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Sgts Test 2025 > HPM 70.6 > Flashcards

HPM 70.6 Flashcards

1
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 1 Pg. 1-3

True or False: The legal standard used to determine the lawfulness of a use of force is the Fifth Amendment to the US Constitution and Graham v. Connor.

A

False, it’s the Fourth Amendment and Graham v. Connor

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2
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 1 Pg. 1-3 & 1-4

Which factors assist in evaluating the reasonableness of a use of force incident?

A) Severity of the crime at issue.

B) Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to the safety of the officer(s) or others.

C) Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight.

D) All of the above.

A

D, all of the above

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3
Q

True or False: The two key principles guiding which force option an officer should select for a use of force situation are: 1) Sound professional judgement and critical decision making, and 2) Use of force that is objectively reasonable based on the totality of the circumstances perceived by the officer at the time, as provided by law, and in conformance with departmental policy.

A

True

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4
Q

True or False: Officers are not required to utilize de-escalation techniques, crisis intervention techniques, or other alternatives to force.

A

False, when safe and feasible under the totality of circumstances.

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT an Intermediate Force option?

A) Electronic Control Device

B) Kinetic Energy Munitions

C) Firearm

D) Aerosol Subject Restraint

A

C) Firearm

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6
Q

True or False: After a use of force incident where a subject request or is provided medical attention, the arrest report shall include the name of the attending doctor and their recommendations.

A

True

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7
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 1 Pg. 1-11

True or False: Officers who are involved in a use of force incident, but are not the arresting officer, are not required to complete a supplemental report for the incident.

A

False, they shall complete a supplemental.

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8
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 1 Pg. 1-12

Supervisors and managers are responsible for ensuring that:

A) A supervisor or manager shall respond to the scene of an incident of excessive use of force as soon as practical when notified.

B) Accurate reporting shall be thoroughly documented in accordance with HPM 100.86.

C) An investigation is conducted and documented.

D) These guidelines are followed whether such incidents involve the CHP, an allied agency, or both.

E) Investigation of incidents involving allied agencies shall be coordinated at the appropriate Division level.

F) All of the above

A

F) All of the above

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9
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 2 Pg. 2-4

True or False: A rabid animal should not be shot in the head in order to preserve the brain.

Answer: True

A

True

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10
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 2 Pg. 2-5

What shall be done with the CHP 51 form after dispatching an animal?

A

Current Year plus one

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11
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 3, pg 3-3

What is the desired minimum distance between the violator vehicle and the patrol car on a traffic stop?

A) 7 feet

B) 10 feet

C) 12 feet

D) 15 feet

A

B

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12
Q

What considerations should be made by the officer prior to exiting the patrol vehicle while conducting an enforcement stop?

A) Turn off emergency lights which are no longer needed.

B) Activate the white spot light if at night

C) Turn the steering wheel to the left as far as possible.

D) Make sure repeater is activated.

E) All of the above.

A

E) All of the above.

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13
Q

Should or Shall an officer keep their gun hand free at all times during a vehicle approach?

A

Should

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14
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 3, pg 3-17

True or False: Can FSTs be performed while standing directly between the patrol vehicle and the violator’s vehicle?

A

False, FSTs SHALL NOT be conducted in that location.

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15
Q

HPM 70.6 Chp 4, pg 4-3

What shall the officer do after having greeted the violator on a traffic stop?

A) Briefly explain why the enforcement stop was made

B) Request the license, registration, proof of insurance from the violator

C) Check traffic behind the vehicles

A

A) Briefly explain why the enforcement stop was made

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16
Q

True or False: Officers may accept a driver license from a violator while it is still in their wallet.

A

False, officers should have the violator remove it from the wallet.

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17
Q

True or False: Officers shall never admit fault, even when they have made an error.

A

False, If an officer realizes they have made an error, they should admit the mistake. In such cases, do not issue a citation. The officer should conclude the contact as graciously as possible.

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18
Q

Are officers deployed in tactical formations exempt from carrying their departmentally issued identification card?

A

Yes

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19
Q

One of the following 4 conditions_______ ______ ________ _______ must be met for drivers of authorized emergency vehicles from obeying certain sections of the CVC per 20155 when displaying a visible red light to the front and the siren is operated as reasonably necessary?

