner

95
Q

An employee removed from a specialty pay position (is or is not) entitled to an administrative hearing?

A

Is

96
Q

Incidents where there is an established nexus between an adverse action and a resulting loss of a specialty pay position the removal will be processed with the _______?

a) CAL HR hearing

b) CAHP Hearing

c) Adverse Action

d) None of the above

A

c) Adverse Action

97
Q

Represented employees removed for cause from a specialty pay position without an adverse action (may or may not) file an appeal utilizing the grievance procedure?

A

May

98
Q

The ___ plays the most important role in any
successful substance testing program. As they generally have the routine, daily contact with the employee for the purpose of directing and evaluating performance; therefore, ___ is in the best position to assess any changes in an employee’s job performance, behavior, and/or appearance.

a) Employee

b) First line supervisor

c) Manager

d) Confirming Official

A

b) First line supervisor

99
Q

For a substance test to be effective, each supervisor must

ensure that:

(a) Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper documentation;

(b) The sample is properly collected;

(c) _______ maintained ; and

(d) The employee’s rights are not violated.

a) Viability

b) Sample

c) Chain of Custody

A

c) Chain of Custody

100
Q

The state’s substance testing policy requires the involvement of
specified managers in all substance tests as a ______ before any sample
can be collected. These managers are to make certain the policy is properly applied and the test appropriately administered.

a) Confirming Official

b) First Line Supervisor

c) Manager

d) Commander

A

a) Confirming Official

101
Q

The effectiveness of the substance testing program is dependent on the Department’s ability to justify its actions and demonstrate a proper application of the policy. The following elements are critical if the program is to be successful: (Name the six C’s)

A

Consistency, Confirmation, Collection of sample, Chain of Custody, Control of Quality, Contracts

102
Q

_______ are peace officer positions and other positions in which drug or alcohol affected performance could endanger the health and safety of others.

a) Important Positions

b) Sensitive Positions

c) Controlling Positions

d) None of the above

A

b) Sensitive Positions

103
Q

True/False- No employee may be under the influence of any prescribed medication which would impede the employee’s ability to perform their duties safely

A

True

104
Q

True/False- Supervisors who suspect substance abuse by non-sensitive employees are encouraged to support their observations using the same criteria used to establish reasonable suspicion for sensitive positions. Since a chemical test will not normally be part of the investigation, it is
essential that the supervisor’s final determination be based upon:

(1) Articulable Facts ;

(2) Close observation; and

(3) Good faith.

A

True

105
Q

Supervisors investigating suspected substance abuse must remain aware of possible criminal violations (i.e., 11377 Health and Safety
Code [H&S], 11350 H&S, 23152a/b Vehicle Code). If the supervisor believes
criminal violations(s) exist, a criminal investigation:
a) should be completed first

b) shall be completed second

c) Shall be completed on concurrently

A

a) Should be completed first

106
Q

If the Substance Abuse Investigation Interview is conducted, the supervisor should
keep in mind the employee’s rights under the ____. Only those questions pertaining to
the employee’s possible need for medical attention should be asked.

a) Policy

b) POBR

c) Constitution

d) MOU

A

b) POBR

107
Q

A supervisor might also receive information regarding substance abuse from a_____. The California Department of Human Resources (CalHR) requires that the informant be a peace officer who is willing to publicly testify on behalf of management, should that become necessary.

a) Unreliable Informant

b) Reliable Informant

c) Confidential Informant

d) A spy

A

b) Reliable Informant

108
Q
A

Sgts Test 2025 (131 decks)

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