Highlighted Admin Flashcards
1
Q
Who is responsible for the ISFSI?
A
- Unit 1 SM
- Unit SM while dry cask in in transport (not set on pad)
2
Q
What is minimum shift manning for a unit?
A
- 1 SM
- 1 CRS
- 2 RO’s
- 1 FTA for site
- 4 AO’s
- 1 RW for site
- 1 SBOG for site
- 1 outside area
- 3 STA or 2 STA and 1 ENS communicator
- 1 ENS communicator
- 2 STSC communicator for site
3
Q
How many RO’s and AO’s are required to be within the unit at all times?
A
- 2 RO’s
- 3 AO’s
4
Q
How long can a required manning position be vacant?
A
- Any position except SM
- < 2 hrs
- Unplanned incident (can’t be vacant just to go home)
5
Q
How does MCR staffing requirements change in Mode 5-6?
A
- CRS normally has command function
- May be qualified SRO or RO
6
Q
What do night orders provide?
A
- Info to ops in timely manner
- Temporary
- Shorter term than standing orders
7
Q
What do Standing orders provide?
A
- Info for longer term issues
- OD contingency plans
- ODMI Action plans
- Directives from Ops Manager
8
Q
How are alarms communicated?
A
- Directly to CRS
- Promptly identify cause
9
Q
Which alarms CANNOT be left in fast flash?
A
- CEA position out of limits
- Possible inadvertent boron dilution
- CNTMT Sump excess leakage
10
Q
When and how do you transition back to normal alarm response from transient alarm response?
A
- CRS directs
- Plant is stable
11
Q
When is an alarm considered “expected”
A
ONLY if prebriefed
12
Q
What actions are required if an alarm occurs do to an activity, but was not briefed?
A
- considered unexpected alarm
- ARP to validate no further actions
- ARP used at CRS discretion
13
Q
Which alarms are NOT to be left in fast flash
A
- CEA out out-of-limits (PDIL)
- Possible Boron Dilution (BDAS)
- CTMT Sump excess leakage (RCS leak detection)
14
Q
When do you transition from transient alarms back to normal?
A
- CRS directs
- plant is stable
15
Q
When would you manually input a SESS?
A
- Disabled/ unable to perform function and NOT alarmed
- Impairment > 1 shift
16
Q
Where do you document manual SESS inputs?
A
Unit Log
17
Q
Does manually actuating a Rx trip or ESFAS actuation that did not auto occur required CRS concurrence?
A
NO
18
Q
How often are critical parameters monitored?
A
- Every 5 minutes
19
Q
Who CANNOT provide peer checks?
A
- SM
- CRS
- Rx manager
20
Q
How are peer checks managed for AOP/EOP’s?
A
- Preferred
- NOT required
21
Q
What is required to have Peer Checker also act as IV’er?
A
- SM permission
- CR documenting
22
Q
What are some examples of 2-Handed ops?
A
- SG sample isolation vlvs
- RCP B/O isolations
- ADV’s
- HPSI injections
- SIAS/CIAS actuation
- etc.
23
Q
True or False the Rx manager must have an active SRO license
A
TRUE
24
Q
What notification is required for AOP/EOP entries?
A
- NRC Resident
25
What plant activities require a plant announcement?
- Brkr manips 4.16 & 13.8kv
- Starting large equipment
- Changing plant modes
26
Who determines equipment quarantine requirements?
- SM
27
What covers deviations from procedures and what is required to do so?
50. 54(x) procedure, 1 hour notification
72. 32(d) dry caks, 4 hour notification
- In an emergency
- Action IMMEDIATELY needed to protect public health and safety
28
What is required to maintain license?
- 5x 12 hour shifts in license position per quarter
- SRO's need 1 of those as supervisory watch
- Complete requal in 6 weeks of end of training cycle
29
How are CR discrepancies identified?
- Red sticker dot
30
What is required to jumper a CR alarm?
| How is that identified in the CR?
- Alarming for non-justifiable reason
- > 14 days
- Orange sticker dot
(Common unit alarms not jumpered)
31
When is a mode change checklist performed?
- Mode Changes
- Pressure ≥ 385 psia
- Pressure ≥ 1837 psia
- Closing RTCB's
- Power > 15%
- Power > 20%
- Irradiated Fuel moves
32
What is the time requirement for Mode Change Checklists?
- Change performed with 24 hours of STARTING checklist
33
Who can extend a Mode Change Checklist?
- STA and SM evaluate extensions
| - SM authorizes
34
What is required if HOURLY JSCALORH is > 100%
- Reduce power within 1 hour
| - Monitor 10 min average until ≤ 100%
35
What is required if 12 hour average is > 100%?
