Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Public 2022 > Highlighted Admin > Flashcards

Highlighted Admin Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for the ISFSI?

A
  • Unit 1 SM

- Unit SM while dry cask in in transport (not set on pad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is minimum shift manning for a unit?

A
  • 1 SM
  • 1 CRS
  • 2 RO’s
  • 1 FTA for site
  • 4 AO’s
  • 1 RW for site
  • 1 SBOG for site
  • 1 outside area
  • 3 STA or 2 STA and 1 ENS communicator
  • 1 ENS communicator
  • 2 STSC communicator for site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many RO’s and AO’s are required to be within the unit at all times?

A
  • 2 RO’s

- 3 AO’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long can a required manning position be vacant?

A
  • Any position except SM
  • < 2 hrs
  • Unplanned incident (can’t be vacant just to go home)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does MCR staffing requirements change in Mode 5-6?

A
  • CRS normally has command function

- May be qualified SRO or RO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do night orders provide?

A
  • Info to ops in timely manner
  • Temporary
  • Shorter term than standing orders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do Standing orders provide?

A
  • Info for longer term issues
  • OD contingency plans
  • ODMI Action plans
  • Directives from Ops Manager
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are alarms communicated?

A
  • Directly to CRS

- Promptly identify cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which alarms CANNOT be left in fast flash?

A
  • CEA position out of limits
  • Possible inadvertent boron dilution
  • CNTMT Sump excess leakage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When and how do you transition back to normal alarm response from transient alarm response?

A
  • CRS directs

- Plant is stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is an alarm considered “expected”

A

ONLY if prebriefed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What actions are required if an alarm occurs do to an activity, but was not briefed?

A
  • considered unexpected alarm
  • ARP to validate no further actions
  • ARP used at CRS discretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which alarms are NOT to be left in fast flash

A
  • CEA out out-of-limits (PDIL)
  • Possible Boron Dilution (BDAS)
  • CTMT Sump excess leakage (RCS leak detection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do you transition from transient alarms back to normal?

A
  • CRS directs

- plant is stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When would you manually input a SESS?

A
  • Disabled/ unable to perform function and NOT alarmed

- Impairment > 1 shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where do you document manual SESS inputs?

A

Unit Log

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Does manually actuating a Rx trip or ESFAS actuation that did not auto occur required CRS concurrence?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How often are critical parameters monitored?

A
  • Every 5 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who CANNOT provide peer checks?

A
  • SM
  • CRS
  • Rx manager
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are peer checks managed for AOP/EOP’s?

A
  • Preferred

- NOT required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is required to have Peer Checker also act as IV’er?

A
  • SM permission

- CR documenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some examples of 2-Handed ops?

A
  • SG sample isolation vlvs
  • RCP B/O isolations
  • ADV’s
  • HPSI injections
  • SIAS/CIAS actuation
  • etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False the Rx manager must have an active SRO license

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What notification is required for AOP/EOP entries?

A
  • NRC Resident
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What plant activities require a plant announcement?

A
  • Brkr manips 4.16 & 13.8kv
  • Starting large equipment
  • Changing plant modes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who determines equipment quarantine requirements?

A
  • SM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What covers deviations from procedures and what is required to do so?

A
  1. 54(x) procedure, 1 hour notification
  2. 32(d) dry caks, 4 hour notification
  • In an emergency
  • Action IMMEDIATELY needed to protect public health and safety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is required to maintain license?

A
  • 5x 12 hour shifts in license position per quarter
  • SRO’s need 1 of those as supervisory watch
  • Complete requal in 6 weeks of end of training cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How are CR discrepancies identified?

A
  • Red sticker dot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is required to jumper a CR alarm?

How is that identified in the CR?

A
  • Alarming for non-justifiable reason
  • > 14 days
  • Orange sticker dot

(Common unit alarms not jumpered)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is a mode change checklist performed?

A
  • Mode Changes
  • Pressure ≥ 385 psia
  • Pressure ≥ 1837 psia
  • Closing RTCB’s
  • Power > 15%
  • Power > 20%
  • Irradiated Fuel moves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the time requirement for Mode Change Checklists?