A

In response to an emergency call, while engaged in rescue operations, in the immediate pursuit of an actual of suspected violator of the law, in response to, but not returning from, a fire alarm (HPM 70.6, 5-4 SECTION B)

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20
Q

Although a public employee is not liable for civil damages on account of personal injury or death, officers may be subject to _____________ prosecution for an arbitrary act resulting from the operation of an authorized emergency vehicle in the line of duty.
a) Criminal
b) Civil
c) Illegal

A

a) Criminal

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21
Q

(True/False)- Patrol vehicles may be utilized to transport persons requiring emergency medical aid but when at all practical, an ambulance should be utilized and the patients do not object to the transportation.

A

True

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22
Q

Every state, county, and city LE agency is required to record and report all vehicle pursuit data to the CHP within how many days of the pursuit?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 25
d) 30

A

d) 30

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23
Q

(True/False)- Unless a greater hazard would result, a pursuit should not be undertaken if the subject can be identified where later apprehension can be accomplished or initiated if the dangers of pursuing or continuing the pursuit are too great. (HPM 70.6 5-8, SECTION A-4)

A

True

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24
Q

What are the six means of terminating a pursuit through legal intervention/ forcible stops?

A

Channelization, roadblocks, ramming, hollow spike strip, boxing-in, use of firearms (HPM 70.6 5-10,11, SECTION 9)

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25
Q

What is the primary concern for determining how many units to employ during a pursuit? Normally pursuits to two departmental vehicles and a supervisor, however, the number of units may be adjusted to fit the situation with supervisory approval.
a) Public Safety
b) Crime for witch the stop was initiated
c) What officers are involved
d) All of the above

A

a) Public Safety

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26
Q

CHP participation in an allied agency’s pursuit is appropriate under what circumstance?
a) Whenever we want
b) If the Commander wants us too
c) Specific Request from allied agency
d) None

A

c) Specific request from Allied agency

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27
Q

Under what 4 circumstances should an officer discontinue a pursuit?

A

Extreme safety hazard to the public, officer, or suspect/ information about the suspect’s identity has developed during the pursuit which will allow later apprehension/ pursued vehicle location is no longer definitely known/ Allied agency refuses to discontinue involvement when requested to do so (HPM 70.6 5-17,18, SECTION 4)

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28
Q

A CHP ________ Pursuit report, shall be completed and routed to the respective division within 7 calendar days (HPM 100.68) and entry into PRS shall be completed within how many ______ days of the pursuit?
a) 187, 10 calendar days
b) 187, 10 business days
c) 178, 5 calendar days
d) 167, 10 calendar days

A

a) 187, 10 calendar days

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29
Q

Each area shall include in its ___________, a local pursuit training guide addressing unique area conditions.
a) EAP
b) SOP
c) Notes
d) CAD

A

b) SOP

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30
Q

Pursuit policy shall be reviewed quarterly by uniformed personnel at rank of sergeant and below and additionally reviewed under what circumstance?
a) After Every Pursuit
b) Transfer to new command
c) Whenever told to
d) Everyday

A

b) Transfer to a new command

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31
Q

Officer are required to demonstrate various radio control head tasks for ___________ certification.
a) Daily
b) Monthly
c) Quarterly
d) Annually

A

d) Annually

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32
Q

A CHP 501, field operations card, is utilized to ensure officers are able to program an area and appropriate _________from the radio’s open list.
a) Area code
b) Division code
c) State Code
d) Allied Agency Code

A

b) Division Code

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33
Q

Officers shall be able to activate and deactivate the ____________ by using the radio microphone.
a) Lights
b) Camera
c) Public Address
d) None of the above

A

c) Public Address

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34
Q

Officer shall be able to activate the repeater from the _____________.
a) Radio Head
b) Repeater
c) Lights
d) Camera

A

b) Repeater

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35
Q

(True/False)- It is against policy to pace from the front.

A

True

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36
Q

The best method of pacing is to allow the violator to pull away and the officer sets the patrol vehicle at the estimated speed of the violator in increments of _______ mph.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

A

a) 5

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37
Q

Parking on freeway ramps for the purpose of observing motorist behavior is normally prohibited but the _______ may direct the used of selected freeway on-ramps for the purpose of speed enforcement utilizing radar/lidar.
a) Shift Sergeant
b) Division Chief
c) Area Commander
d) OIC

A

c) Area Commander

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38
Q

During a high-risk stop, officers should consider arming themselves with the tactical rifle, or shotgun if appropriate. When handling any firearm during a high-risk stop, the officer should keep the muzzle of the weapon:

At the low ready

Pointed in a manner reasonable for the situation

Pointed at the suspect(s)

Weapons should not be drawn

A

Pointed in a manner reasonable for the situation

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39
Q

The __________ will take full command of the situation when the stop is made.

