3/20 - UW 15 Flashcards

1
Q

What prevents C. diff from infecting healthy people?

A

Intestinal biomass…so much good bacteria!

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2
Q

What are the two possible cancers that cause blue lesions under the nail?

A

Glomus tumor (glomangioma)

Subungual melanoma

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3
Q

What the hell is a glomus body?

A

Small, encapsulated neurovascular organs in the dermis of the nail bed, pads of digits, and ears. For thermoregulation.

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4
Q

What is the prototypical triple helix polypeptide?

A

Collagen

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5
Q

What role does Proline play in the collagen structure?

A

Introduces bends into the chain

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6
Q

What are the three most common AA in collagen?

A
  1. Glycine (every third residue)
  2. Proline
  3. Lysine
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7
Q

What non-foregut organ is supplied by a foregut artery?

A

Spleen (by the splenic art. off the celiac trunk)

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8
Q

What enzyme is missing in Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

UGT, which catalyzes bile glucuronidation into conjugated bilirubin

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9
Q

What is kernicterus caused by Crigler-Najjar?

A

Severe jaundice and neurologic impairment

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10
Q

What process is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Active transport of conjugated bilirubin into bile ducts

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11
Q

What does the liver look like in Dubin-Johnson?

A

Darkly pigmented

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12
Q

What syndrome is similar to Dubin-Johnson, with impaired bilirubin secretion into bile ducts?

A

Rotor syndrome

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13
Q

In addition to histamine, what enzyme is released by mast cells in anaphylaxis?

A

Tryptase

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14
Q

In what cells can you find myeloperoxidase?

A

Neutrophils

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15
Q

What is increased 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) associated with?

A

Serotonin breakdown, particularly in carcinoid syndrome

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16
Q

How does IgE cause mast cell degranulation?

A

Cross linking

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17
Q

What movement of the lung does “compliance” describe?

A

The ability to stretch during inhalation

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18
Q

What is a common topical treatment for psoriasis? MOA?

A

Vit D analogs (calcipotriene, calcitriol, tacalcitol), activating nuclear transcription factor that inhibits keratinocyte proliferation and stimulates kertatinocyte differentiation

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19
Q

Cyclosporine MOA?

A

Inhibits calcineurin, inhibiting NFAT from transcribing IL-2, which activate T cells

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20
Q

What does Etanercept inhibit?

A

TNF-a

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21
Q

What does Methotrexate inhibit?

A

DHF reductase

22
Q

Fever, pharyngitis, general LAD in a young adult = ???

A

MONO!

23
Q

What is the primary viral cause of infectious mononucleosis? What neoplasms is it associated with?

A

EBV, Hodgkins and non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma

24
Q

What virus is associated with anal carcinoma?

A

HPV

25
Q

What is carnitine used for?

A

Transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria

26
Q

What is a common cause for Zenker diverticulum?

A

Increased intraluminal oropharyngeal pressure causes herniation through posterior hypopharynx, due to cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction

27
Q

What abx binds to cell wall glycoproteins? Where?

A

Vancomycin, terminal D-alanine residues

28
Q

What abx binds to PBPs?

A

Penicillin and cephalosporins. Like transpeptidases.

29
Q

What abx binds to DNA gyrase?

A

Fluoroquinolones

30
Q

What type of ALL is more likely to present with mediastinal mass?

A

T-ALL

31
Q

Blast cells in the peripheral blood suggests what type of neoplasm?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

32
Q

What are the cell surface markers for B cell ALL?

A

CD10, 19, 20

33
Q

What are the cell surface markers for T cell ALL?

A

CD2-8

34
Q

What marker do all ALLs have?

A

TdT?

35
Q

What cells produce androgen binding protein in the seminiferous tubules?

A

Sertoli cells

36
Q

What chemotherapeutic agents cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Cyclophosphamide or its analogs (e.g. ifosfamide)

37
Q

How does cyclophosphamide cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

It’s renally metabolized into acrolein, which is toxic to uroepithelial cells, causing cell death and necrosis

38
Q

When might you use N-actylcysteine (NAC)?

A

Acetaminophen overdose, or as a mucolytic or reno-protective agent

39
Q

What is Leucovorin (aka folinic acid) used for?

A

Methotrexate overdose

40
Q

When might you use Filgrastim? MOA?

A

Stimulate proliferation and differentiation of granulocytes (i.e. post-chemotherapy). As a G-CSF analog.

41
Q

When might you give Dexrazoxane? MOA?

A

Iron chelating agent used for anthracycline (e.g. doxorubicin)-induced cardiotoxicity

42
Q

Amifostine MOA?

A

Cytoprotective free-radical scavenging agent to decrease nephrotoxicity from some chemotherapeutic agents

43
Q

What is hydrocephalus ex vacuo?

A

Compensatory ventricular expansion due to brain atrophy; no increase in ICP

44
Q

What is pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Idiopathic intracranial HTN, with normal CSF content and normal neuroimaging

45
Q

What is lissencephaly?

A

Congenital absence of gyri

46
Q

What to give for drug-induced parkinsonism?

A

Antimuscarinic (trihexyphenidyl, benztropine), NOT dopamine drugs

47
Q

Characteristic side effects of marjiuana intoxication?

A

Conjunctival injection, tachycardia, increased appetite, dry mouth

48
Q

What type of headache produces facial flushing, nasal congestion, lacrimation, pupillary changes?

A

Cluster

49
Q

What type of headache is band-like (bilateral)?

A

Tension

50
Q

Describe a migraine headache

A

F > M, often with FH

Unilateral, pulsatile/throbbing

Auras, photophobia and phonophobia, nausea

51
Q

Describe a cluster headache

A

M > F, no FH

Excruciating, sharp pain located behind one eye

Sweating, facial flushing, nasal congestion, lacrimation, pupillary changes

52
Q

Describe a tension headache

A

F > M, no FH

Often due to stress, with a band like, bilateral distribution

Dull, tight persistent pain with muscle tenderness of the head/neck/shoulders