A
  • Change performed with 24 hours of STARTING checklist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who can extend a Mode Change Checklist?

A
  • STA and SM evaluate extensions

- SM authorizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is required if HOURLY JSCALORH is > 100%

A
  • Reduce power within 1 hour

- Monitor 10 min average until ≤ 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is required if 12 hour average is > 100%?

A
  • IMMEDIATELY reduce power

- CR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is required if JSCALOR is not available?

A
  • Use NKBDELTC
  • Maintain power for 12 hours
  • After 12 hours reduce to < 96.6%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many set of rounds can be stored on the hand held?

A
  • 500

- who cares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who logs medical restrictions for licensed operators?

A
  • U1 SM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the SM/ CRS responsible for logging?

A
  • LCO entry/ exit/ required actions
  • Unexpected alarms when cause not known
  • Chemistry action levels
  • Anything with SSC’s
  • RMAL
  • Injuries requiring off-site medical
  • Mode changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is RO’s responsible for logging?

A
  • Power changes > 10%
  • Equipment status changes
  • Significant equipment malfunction
  • T-mod install/ removal
  • ECC directives
  • SESS manual inputs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who is the “Final Authority” on protected equipment?

A
  • SM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who can grant access to protected equipment during an emergency?

A
  • CRS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How long do you have to post protected equipment?

A
  • Short Duration - Not required
  • Emergent - 4 hours
  • Planned activity - Prior to removal of equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Who performs shutdown safety function assesment?

A
  • STA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the Shutdown Safety Funcitons?

A
  • Rx control
  • MVA
  • RCS/ SFP inventory and Heat removal
  • RCS press control
  • CHR
  • CI/ CTPC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is considered working “near” protected equipment

A
  • <2 feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Who reviews IST/ ST’s of SAFETY RELATED pumps?

How long do they have?

A
  • SM/CRS

- 96 hours from acceptance review completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

During an ST review what is the ACCEPTANCE REVIEWER checking?

A
  • Technical and Administrative accuracy
  • calculations
  • Data in acceptance criteria
  • log entries complete
  • pre-conditioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who performs acceptance review of ST’s?

A
  • Someone qualified to do the ST
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How long do you have to perform PARTIAL PERFORMANCE REVIEWS?

A
  • Shiftly/ Daily/ Weekly ST - N/A
  • Monthly ST - 3 days from start
  • > Monthly ST - 7 days from start
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the review process for ABORTED ST’s

A
  • Normal Review process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the required Oxygen concentration for confined spaces?

A

19.5 - 23.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the Lower flammability limit for confined spaces?

A
  • < 10% LFL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Who is covered by fatigue management requirements at PVGS

A
  • ANYONE performing covered work
  • Operations
  • Maintenance
  • FTA
  • Security
  • RP/ Chemistry if ERO minimum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 24 hour period?

A
  • 16 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 48 hour period?

A
  • 26 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 7 day period?

A
  • 72 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the minimum break period for a 9-day period?

A
  • 34 hours in 9 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the OPERATIONS OUTAGE work limits

A
  • 3 days off in each 15 day period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is required if a fatigue waiver is granted?

A
  • Face-to-face assessment

- within 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What conditions are required for a Clearance to not be required

A
  • Isolations in workers line of sight
  • Close enough workers can stop manipulation
  • Minor servicing of equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Who can authorize deviation from Clearance Requirements?

what is required to do so?

A
  • EC
  • During an emergency
  • Prevent hazard to personnel
  • Prevent hazard to equipment
  • Prevent release off-site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What requires double valve isolation?

A
  • 200°F

- 500 psig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Who installs/ removes grounds for clearances?

A
  • Electricians
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is a missing, unattached, or illegible tag resolved?

A
  • CV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Can PVGS work be performed under an ECC clearance?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Who authorizes resetting of tripped relays/ 86’s

A
  • SM/ CRS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When can an 86 on class bus be reset from the CR?

A
  • Bus supplied from DG

- Continued operation of load required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What initiates Contaminated Water Management?

A
  • AOP

- EOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Who performs Contaminated Water Management

How is that determined?

