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3/7 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most common sx of a primary HSV infx?

A

Fever, vesiculoulcerative gingivostomatitis, cervical LAD

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2
Q

What are the most common sx of reactivation of a latent HSV infx?

A

More limited than a primary infx: periorbal blisters aka cold sores

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3
Q

What do multinucleated giat cells with intranuclear inclusions suggest?

A

HSV or VZV

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4
Q

Fever, vesiculoulcerative gingivostomatitis, and cervical LAD are suggestive of what infx?

A

Primary HSV infection (secondary would show perioral cold sores)

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5
Q

Where do HSV and VZV reside and reinfect from?

A

HSV: trigeminal ganglia
VZV: dorsal root ganglia

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6
Q

What sx are seen in reactivation of endogenous, latent CMV?

A

Interstitial pneumonitis, retinitis, hepatitis, colitis, and/or generalized disease

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7
Q

What lobe is affect in aspirations while standing? While supine?

A

Standing: basilar right lower lobe
Supine: posterior right upper lobe or superior right lower lobe

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8
Q

What receptors does NE have the most effect on?

A

Alpha1 and Beta1

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9
Q

What adrenergic receptor mediates vasoconstriction? Vasodilation?

A

Vasoconstriction: Alpha1
Vasodilation: Beta2

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10
Q

Phenoxybenzamine MOA?

A

Non selective, irreversible a1 and a2 receptor antagonist

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11
Q

Major use for Phenoxybenzamine?

A

Pheochromocytoma

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12
Q

Labetalol MOA?

A

Reversible, competitive a1, b1, b2 adrenergic receptor antagonist

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13
Q

For what sort of overdose would you give Labetalol?

A

Sympathomimetic overdose (e.g. cocaine)

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14
Q

Phentolamine MOA?

A

Reversible, competitive, non specific alpha adrenergic antagonist

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15
Q

When might you give phentolamine?

A

Management of catecholamine-induced hypertensive crises (pheochromocytoma, MAOI crisis, cocaine overdose)

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16
Q

Propanolol MOA?

A

nonspecific beta adrenergic antagonist

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17
Q

Atropine MOA?

A

Competitive muscarinic ACh R antagonist

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18
Q

What drug is a non selective, irreversible a1, a2 receptor antagonist?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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19
Q

What drug is a reversible, competitive a1, b1, b2 receptor antagonist?

A

Labetalol

20
Q

What drug is a reversible, competitive, nonspecific alpha adrenergic antagonist?

A

Phentolamine

21
Q

What drug is a nonspecific beta adrenergic antagonist?

A

Propranolol

22
Q

What drug is a competitive muscarinic ACh R antagonist?

A

Atropine

23
Q

What class is Quinidine?

A

Class 1A

24
Q

What class is Lidocaine?

A

Class 1B

25
Q

What class is Flecainide?

A

Class 1C

26
Q

What class is verapamil?

A

Class 4

27
Q

What class is Esmolol?

A

Class 2

28
Q

Does amyloidosis cause restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Restrictive

29
Q

What are some causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, cancer, inborn metabolic errors

30
Q

Diastolic dysfunction = restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Restrictive

31
Q

Systolic dysfunction = restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated

32
Q

What 3 characteristics primarily describes the histology of PSGN?

A
  1. Enlarged, hypercellular glomeruli
  2. “Lumpy bumpy” granular deposits of IgG and C3
  3. Electron-dense deposits on the epithelial side of the basal membrane
33
Q

Homocystinuria due to cobalamin (B12) deficiency prevents synthesis of what?

A

Methionine

34
Q

What dopaminergic pathway connects the hypothalamus and the pituitary?

A

Tuberoinfundibular

35
Q

Classic galactosemia is due to deficiency of what enzyme?

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

36
Q

What is the most important E. coli virulence factor?

A

Fimbriae (aka pili): type 1 fimbriae, P fimbriae (especially for UTI), S fimbriae

For adhesion to epithelial cells and enterocytes

37
Q

What vitamin takes years to deplete?

A

B12 (cobalamin)

38
Q

Thiazolidinediones (TZD) MOA?

A

TZDs bind to peroxisome proliferator activating receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), which regulates expression of adiponectine gene, decreasing insulin resistance

39
Q

Aminoglycosides MOA?

A

Inhibits bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit

40
Q

What is the typically elevated lab value in Gilbert syndrome?

A

Elevated unconjugated bilirubin (normal LFT, CBC, smear, retic)

Familiar disorder of bilirubin glucuronidation

41
Q

CYP450 Inducers?

A

Rifampin, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, Griseofulvin

42
Q

CYP450 Inhibitors?

A

Cimetidine, Ciprofloxacin, Erythromycin, Azole antifungals, grapefruit juice, Isoniazid, Ritonavir

43
Q

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in B12 deficiency?

A

Dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts (leading to “subacute combined degeneration”)

44
Q

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in syringomyelia?

A

Central portions including the lateral spinothalamic tracts and anterior horns

45
Q

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in tabes dorsalis? (Neurosyphilis)

A

Dorsal columns and dorsal roots

46
Q

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in ALS?

A

Upper and lower motor neuron lesions, lateral corticospinal tracts, anterior horn

47
Q

What parts of the spinal cord are affected in poliomyelitis?

A

Anterior horns

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