Primary unit

Supervisor

Officer in Charge (OIC)

Most senior officer

A

Primary unit

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40
Q

As the suspect vehicle comes to a stop, the patrol vehicle should be positioned __________ feet away from the suspect vehicle, with approximately __________ feet between the primary and secondary patrol vehicles to facilitate and arrest zone.

20 to 40/10

10 to 20/20

50 to 60/15

30 to 50/10

A

30 to 50/10

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41
Q

The __________ is the preferred position for the secondary unit. If this position cannot be achieved, a __________ is he best alternative.

“Right V”/”Left V”

“Right V”/Position behind the primary unit

“Left V”/”Right V”

“Left V”/Position behind the primary unit

A

“Left V”/”Right V”

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42
Q

The preferred position for a third patrol vehicle (Supervisor or otherwise authorized) is __________.

The “Right V”

The “Left V”

The “Left V” of the secondary unit

Directly behind the primary patrol vehicle

A

Directly behind the primary patrol vehicle

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43
Q

Any weapons recovered from the suspect vehicle should be secured in a patrol vehicle other than the one the suspect is secured in.

True

False

A

True

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44
Q

When feasible and objectively reasonable, based on the totality of the circumstances, officers should consider their surroundings and potential risks to bystanders before __________.

Engaging with the hostage taker

Responding to the scene

Discharging their firearm

Taking any action

A

Discharging their firearm

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45
Q

The primary concern in hostage situations is the protection of all __________ involved in these incidents.

Hostages

Life

Bystanders

Officers

A

Life

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46
Q

The supervisor should/shall/may be notified and should respond to the scene to coordinate or direct the apprehension of the suspect as necessary.

Should

Shall

May

A

Shall

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47
Q

Should allied law enforcement agency resources be available, primary responsibility should be transferred to that agency by who?

Area commander

On scene units

CHP does not relinquish responsibility

CHP supervisor

A

CHP supervisor

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48
Q

When a hostage situation becomes mobile, maximum use of __________ should be made as quickly as possible.

Law enforcement aircraft

All available resources

Communication with the hostage taker

Radio contact with dispatch

A

Law enforcement aircraft

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49
Q

What are the most common types of crimes in progress calls?

Robberies

Burglaries

Assaults/Assaults with a deadly weapon

Disturbances

All of the above

A

All of the above

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50
Q

The response to a crime in progress should be done safely, quickly, and quietly. The purpose of this is to __________ and minimize the danger to the responding officers, victim(s), and the public.

Surprise the suspect(s)

Apprehend the suspect(s)

Ambush the suspect(s)

Alert the suspect(s)

A

Surprise the suspect(s)

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51
Q

The three basic fundamentals of handling a crime in progress are:

Quick response, containment, apprehension of suspect(s)

Response, communication, containment

Advise the communications center, respond, secure the scene

Communication, coordination, containment/control

A

Communication, coordination, containment/control

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52
Q

When responding to a call of a robbery or burglary, where should the second unit respond?

With the primary unit to form a two-man search team

The perimeter of the building

The opposite side of the building from the primary unit

The main entrance to the building

A

The opposite side of the building from the primary unit

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53
Q

Prior to apprehending the suspects, it is best to wait for the suspect(s) to exit the building to a position far enough away where they cannot reenter the building or return to the victim(s).

True

False

A

True

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54
Q

For building searches, the third and fourth officers to arrive should assume the responsibility of what?

Perimeter containment

The search team

Updating the communications center of the situation

Backing up the primary unit

A

The search team

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55
Q

The radio extender should be turned __________ when arriving to a crime in progress call.

Up loud to hear updated radio traffic

To normal volume

Down to the lowest audible level to reduce noise and distraction

Off to eliminate noise to not alert the suspect(s) of your location

A

Down to the lowest audible level to reduce noise and distraction

56
Q

How many offices should a search team be composed of?