A
  • Affected or unaffcted Unit SRO

- Affected unit SM/CRS determines who does it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When would the responsibility of Contaminated Water Management be transferred and to who?

A
  • TSC is activated

- EC continues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is performed to minimize Off-Site Release?

A
  • Align sumps to LRS
  • Iso. CD overboarding
  • Start BAC
  • Start all units Evaps
  • Stop IX regens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How should the secondary plat be aligned during Contaminated Water Management?

A
  • Long path recirc

- used until < release limts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When is a TSCCR created?

A
  • Equip/ component impacting LCO is inoperable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When would a TSCCR not be required?

A
  • Equipment OOS short period of time (before turnover)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When would a CR be initiated with a TSCCR?

A
  • Equip/ Comp. failure
  • Human Error
  • Unkown cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Who can authorize the use of an “N/A” on a non-conditional step?

A
  • Team Leader or above

- That is CRS or above for people we care about

78
Q

When would a TAPA be generated?

A
  • Non-intent change to procedure
  • Causes a stop in work
  • Equipment failure
  • Human performance error
  • Clarification for AOP or ARP
79
Q

When a TAPA is approved, how long does the procedure owner have for review and approval?

A
  • 14 days
80
Q

How long does a TAPA have to be incorporated or canceled?

A
  • Non-equip. related - 30 days of authorization

- Equipment related - end of next refueling outage

81
Q

What sources can be used to verify procedure revision?

A
  • SWMS
  • eProc
  • Controlled Library
82
Q

In a procedure what does bulleted steps mean?

A

May be completed in any order

83
Q

What is required for procedure deviations?

A
  • Emergency conditions
  • SM concurs
  • Protects Health and Safety of the public
  • Minimize personnel injury
  • Minimize damage to plant equipment
  • Returns plant to stable safe conditions
  • Write CR
84
Q

What condition would allow continued usage of a procedure that has an error?

A
  • Error is administrative

- Initiate PCR

85
Q

What would be required to continue to use a procedure with an error?

A
  • Administrative error
86
Q

What is a Chemistry Control Instruction (CCI) for?

A
  • Performance of actions for corrective/ preventative chemistry control
  • Waive non-technical specification chemistry specifications
  • Documenting OOS conditions
87
Q

Who concurs/ approves CCI’s?

A
  • CRS/ SM
88
Q

If CRS/ SM does NOT concur or cannot implement CCI, who do they inform?

A
  • Unit Chemistry
89
Q

Who can make changes to Non-Tech spec sampling frequencies and specifications?

A
  • Chemistry Department Leader
90
Q

Who can authorize lock removal and CV for verifications?

A
  • CRS
91
Q

Components can ONLY be performed with….?

A

Implementing Procedures:

  • EOP
  • AOP
  • OP
  • GOP
  • ARP
  • ST
92
Q

What is the concern when using AOP/ EOP/ ARP’s

in regards to status control

A
  • May not maintain status control
93
Q

Who authorizes CML’s

component manipulation log

A
  • WC CRS/ SM

- CRS/ SM

94
Q

What rad levels require valve position verification LOCALLY at the valve?

A
  • vlv is outside high rad area

- < 100 mR/hr

95
Q

What is required if the peer checker will also be the IV’er?

A
  • SM permission

- CR written documenting

96
Q

When would an IV be performed repeated operation of a component is performed?

A
  • After final manipulation

- Unless directed again procedurally

97
Q

Can a component/ system be declared operable BEFORE or AFTER IV’s are complete?

A
  • After
98
Q

What is required to use alternative verification methods?

A
  • SM authorize

- Documented in CR or unit log

99
Q

What is the duty cycle for an AC MOV?

A
  • 15 minutes/ hour
100
Q

What is the duty cycle of a DC MOV?

A
  • 5 minutes/ hour
101
Q

How can you ensure an MOV is fully closed?

A
  • Locally observe motor stops
  • Hold closed for 120% of stroke time
  • Hold closed 5 seconds with closed indication
102
Q

Who must be notified if manually seating an MOV?

A
  • Component Program Engineering
103
Q

How is a manually seated MOV identified?