- IMMEDIATELY reduce power
| - CR
36
What is required if JSCALOR is not available?
- Use NKBDELTC
- Maintain power for 12 hours
- After 12 hours reduce to < 96.6%
37
How many set of rounds can be stored on the hand held?
- 500
| - who cares
38
Who logs medical restrictions for licensed operators?
- U1 SM
39
What is the SM/ CRS responsible for logging?
- LCO entry/ exit/ required actions
- Unexpected alarms when cause not known
- Chemistry action levels
- Anything with SSC's
- RMAL
- Injuries requiring off-site medical
- Mode changes
40
What is RO's responsible for logging?
- Power changes > 10%
- Equipment status changes
- Significant equipment malfunction
- T-mod install/ removal
- ECC directives
- SESS manual inputs
41
Who is the "Final Authority" on protected equipment?
- SM
42
Who can grant access to protected equipment during an emergency?
- CRS
43
How long do you have to post protected equipment?
- Short Duration - Not required
- Emergent - 4 hours
- Planned activity - Prior to removal of equipment
44
Who performs shutdown safety function assesment?
- STA
45
What are the Shutdown Safety Funcitons?
- Rx control
- MVA
- RCS/ SFP inventory and Heat removal
- RCS press control
- CHR
- CI/ CTPC
46
What is considered working "near" protected equipment
- <2 feet
47
Who reviews IST/ ST's of SAFETY RELATED pumps?
| How long do they have?
- SM/CRS
| - 96 hours from acceptance review completion
48
During an ST review what is the ACCEPTANCE REVIEWER checking?
- Technical and Administrative accuracy
- calculations
- Data in acceptance criteria
- log entries complete
- pre-conditioning
49
Who performs acceptance review of ST's?
- Someone qualified to do the ST
50
How long do you have to perform PARTIAL PERFORMANCE REVIEWS?
- Shiftly/ Daily/ Weekly ST - N/A
- Monthly ST - 3 days from start
- > Monthly ST - 7 days from start
51
What is the review process for ABORTED ST's
- Normal Review process
52
What is the required Oxygen concentration for confined spaces?
19.5 - 23.5%
53
What is the Lower flammability limit for confined spaces?
- < 10% LFL
54
Who is covered by fatigue management requirements at PVGS
- ANYONE performing covered work
- Operations
- Maintenance
- FTA
- Security
- RP/ Chemistry if ERO minimum
55
What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 24 hour period?
- 16 hours
56
What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 48 hour period?
- 26 hours
57
What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 7 day period?
- 72 hours
58
What is the minimum break period for a 9-day period?
- 34 hours in 9 days
59
What is the OPERATIONS OUTAGE work limits
- 3 days off in each 15 day period
60
What is required if a fatigue waiver is granted?
- Face-to-face assessment
| - within 4 hours
61
What conditions are required for a Clearance to not be required
- Isolations in workers line of sight
- Close enough workers can stop manipulation
- Minor servicing of equipment
62
Who can authorize deviation from Clearance Requirements?
| what is required to do so?
- EC
- During an emergency
- Prevent hazard to personnel
- Prevent hazard to equipment
- Prevent release off-site
63
What requires double valve isolation?
- 200°F
| - 500 psig
64
Who installs/ removes grounds for clearances?
- Electricians
65
How is a missing, unattached, or illegible tag resolved?
- CV
66
Can PVGS work be performed under an ECC clearance?
NO
67
Who authorizes resetting of tripped relays/ 86's
- SM/ CRS
68
When can an 86 on class bus be reset from the CR?
- Bus supplied from DG
| - Continued operation of load required
69
What initiates Contaminated Water Management?
- AOP
| - EOP
70
Who performs Contaminated Water Management
| How is that determined?
- Affected or unaffcted Unit SRO
| - Affected unit SM/CRS determines who does it
71
When would the responsibility of Contaminated Water Management be transferred and to who?
- TSC is activated
| - EC continues
72
What is performed to minimize Off-Site Release?
- Align sumps to LRS
- Iso. CD overboarding
- Start BAC
- Start all units Evaps
- Stop IX regens
73
How should the secondary plat be aligned during Contaminated Water Management?
- Long path recirc
| - used until < release limts
74
When is a TSCCR created?
- Equip/ component impacting LCO is inoperable
75
When would a TSCCR not be required?
- Equipment OOS short period of time (before turnover)
76
When would a CR be initiated with a TSCCR?
