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Step 1 > 4/3 - UW 42 > Flashcards

4/3 - UW 42 Flashcards

1
Q

What is congenital torticolis?

A

SCM injury and fibrosis by 2-4 weeks of age, due to either in utero malpositioning (from macrosomia or oligohydramnios) or birth trauma

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2
Q

What maternal pathology can cause asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction (normal head size, reduced abd circ)?

A

Maternal HTN

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3
Q

What molecules act by tyrosine kinase activating receptors?

A 
Insulin
Growth factors (EGF, TGF-b, VEGF)
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4
Q

What is the host defense reaction against mycobacteria?

A

Mycobacteria are intra-macrophage; Macrophages release IL-12, stimulating Th1 and NK cells to release IFN-y, which activates JAK-STAT in the macrophage

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5
Q

What mediates chronic renal allograft rejection?

A

Low grade cellular and humoral immune responses against alloantigens

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6
Q

Poor intestinal absorption of cystine suggests what other pathology?

A

Cystine excretion in feces and urine (along with ornithine, lysine, and arginine; all dibasic AAs).

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7
Q

What AA insolubility causes kidney stones?

A

Cystine

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8
Q

Which catecholamine is primarily produced in the adrenals?

A

Epinephrine

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9
Q

What is another name for dihydroxyphenylalanine?

A

Dopa, produced by tyrosine hydroxylase

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10
Q

What enzyme converts dopa to dopamine?

A

Dopa decarboxylase

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11
Q

What enzyme converts dopamine to NE?

A

dopamine beta-hydroxylase

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12
Q

What enzyme converts NE to epinephrine?

A

PNMT

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13
Q

What hormone increases PNMT expression?

A

Cortisol (which is very high in the venous drainage of adrenal cortex, which travels through adrenal medulla to stimulate Epi synthesis)

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14
Q

What disease is the result of valine substituting for glutamic acid?

A

Sickle cell, at 6th codon of beta globulin

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15
Q

What disease is the result of a phenylalanine deletion (deltaF508)?

A

CF

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16
Q

What mediates phase 4 in cardiac pacemaker cells?

A

Na channels, but then Ca channels towards the end, which is how CCB can slow heart rate

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17
Q

What intracellular and extracellular K levels are seen in DKA?

A

Intracellular: decreased
Extracellular: increased

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18
Q

How does insulin affect K movement?

A

Insulin causes cellular uptake of K

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19
Q

How does estrogen affect thyroid hormone levels?

A

Increases in total T4, with normal thyroid function

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20
Q

Why does total T4 increase with estrogen?

A

Estrogen decreases catabolism of TBG

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21
Q

What therapy would reduce recurrence of genital herpes?

A

Daily oral “-cyclovir”

22
Q

What do you give lamivudine for?

A

HIV, NRTI

23
Q

What are probenecid and allopurinol used for?

A

CHRONIC FUCKING GOUT YOU MOTHERFUCKER

24
Q

What you do you give for ACUTE gout???

A

NSAIDs or COLCHICINE

25
Q

Colchincine MOA?

A

Binds intracellular protein tubulin, preventing polymerization into microtubules, impairing leukocyte migration and phagocytosis, reducing inflammation in gouty arthritis.

26
Q

What gout medication causes diarrhea?

A

Colchicine

27
Q

Why don’t you give probenecid or allopurinol for acute gout?

A

They can precipitate release of stored uric acid

28
Q

What hepatitis virus is HEV similar to?

A

HAV (unenveloped, ssRNA, fecal-oral)

29
Q

Damage to what part of the spinal cord mediates the muscular effects of poliovirus?

A

Damage to anterior horn lower motor neuron cell bodies

30
Q

What can actinic keratoses progress to?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

31
Q

RUQ pain after mu opioid use indicates what?

A

Biliary colic due to contraction of smooth muscle cells in the sphincter of Oddi

32
Q

What is the opioid of choice for biliary and pancreatic pain?

A

Meperidine, due to less constriction of sphincter of Oddi

33
Q

Where are mu opioid metabolized?

A

Liver

34
Q

How do mu opioids mediate vasodilation?

A

Histamine release, also causing itching

35
Q

What bowel symptoms do mu opioids usually cause?

A

Constimpation by slowing gut motility

36
Q

What is mu opioid effect on parietal cells?

A

Decrease acid secretion

37
Q

What symptom can you see with combined aminoglycosides and loop diuretics?

A

Ototoxicity

38
Q

What are 1st gen antihistamines?

A

Hydroxyzin, promethazine, chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine

39
Q

What are the major side effects of 1st gen antihistamines?

A

Anti-muscarinic, -serotonergic (appetite stimulation), -alpha adrenergic (postural dizziness), can cross BBB (sedation, cognitive deficits)

40
Q

What generation antihistamine is fexofenadine?

A

Second (less antimuscarinic, antiserotonergic, antialpha adrenergic properties)

41
Q

What type of anterior mediastinal mass do patients with Myasthenia Gravis present with?

A

Thymoma or Thymic hyperplasia

42
Q

What structures are derived from the 3rd pharyngeal pouch?

A

Thymus

Inferior parathyroid glands

43
Q

What is the purpose of Edrophonium (Tensilon test) in myasthenia gravis?

A

A short acting AChE-I that can test if more AChE-I is needed normally

44
Q

What are the most common side effects of verapamil?

A

Constipation and gingival hyperplasia (more rarely: bradycardia, heart block)

45
Q

What is VHL?

A

AD mutation on chromosome 3 characterized by:

  • capillary hemagioblastomas in retina/cerebellum
  • congenital cysts/neoplasms in kidney, liver, pancreas
46
Q

What is Von Recklinghausen’s disease?

A

NF-1: PERIPHERAL nervous system tumors (neurofibromas, optic nerve gliomas, Lisch nodules in the iris, cafe au lait spots)

47
Q

What is NF-2?

A

AD, CENTRAL nervous system tumors: bilateral CN VIII schwannomas, multiple meningiomas

48
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis?

A

AD, CNS hamartomas, kidney/liver/pancreatic cysts, cutaneous angiofibromas. SEIZURES!

49
Q

What is Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, AD, rupture of telangiectasias may cause epistaxis, GI bleeding, or hematuria

50
Q

What is the skin lesion in tertiary syphilis called?

A

Gumma

51
Q

What stage of syphilis has a chancre?

A

Primary

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