A
  • EST hung on HS
104
Q

How is an MOV returned to service after it has been manually seated?

A
  • Manually unseat
  • Stroke 2x
  • Locally monitor MOV
105
Q

When can you electrically unseat a manually seated MOV?

A

ALL of the following:

  • Non-safety related vlv
  • Back seated
  • Inaccessible due to safety or ALARA
  • Engineering concurs
106
Q

What does Risk Assessment consider a “Heavy Load”?

A
  • ≥ 2000 pounds
107
Q

What is considered a High Risk Evolution?

A
  • Reduced inventory/ Mid-loop with fuel in Vessel
  • Degraded grid
  • Severe Weather
  • Switchyard Bus Outage

Maintenance where single failure could result in RCS/ Fuel pool inventory loss:

  • Freeze seal on RCS or interface system
  • Leaking/ Failed SG nozzle dam
  • RCP on stop seal with Head on
  • > 10 gpm leak through stop seal
108
Q

What are the different lowered RCS levels?

PLRM?

A
  • < 117’ Partial Drain
  • < 114’ Reduced Inventory
  • < 103’ 1” Midloop
  • 101’ 6” bottom of midloop
109
Q

What is “Risk” measuring?

A

Increased likelihood of:

  • Core Damage
  • Large Early Release
110
Q

Who’s approval is required if Yellow risk >168 hours in a week?

A
  • Site General Manager
111
Q

Who authorizes entering Orange risk?

A
  • Site General Manager
112
Q

What is the maximum time allowed to be in Orange risk?

A
  • 72 hours per week
113
Q

Who ensures results of condition risk assessments are documented in the Unit log?

A
  • SM
114
Q

Who approves protected equipment schemes AND work performed on/ near protected equipment?

A
  • SM
115
Q

Who maintains the risk profile from T-2 to T-0?

A
  • WCSRO
116
Q

What is the most likely Initiating event resulting in core melt?

A
  • Fires

- 65% of events

117
Q

What is the most important system impacting risk?

A
  • AFW
118
Q

When is a system/ component considered “Available”

A
  • Administratively inoperable
  • Norm/ STBY lineup
  • Able to perform intended function
  • Test/ maint. configuration AUTOMATICALLY over-ridden by start signal
  • Dedicated operator to restore
119
Q

What are the 10 CFR 50.59 Review steps?

What is its purpose?

A

ASE:

  • Applicability Determination: is Screening required?
  • Screening: is Evaluation required?
  • Evaluation: Is NRC prior approval required?

Determine if NRC approval required prior to changes to plant or procedures or conduct tests

120
Q

When would 50.59 (Review process) NOT apply?

A
  • Other regulations establish more specific criteria (already covered by CFR’s)
121
Q

What is the PTBM area?

A
  • 400 feet of outside perimeter of Spray Ponds
122
Q

What are the limits for PTBM?

A
  • > 5 pounds
  • < 4000 punds
  • > 3 feet
123
Q

What is the most restrictive HOUSEKEEPING zone?

What zone prohibits eating?

A
  • Zone IV
124
Q

Who controls access to the 525kv yard?

A
  • U1 SM
125
Q

Can Operations perform switching under direction of TGO via ECC?

A
  • Emergency switching ONLY
126
Q

What is the normal TOTAL site loading for PVGS?

A
  • 3920 MW
127
Q

What is required if only 2 transmission lines are in service to our switchyard?

A
  • U1 SM contact ECC

- direct at least 2 lines remain in service

128
Q

When is the ECC ring-down phone used?

A
  • Emergency calls

- within 1 hour of trips

129
Q

When and who contacts the ECC to give details of a unit trip?

A
  • Affected Unit SM

- as soon as IMMEDIATE emergency subsides

130
Q

What are TCC (Temporary Configuration Change) Exceptions?

A
  • Under clearance and isolated from other systems
  • Maintenance under WO
  • Connecting portable tools
  • Degraded stuff tracked with CAP
  • Temp. equipment for filling/venting/draining
131
Q

Who approves installation and removal of T-mods?

A
  • SM
132
Q

Who can approve install and removal of procedural T-mods?