- Equip/ Comp. failure
- Human Error
- Unkown cause
77
Who can authorize the use of an "N/A" on a non-conditional step?
- Team Leader or above
| - That is CRS or above for people we care about
78
When would a TAPA be generated?
- Non-intent change to procedure
- Causes a stop in work
- Equipment failure
- Human performance error
- Clarification for AOP or ARP
79
When a TAPA is approved, how long does the procedure owner have for review and approval?
- 14 days
80
How long does a TAPA have to be incorporated or canceled?
- Non-equip. related - 30 days of authorization
| - Equipment related - end of next refueling outage
81
What sources can be used to verify procedure revision?
- SWMS
- eProc
- Controlled Library
82
In a procedure what does bulleted steps mean?
May be completed in any order
83
What is required for procedure deviations?
- Emergency conditions
- SM concurs
- Protects Health and Safety of the public
- Minimize personnel injury
- Minimize damage to plant equipment
- Returns plant to stable safe conditions
- Write CR
84
What condition would allow continued usage of a procedure that has an error?
- Error is administrative
| - Initiate PCR
85
What would be required to continue to use a procedure with an error?
- Administrative error
86
What is a Chemistry Control Instruction (CCI) for?
- Performance of actions for corrective/ preventative chemistry control
- Waive non-technical specification chemistry specifications
- Documenting OOS conditions
87
Who concurs/ approves CCI's?
- CRS/ SM
88
If CRS/ SM does NOT concur or cannot implement CCI, who do they inform?
- Unit Chemistry
89
Who can make changes to Non-Tech spec sampling frequencies and specifications?
- Chemistry Department Leader
90
Who can authorize lock removal and CV for verifications?
- CRS
91
Components can ONLY be performed with....?
Implementing Procedures:
- EOP
- AOP
- OP
- GOP
- ARP
- ST
92
What is the concern when using AOP/ EOP/ ARP's
| in regards to status control
- May not maintain status control
93
Who authorizes CML's
| component manipulation log
- WC CRS/ SM
| - CRS/ SM
94
What rad levels require valve position verification LOCALLY at the valve?
- vlv is outside high rad area
| - < 100 mR/hr
95
What is required if the peer checker will also be the IV'er?
- SM permission
| - CR written documenting
96
When would an IV be performed repeated operation of a component is performed?
- After final manipulation
| - Unless directed again procedurally
97
Can a component/ system be declared operable BEFORE or AFTER IV's are complete?
- After
98
What is required to use alternative verification methods?
- SM authorize
| - Documented in CR or unit log
99
What is the duty cycle for an AC MOV?
- 15 minutes/ hour
100
What is the duty cycle of a DC MOV?
- 5 minutes/ hour
101
How can you ensure an MOV is fully closed?
- Locally observe motor stops
- Hold closed for 120% of stroke time
- Hold closed 5 seconds with closed indication
102
Who must be notified if manually seating an MOV?
- Component Program Engineering
103
How is a manually seated MOV identified?
- EST hung on HS
104
How is an MOV returned to service after it has been manually seated?
- Manually unseat
- Stroke 2x
- Locally monitor MOV
105
When can you electrically unseat a manually seated MOV?
ALL of the following:
- Non-safety related vlv
- Back seated
- Inaccessible due to safety or ALARA
- Engineering concurs
106
What does Risk Assessment consider a "Heavy Load"?
- ≥ 2000 pounds
107
What is considered a High Risk Evolution?
- Reduced inventory/ Mid-loop with fuel in Vessel
- Degraded grid
- Severe Weather
- Switchyard Bus Outage
Maintenance where single failure could result in RCS/ Fuel pool inventory loss:
- Freeze seal on RCS or interface system
- Leaking/ Failed SG nozzle dam
- RCP on stop seal with Head on
- > 10 gpm leak through stop seal
108
What are the different lowered RCS levels?
| PLRM?
- < 117' Partial Drain
- < 114' Reduced Inventory
- < 103' 1" Midloop
- 101' 6" bottom of midloop
109
What is "Risk" measuring?
Increased likelihood of:
- Core Damage
- Large Early Release
110
Who's approval is required if Yellow risk >168 hours in a week?
- Site General Manager
111
Who authorizes entering Orange risk?
- Site General Manager
112
What is the maximum time allowed to be in Orange risk?
- 72 hours per week
113
Who ensures results of condition risk assessments are documented in the Unit log?
- SM
114
Who approves protected equipment schemes AND work performed on/ near protected equipment?
- SM
115
Who maintains the risk profile from T-2 to T-0?
- WCSRO
116
What is the most likely Initiating event resulting in core melt?