One

Two at a minimum

Three

As many as necessary

A

Two at a minimum

57
Q

Search teams should use the __________ or __________ techniques to move through doorways.

“Slicing the Pie”/”Quick Peak”

“Slicing the Pie/”Buttonhook”

“Buttonhook”/”Crisscross”

“Quick Peak”/”Crisscross”

A

“Buttonhook”/”Crisscross”

58
Q

What is the most likely time for an attack from a hidden suspect(s)?

When first approaching the building

When entering a room or new floor level

When moving through low lit areas

When searching the outside of the building

A

When entering a room or new floor level

59
Q

The three types of search patterns consist of all listed below EXCEPT:

Zone Search

Grid Search

Spiral Search

Strip Search

A

Grid Search

60
Q

__________ patrol is a natural deterrent to the accident-causing violator and provides officer availability to motorists who need assistance. Adherence to the principles as outlined in Highway Patrol Manual (HPM) 100.68,
Traffic Enforcement Policy Manual, will ensure the officer’s presence on the highway and promote the fundamental assumption in the minds of the motorists that the officer is everywhere

a) Visible
b) Speed
c) Slow
d) None

A

a) Visible

61
Q

(True/False)- Patrol Speed. The officer’s patrol speed will depend upon the normal flow of traffic. (1) Traffic should not be obstructed, nor should the speed limit be exceeded,
except for the apprehension of violators or the handling of emergencies.

A

True

62
Q

(True/False)- Officers shall investigate each disabled vehicle on
highways and rest areas within the Department’s jurisdictional responsibility, as
soon as practical after becoming aware of the disabled vehicle’s presence.

A

True

63
Q

(True/False)- Sergeants will normally respond to all major crashes or incidents
whenever possible to advise and coordinate operations.

A

True

64
Q

When the vehicles involved in a crash are all on the roadway shoulder,
the California Highway Patrol (CHP) vehicle should be moved and parked in
front/rear of the vehicles involved where practical.

A

Front

65
Q

Felony Apprehension.
(1) Officers shall reasonably believe the person(s) being sought has
committed a forcible and atrocious felony before creating a roadblock.
(2) The following are some of the most common crimes which might justify the
use of a roadblock. However, this list is not all-inclusive.
(a) Any major felony such as murder, kidnapping, robbery, which involves
the use or threatens the use of deadly force.
(b) Sex crimes.
HPM 70.6 16-4
(c) Felony hit and run.
(d) Assault with intent to kill or felonious assault.
(e) Prison escapes.

A

True

66
Q

The supervisor who permits a
roadblock to be established shall take several factors into consideration before
making the decision:
(1) Whether the crime or disaster is serious enough to justify a roadblock(s)
being established.
(2) The time elapsed between the commission of the crime and its discovery;
ordinarily, the more time, the less the roadblock would be justified.
(3) The volume of vehicular and pedestrian traffic, school zone, weather and
road conditions, officer safety, etc.

A

True

67
Q

Uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below shall participate annually in an ______ Hour Officer Safety Training (OST) day.

8 Hours (Chapter 17 Section 1 (a) Pg. 17-3)

6 Hours

12 Hours

4 Hours

A

8 Hours (Chapter 17 Section 1 (a) Pg. 17-3)

68
Q

Uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below shall participate in the 4-hour Arrest and Control training once every ____ years, as part of the Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training (POST) Perishable Skills Program.

1 year

2 years

3 years

4 years

A

2 years (Chapter 17 Section 1 (b) Pg. 17-3)

69
Q

Completion of Area OST days shall be recorded in the _________ System

Employee Training Record (ETRS).

100 form

CHP 118

Employee training file

A

Employee Training Record (ETRS). (Chapter 17 Section 8 Pg. 17-8)

70
Q

Completion of Arrest and Control training shall be recorded in which two systems?

ETRS and the POST Electronic Data Interchange (EDI).

100 form

CHP 118

Employee Training file

A

Employee Training file
(Chapter 17 Section 9 Pg. 17-8)

71
Q

What happens if one of your AOST instructors fail to attend the annual OSTC training?

He will have to attend a makeup course

The other instructors from the area will train him.

They will be decertified as an instructor for that year until they attend the following years annual OSTC training.

There is a grace period and nothing happens as long as he attends training the next year.