A
  • CRS

- SM

133
Q

What is required for a T-mod exception? (dont have to track it)

A
  • Monitoring devices at designated test points
  • Covered by single WO or Ops procedure in a single shift
  • Voltmeters or similar NOT permanently attached AND constantly monitored
134
Q

What qualification is required for a T-mod work order approval?

A
  • Active Shift Manager
135
Q

How often is a T-mod justification review required to be performed?

A
  • Semi-annual
136
Q

Whos approval is required to have a T-mod installed for greater than a cycle?

A
  • Engineering VP
137
Q

Who performs T-mod status tracking?

How is it tracked?

A

STA

  • Logged in T-mod book/ excel sheet
  • T-mod tag installed
  • Unit log entry
138
Q

Who authorizes CNTMT entries modes 1-4?

A
  • SM

- CRS

139
Q

How long is a CNTMT entry good for Modes 1-4?

A
  • 24 hours
140
Q

When is a CNTMT purge required?

A
  • H2 ≥ 0.15%
  • Purge minimum 12 hours AND < 0.04%

2 O2 samples < 19.5%

141
Q

How is the NRC normally notified of events?

A
  • ENS

- Verbally and form

142
Q

Who is responsible for 4 hour or less NRC notifications?

A
  • SM
143
Q

How long do we have to notify NRC of Safeguard Events involving license material?

A
  • Immediately (<1 hour)

- Follow up with written report 30 days

144
Q

What is the operating Licensed Thermal Limit?

A
  • 102%
145
Q

What are the 1 hour NRC notifications?

A
  • 50.54(x) used
  • E-plan classifications
  • Tech Specs Safety limits exceeded
  • Cyber attack of safety related epuip/ capability
  • Security threat
  • Exceeding ODCM limit (also requires 30 day report)
146
Q

What are the 4 Hour NRC notification?

A
  • ECCS discharge into RCS with valid start signal
  • Tech Spec required shutdown
  • Actuation of RPS while critical
  • Event resulting in News Release
  • Cyber Attack maybe impacts?
147
Q

What are the 8 Hour NRC notifications?

A
  • Principal safety barriers seriously degraded
  • Unanalyzed condition Significantly degrades plant safety
  • Valid actuation of: RPS, SIAS, CIAS, MSIS, CSAS, ECCS. AFW, EDGs, CTNTMT heat removal/ depressurization
  • Something could have prevented the fulfillment of the safety function
  • Transport of contaminated person to offsite medical
  • Major loss of: EALs, offsite response capability, offsite communication
148
Q

Who is the interface between Ops and Engineering for operability evaluation?

A
  • STA
149
Q

What is a Functional Assessment for?

A
  • attribute of SSC not covered by tech specs
  • Functional when capable of performing function

TRM
ODCM
DAFAS, SPS, SBOG
Maint. Rule equipment

150
Q

How is an IOD (immediate Operability Determination performed?

A
  • On shift personnel

- Best info available

151
Q

How long do you have to perform a POD (Prompt Operability Determination)?

A
  • 24 Hours OR 75% of allowed LCO time
152
Q

Who can authorize an extension for a POD (prompt operability determination)

A
  • SM
153
Q

What is a “Degraded Condition”

A
  • SSCs functional capability is reduced
154
Q

What is a “Nonconforming Condition”

A
  • SSC fails to meet all aspects of licensing basis
155
Q

Who performs, reviews, and approves IOD/FAs?

A
  • SM

- CRS

156
Q

Who is responsible for approving Controlled Barrier permits?

A
  • WCSRO
157
Q

What is required to NOT have a permit for a controlled barrier?

A
  • out of configuration for ≤ 1 hour
  • Continuously manned
  • Person familiar with function of barrier
  • Capable of being restored
  • PreReqs and Comp actions satisfied
158
Q

What is the concern with Controlled Barriers in the Aux Bldg below the 100’

A
  • Makes PREACS inoperable

- Both trains of PREACS inop 3.0.3

159
Q

What comp measures are required to open a controlled barrier in the Aux Bldg below the 100’?