- Fires
| - 65% of events
117
What is the most important system impacting risk?
- AFW
118
When is a system/ component considered "Available"
- Administratively inoperable
- Norm/ STBY lineup
- Able to perform intended function
- Test/ maint. configuration AUTOMATICALLY over-ridden by start signal
- Dedicated operator to restore
119
What are the 10 CFR 50.59 Review steps?
| What is its purpose?
ASE:
- Applicability Determination: is Screening required?
- Screening: is Evaluation required?
- Evaluation: Is NRC prior approval required?
Determine if NRC approval required prior to changes to plant or procedures or conduct tests
120
When would 50.59 (Review process) NOT apply?
- Other regulations establish more specific criteria (already covered by CFR's)
121
What is the PTBM area?
- 400 feet of outside perimeter of Spray Ponds
122
What are the limits for PTBM?
- > 5 pounds
- < 4000 punds
- > 3 feet
123
What is the most restrictive HOUSEKEEPING zone?
| What zone prohibits eating?
- Zone IV
124
Who controls access to the 525kv yard?
- U1 SM
125
Can Operations perform switching under direction of TGO via ECC?
- Emergency switching ONLY
126
What is the normal TOTAL site loading for PVGS?
- 3920 MW
127
What is required if only 2 transmission lines are in service to our switchyard?
- U1 SM contact ECC
| - direct at least 2 lines remain in service
128
When is the ECC ring-down phone used?
- Emergency calls
| - within 1 hour of trips
129
When and who contacts the ECC to give details of a unit trip?
- Affected Unit SM
| - as soon as IMMEDIATE emergency subsides
130
What are TCC (Temporary Configuration Change) Exceptions?
- Under clearance and isolated from other systems
- Maintenance under WO
- Connecting portable tools
- Degraded stuff tracked with CAP
- Temp. equipment for filling/venting/draining
131
Who approves installation and removal of T-mods?
- SM
132
Who can approve install and removal of procedural T-mods?
- CRS
| - SM
133
What is required for a T-mod exception? (dont have to track it)
- Monitoring devices at designated test points
- Covered by single WO or Ops procedure in a single shift
- Voltmeters or similar NOT permanently attached AND constantly monitored
134
What qualification is required for a T-mod work order approval?
- Active Shift Manager
135
How often is a T-mod justification review required to be performed?
- Semi-annual
136
Whos approval is required to have a T-mod installed for greater than a cycle?
- Engineering VP
137
Who performs T-mod status tracking?
| How is it tracked?
STA
- Logged in T-mod book/ excel sheet
- T-mod tag installed
- Unit log entry
138
Who authorizes CNTMT entries modes 1-4?
- SM
| - CRS
139
How long is a CNTMT entry good for Modes 1-4?
- 24 hours
140
When is a CNTMT purge required?
- H2 ≥ 0.15%
- Purge minimum 12 hours AND < 0.04%
2 O2 samples < 19.5%
141
How is the NRC normally notified of events?
- ENS
| - Verbally and form
142
Who is responsible for 4 hour or less NRC notifications?
- SM
143
How long do we have to notify NRC of Safeguard Events involving license material?
- Immediately (<1 hour)
| - Follow up with written report 30 days
144
What is the operating Licensed Thermal Limit?
- 102%
145
What are the 1 hour NRC notifications?
- 50.54(x) used
- E-plan classifications
- Tech Specs Safety limits exceeded
- Cyber attack of safety related epuip/ capability
- Security threat
- Exceeding ODCM limit (also requires 30 day report)
146
What are the 4 Hour NRC notification?
- ECCS discharge into RCS with valid start signal
- Tech Spec required shutdown
- Actuation of RPS while critical
- Event resulting in News Release
- Cyber Attack maybe impacts?
147
What are the 8 Hour NRC notifications?
- Principal safety barriers seriously degraded
- Unanalyzed condition Significantly degrades plant safety
- Valid actuation of: RPS, SIAS, CIAS, MSIS, CSAS, ECCS. AFW, EDGs, CTNTMT heat removal/ depressurization
- Something could have prevented the fulfillment of the safety function
- Transport of contaminated person to offsite medical
- Major loss of: EALs, offsite response capability, offsite communication
148
Who is the interface between Ops and Engineering for operability evaluation?
- STA
149
What is a Functional Assessment for?
- attribute of SSC not covered by tech specs
- Functional when capable of performing function
TRM
ODCM
DAFAS, SPS, SBOG
Maint. Rule equipment
150
How is an IOD (immediate Operability Determination performed?
- On shift personnel
| - Best info available
151
How long do you have to perform a POD (Prompt Operability Determination)?
- 24 Hours OR 75% of allowed LCO time
152
Who can authorize an extension for a POD (prompt operability determination)
- SM
153
What is a "Degraded Condition"
- SSCs functional capability is reduced
154
What is a "Nonconforming Condition"
- SSC fails to meet all aspects of licensing basis
155
Who performs, reviews, and approves IOD/FAs?
- SM
| - CRS
156
Who is responsible for approving Controlled Barrier permits?
- WCSRO
157
What is required to NOT have a permit for a controlled barrier?
- out of configuration for ≤ 1 hour
- Continuously manned
- Person familiar with function of barrier
- Capable of being restored
- PreReqs and Comp actions satisfied
158
What is the concern with Controlled Barriers in the Aux Bldg below the 100'
- Makes PREACS inoperable
| - Both trains of PREACS inop 3.0.3
159
What comp measures are required to open a controlled barrier in the Aux Bldg below the 100'?
- Dedicated operator
- Constant coms with CR
- Able to restore in 10 Minutes of a SIAS signal
160
What compensatory actions are required to prop open CR doors?
Modes 1-4
- Dedicated Operator
- Direct coms with CR
- SCBAs available
- KI available
- Secure activities that could contribute to unfiltered air in leakage to CR
161
How do we communicate ODMIs to the crews?
- Standing Orders
162
Who is the Final approval for ODM Action Plans?
- Plant Manager or designee
163
Who determines if an issue has risen to the level of ODMI?
- SM
164
Who approves ODMI
- Unit Ops Manager
165
Who approves Effluent Release Permits?
- CRS
| - SM
166
What is an "Abnormal Release"
- Unplanned/ uncontrolled release from site boundary thats not monitored
167
Who do we have to notify of an Abnormal Release?
- RP
168
Who can authorize esceeding ODCM limits?
| When can it be done?
- CRS/SM
| - Abnormal conditions (Emergencies)
169
What is required if ODCM limits are exceeded?
- 1 hour NRC notification
| - 30 day follow up report with corrective actions
170
How long is a Continuous release permit good for?
31 days
171
How long is a WGDT release permit good for?
24 hours
172
What is the maximum time limit for release permits?
31 days
173
How long is a Power Access Purge release permit good for?
7 days
174
How long is a BAC release permit good for?
7 Days
175
How long is a CTMTN vent release permit good for?
24 Hours
176
What is required if the GR Effluent flow monitors are non-functional?
- Estimate flow
| - Every 4 hours
177
What is required to release a WGDT with the RU OOS?
2 Independent:
- samples analysis
- release rate calcs
- Vlv line ups
178
What is required if RU-134/ 145 Plant vent/ Fuel Bldg Vent are OOS
- 12 Hour grab samples
OR
- 12 Hour local readings
179
What is the basis for RU alarm/ trip setpoints?
- alarm/ trip occur prior to exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits
180
Who approves Hot-work WOs?
- WCSRO
| - CRS
181
Who approves hot work permits?
- CRS
| - CRS designee
182
Who notifies Fire Department of reported or known issues with fire protection
- CRS
| - SM
183
Who reviews T-Mod WOs?
- Active SM
184
Who approves T-Mod removal WOs?
- Active SM
185
Who reviews and approves work during Reduced Inventory or Mid-loop?
- Mid-Loop Coordinator (MLOC)
AND
- SM
186
Who is the final authorization for Work-at-risk activities?
- SM
187
How is a "No Touch Day" implemented?
- ECC declares
- ECC notifies U1 CRS
- U1 CRS notifies all unit SMs and WWM
- Consider limiting ≤ 72 hour LCO activities
- Consider restoring equipment under maintenance
- Consider stopping maintenance
188
What are the annual dose limits?
- 5 Rem TEDE
- 15 Rem lens of the eye
- 50 Rem skin/ extremities
189
What are the rad levels for different postings
- RA - 5 mr/hr
- HRA - 100 mr/hr
- LHRA - 1000 mr/hr
- VHRA - 500 Rads in 1 hour at 1 meter
190
What are the PVGS dose limits?
- < 2 Rem TEDE annually
- < 10 Rem TEDE in 5 years
- < 1.5 Rem/ year admin hold point
191
What are the different contamination levels for different CA postings?
- CA - > 1,000 dpm
| - HCA - > 100,000 dpm
192
What are the limitations for using a frisker?
- Background < 300 cpm
- 2" per second
- 1/4 - 1/2" above surface
Notify RP if ≥ 100 cpm above background