A

They will be decertified as an instructor for that year until they attend the following years annual OSTC training. (Chapter 17 Section 4 (2) (b) Pg. 17-9)

72
Q

When a Uniformed employee is unable to demonstrate an acceptable level of skill during a CHP 199, Officer Safety Certification, what happens?

The employee has 1 week to demonstrate an acceptable level of skill, or he has to return to the academy for retraining

The employee is provided refresher training for a period of time not to exceed 30 calendar days after certification is due. If the employee still cannot perform an acceptable level of skill they will be placed on interim reporting. (Chapter 17 Section 5 (b) 1-3 Pg. 17-10)

The employee is placed on interim reporting until he can demonstrate an acceptable skill level

As long as he has demonstrated an acceptable skill level while in the academy, it doesn’t matter.

A

The employee is provided refresher training for a period of time not to exceed 30 calendar days after certification is due. If the employee still cannot perform an acceptable level of skill they will be placed on interim reporting. (Chapter 17 Section 5 (b) 1-3 Pg. 17-10)

73
Q

The officer safety procedures and techniques outlined in this manual shall/ Should be used in all arrest situations. Any deviation from the recommended methods will require _______ by the officer based upon the reasonableness of his/her actions and the situation confronted.

SHALL / Justification (Chapter 18 Section 1 Pg. 18-1)

Should/ Justification

Shall/ Explanation

Should/ Explanation

A

SHALL / Justification (Chapter 18 Section 1 Pg. 18-1)

74
Q

Forearm Strikes, Elbow, Knee, Extended Knuckles, The Edge of Fist, Heel of the Hand, Closed Fist, Open Hand and Foot Are examples of what?

Defensive weapons

Unarmed Combat

Personal Weapons

Martial arts

A

Personal Weapons (Chapter 19 Section 2 Pg. 19-1 through 19-5)

75
Q

True or False: Vulnerable areas to personal weapons include but are not limited to: eyes, throat, groin, neck and back

A

True

76
Q

For this chapter, all uniformed members of the California Highway Patrol will be referred to as officer(s). While in the performance of their duties, and based on the facts and circumstances perceived by officers at the time of the event, officers , if feasible, utilize the appropriate departmentally approved control hold necessary to control a subject.

Shall

Should

May

Could

A

Shall

77
Q

The officer safety procedures and techniques outlined in this manual be adhered to in all arrest situations. Any deviation from the prescribed methods require justification by the officer based upon the reasonableness of their actions, and on the facts and circumstances perceived by the officer at the time of the event.

Shall

Should

Could

May

A

Shall

78
Q

No policy can possibly account for all of the factors and situations an officer could face. The methods described in this manual were chosen for ease of use and designed for generally compliant subjects. Officers who utilize a control hold that does not mirror the techniques in this manual justify their actions based upon the objective reasonableness of the circumstances presented to the officer at the time of the event.

Must

May

Should

Could

A

Must

79
Q

True or False: Control holds are techniques utilized to take physical control of a person by preventing or restricting their movement or resistance.

A

True

80
Q

True or False: There are 2 primary types of departmentally approved control holds: twist lock and bent wrist. The choice of which type of control hold to utilize depends on the situation confronting the officer.

A

True

81
Q

True or False: Any use of a control hold/pain compliance hold which results in an apparent injury, complaint of injury, or a subsequent claim of injury shall be documented. Documentation shall be in accordance with Chapter 1, Use of Force, of this manual.

A

True

82
Q

What are the three (3) basic principles for all handcuffing techniques?

Balance, Awareness, Control

Awareness, Strength, Verbal Communication

Control, Use of Force, Force Options

All of the above

A

Balance, Awareness, Control

83
Q

What are the exceptions for not handcuffing to the rear?

Sick/Injured

Disabled/Elderly

Visibly pregnant

All of the above

A

All of the above

84
Q

What are the three (3) different categories of arrest techniques?

Standing

Kneeling

Prone

All of the above

A

All of the above

85
Q

What are the three (3) Standing Arrest Techniques?

Bent Wrist

Twist Lock

Modified Twist Lock

All of the above

A

All of the above

86
Q

True or False: The Kneeling Arrest Technique is the “kneeling twist lock”?

A

True

87
Q

What are the two (2) Prone Arrest Techniques?

Prone Twist Lock, High Risk Prone Twist Lock.

Prone Twist Lock, High Risk Prone Twist Lock

High Risk Prone Twist Lock, Low Risk Prone Twist Lock

Low Risk Prone Twist Lock, Two Person Prone Twist Lock

None of the above

A

Answer: Prone Twist Lock, High Risk Prone Twist Lock.

88
Q

True or False: When custody of an arrestee is transferred from one officer to another, the officer accepting custody shall search the arrestee. If the officer accepting custody observed a search conducted on the arrestee, the officer is not required to conduct a second search.

A

True

89
Q

A proper _________ technique should always be used when searching.

Pat-and-slide

Grasp-and-feel

Touch-and-go

Bump-and-grind

A

Grasp-and-feel

90
Q

When searching an arrestee of a different gender identity or gender expression, at least one of the following guidelines should be followed: (1) Use of another uniformed employee of the same sex to conduct the search, (2) Use of another uniformed employee as a witness, (3)_______________, (4) Use of the Movile Video/Audio Recording System, (5)Use of body-worn camera recordings.

Request permission from a supervisor.

Seek guideance from a supervisor or OIC.

Use of an impartial witness

Use of jail staff

A

Use of an impartial witness

91
Q

True or False: When an officer conducts a consensual encounter with a subject, the subject has the right to refuse a search for weapons.

A

True

92
Q

Shall or Should: The standing search _______ be used for all arrest situations after the arrestee is handcuffed.

A

Shall

93
Q

__________ SHALL NOT be conducted by members of this Department.

Strip searches

Visual body cavity searches

Physical body cavity searches

All of the above

A

Physical body cavity searches

94
Q

A strip search, visual body cavity search, or both, shall not be conducted without the prior _____________ of the supervising officer on duty (sergeant/officer in charge).

Written authorization

Verbal authorization

Expressed consent

Implied consent

A

Written authorization

95
Q

When shall the interior of vehicles be inspected for weapons and contraband?

Prior to the start of each shift

At the end of each shift

Never

At the next convenience

A

Prior to the start of each shift

96
Q

After the transport of any person, what is the time frame to inspect the interior of the patrol vehicle?

The inspection shall be done immediately.

At the end of shift

Prior to the start of the next shift

At the next convenience

A

The inspection shall be done immediately.

97
Q

When a prisoner and/or a passenger is seated or placed in the rear of the patrol vehicle, the child locks _____ be used?

May

Should

Shall

A

Shall

98
Q

When solo and transporting a prisoner without a cage, where shall the prisoner be seated?

In the right front seat

In the right rear seat

In the left rear seat

A

In the right front seat

99
Q

What shall officers advise communications center of when providing transportation for any prisoner or passenger in a patrol vehicle?

Number of occupants,

intended destination,

location of departure

odometer reading.

A

odometer reading.

100
Q

Dispatch shall be advised of any deviation from the intended destination?

True

False

A

True

101
Q

Which device required for all prisoners who are placed in a patrol vehicle that is equipped with eye bolts?

Prisoner Spit sock

Prisoner Securement Device

Prisoner Leg Restraint

A

Prisoner Securement Device

102
Q

While using the prisoner securement device what portion of the handcuffs do you attach the safety snap to?

one cuff – wrist portion

The chain portion.

A

The chain portion.

103
Q

If an in custody threatens to spit on an officer, is that enough justification to utilize a spit sock?

True

False

A

True

104
Q

In the absence of a spit sock, are there any other devices that may be attached or affixed to the head, face or mouth of a spitting prisoner?

True

False

A

False

105
Q

During the course of enforcement duties, all officers and sergeants should/shall carry the approved expandable baton

A

shall

106
Q

All uniformed personnel shall have ____ hours of initial training/certification and biennial recertification training from departmental OST instructor(s).
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

A

a) 4

107
Q

(True/False)- The side handle baton is the only authorized impact weapon for on-duty use by all uniformed personnel.

A

False- RCB

108
Q

All departmental policies and procedures regarding the _______________remain in
effect when utilizing the RCB.

A

use of force and prohibited striking locations

109
Q

It is recommended the RCB be disassembled and inspected every ______, or after each exposure to adverse conditions.
a) Quarterly
b) Annually
c) 30 days
d) None

A

c) 30 days

110
Q

For all RCB repair and replacement requests, the ______ will forward a memorandum explaining how the baton was damaged.
a) Command
b) Division
c) Headquarters
d) Academy

A

a) Command

111
Q

Uniformed employees should/shall carry the RCB in the approved holster on their duty belt.

A

Shall

112
Q

True/False- No modifications to the RCB or holster are permitted.

A

True

113
Q

(True/False) In accordance with departmental policy regarding the use of deadly force, potentially lethal strikes shall be avoided unless the officer is subjected to a life-threatening situation.

A

True

114
Q

True or False: When custody of an arrestee is transferred from one officer to another, the officer accepting custody shall search the arrestee. If the officer accepting custody observed a search conducted on the arrestee, the officer is not required to conduct a second search.

A

True

115
Q

Uniformed personnel _____ have their WMD PPE immediately available during their work shift.
a) Shall
b) Should
c) May

A

a) Shall

116
Q

(True/False)- The WMD PPE should be inspected upon issuance and quarterly thereafter.

A

True

117
Q

Coveralls shall be replaced within ____ years from the date of issuance.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5

A

d) 5

118
Q

Coveralls can be requisitioned using the ___________________.
a) CHP 41
b) CHP 52
c) CHP 31
d) CHP 43

A

a) CHP 41

119
Q

____________ inspections shall be conducted and documented.
a) Quarterly
b) Monthly
c) Weekly
d) Daily

A

a) Quarterly

120
Q

(True/False)- All WMD PPE must be inspected after each use and replaced if it fails
inspection.

A

True

121
Q

(True/False)- Temperatures above 120 degrees Fahrenheit, compression under heavy weight, and sharp edges can degrade materials in the WMD PPE.

A

True

122
Q

_________ refresher training relating to WMD PPE shall be conducted during First Responder Operations Refresher and Hazardous Materials Incident Command refresher courses.
a) Annual
b) Quarterly
c) Monthly
d) Weekly

A

a) Annual

123
Q

The Remington, Model 870, is the only approved shotgun to be used with Kinetic Energy Munitions and it must be conspicuously colored orange in what three areas?
a) Fore-End
b) Stock
c) Sling
d) Barrel
e) A, B and C

A

e) A, B and C

124
Q

How many kinetic energy munitions shotguns must a Commander insure are deployed during every shift?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

A

a) One

125
Q

What areas of the human body shall not be intentionally targeted unless the officer is subject to a life-threatening situation?

A

Potentially lethal target areas

126
Q

What is the optimal distance for the Kinetic Energy Munitions shotgun, without compromising energy and accuracy?

A

5 to 60 feet

127
Q

When feasible and tactically allowable, the officer deploying the kinetic energy munitions shotgun should loudly verbalize (yell) what to all persons on scene?

A

Bean Bag!

128
Q

All uses of force should/shall be reported?

A

Shall

129
Q

All uniformed employees shall undergo eight hours of ECD training and those who carry the ECD shall recertify how often?

A

Annually

130
Q

Although an employee may purchase their own ECD, provided it is the exact same make, model, and color used by the Department, they must still use what two items provided by the Department?

A

Cartridges and Power Source

131
Q

With a maximum range of 25 feet and a dart spread of one foot for every nine feet, what is the optimal distance range of the ECD?

A

7 to 15 feet

132
Q

There are six specific areas on the body which shall not be intentionally targeted, either by discharging the cartridges or drive stun. What are they?

A

Head, Face, Neck, Throat, Groin, Spine

133
Q

A condition exists where a person(s) displays bizarre behavior, potentially influenced by drug use, and use of an ECD should be combined with physical restraint techniques to minimize the total duration of the struggle and ECD stimulation. This condition is potentially fatal and caused by a complex set of physiological conditions including overexertion of the subject and inability for sufficient respiration to maintain normal blood chemistry. There are significant, and potentially fatal, health risks for this state known as what?

A

Agitated Delirium

134
Q

There are three options for probe removal. What are they?

A

On-scene removal by EMS 2.) EMS removal when transported to a medical facility 3.) Uniformed Employee on scene- UNLESS the probes are in the GROIN, FEMALE BREAST AREA, HEAD & EYES, NECK, SPINAL COLUMN, JOINTS

135
Q

All ECDs utilized for on-duty carry shall be downloaded each month and an audit shall be conducted at the Area/Division level to reconcile recorded activations with ECD deployment reports. How long are these records kept?

A

For the life of the ECD plus 10 years

Sgts Test 2025 (145 decks)

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