A
  • Dedicated operator
  • Constant coms with CR
  • Able to restore in 10 Minutes of a SIAS signal
160
Q

What compensatory actions are required to prop open CR doors?
Modes 1-4

A
  • Dedicated Operator
  • Direct coms with CR
  • SCBAs available
  • KI available
  • Secure activities that could contribute to unfiltered air in leakage to CR
161
Q

How do we communicate ODMIs to the crews?

A
  • Standing Orders
162
Q

Who is the Final approval for ODM Action Plans?

A
  • Plant Manager or designee
163
Q

Who determines if an issue has risen to the level of ODMI?

A
  • SM
164
Q

Who approves ODMI

A
  • Unit Ops Manager
165
Q

Who approves Effluent Release Permits?

A
  • CRS

- SM

166
Q

What is an “Abnormal Release”

A
  • Unplanned/ uncontrolled release from site boundary thats not monitored
167
Q

Who do we have to notify of an Abnormal Release?

A
  • RP
168
Q

Who can authorize esceeding ODCM limits?

When can it be done?

A
  • CRS/SM

- Abnormal conditions (Emergencies)

169
Q

What is required if ODCM limits are exceeded?

A
  • 1 hour NRC notification

- 30 day follow up report with corrective actions

170
Q

How long is a Continuous release permit good for?

A

31 days

171
Q

How long is a WGDT release permit good for?

A

24 hours

172
Q

What is the maximum time limit for release permits?

A

31 days

173
Q

How long is a Power Access Purge release permit good for?

A

7 days

174
Q

How long is a BAC release permit good for?

A

7 Days

175
Q

How long is a CTMTN vent release permit good for?

A

24 Hours

176
Q

What is required if the GR Effluent flow monitors are non-functional?

A
  • Estimate flow

- Every 4 hours

177
Q

What is required to release a WGDT with the RU OOS?

A

2 Independent:

  • samples analysis
  • release rate calcs
  • Vlv line ups
178
Q

What is required if RU-134/ 145 Plant vent/ Fuel Bldg Vent are OOS

A
  • 12 Hour grab samples
    OR
  • 12 Hour local readings
179
Q

What is the basis for RU alarm/ trip setpoints?

A
  • alarm/ trip occur prior to exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits
180
Q

Who approves Hot-work WOs?

A
  • WCSRO

- CRS

181
Q

Who approves hot work permits?

A
  • CRS

- CRS designee

182
Q

Who notifies Fire Department of reported or known issues with fire protection

A
  • CRS

- SM

183
Q

Who reviews T-Mod WOs?

A
  • Active SM
184
Q

Who approves T-Mod removal WOs?

A
  • Active SM
185
Q

Who reviews and approves work during Reduced Inventory or Mid-loop?

A
  • Mid-Loop Coordinator (MLOC)
    AND
  • SM
186
Q

Who is the final authorization for Work-at-risk activities?

A
  • SM
187
Q

How is a “No Touch Day” implemented?

A
  • ECC declares
  • ECC notifies U1 CRS
  • U1 CRS notifies all unit SMs and WWM
  • Consider limiting ≤ 72 hour LCO activities
  • Consider restoring equipment under maintenance
  • Consider stopping maintenance
188
Q

What are the annual dose limits?

A
  • 5 Rem TEDE
  • 15 Rem lens of the eye
  • 50 Rem skin/ extremities
189
Q

What are the rad levels for different postings

A
  • RA - 5 mr/hr
  • HRA - 100 mr/hr
  • LHRA - 1000 mr/hr
  • VHRA - 500 Rads in 1 hour at 1 meter
190
Q

What are the PVGS dose limits?

A
  • < 2 Rem TEDE annually
  • < 10 Rem TEDE in 5 years
  • < 1.5 Rem/ year admin hold point
191
Q

What are the different contamination levels for different CA postings?

A
  • CA - > 1,000 dpm

- HCA - > 100,000 dpm

192
Q

What are the limitations for using a frisker?

A
  • Background < 300 cpm
  • 2” per second
  • 1/4 - 1/2” above surface

Notify RP if ≥ 100 cpm above background

Public 2022 (46 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions