Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > 3/30 - UW 33 > Flashcards

3/30 - UW 33 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the second most common cause of inherited mental retardation, after Down syndrome?

A

Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Fragile X Syndrome?

A
  1. Mild to moderate mental retardation
  2. Long face, prominent jaws, large ears, cleft palate
  3. Macroorchidism
  4. Mitral Valve prolapse
  5. Short height, double jointed, single palmar crease, scoliosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Male with mild mental retardation, tall, gynecomastia, small testes and infertility?

A

Klinefelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Male with tall stature, severe acne, mild developmental delay?

A

47,XYY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mental retardation, large jaw, large testes?

A

Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tall stature, arachnodactyly, ectopia lentis, dilatation of proximal aorta?

A

Marfan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of collagen is in Glomerular Basement Membrane?

A

Collagen type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s) have involvement of what organ systems?

A

Upper resp tract: sinusitis, nasal ulceration
Lower resp tract: hemoptysis
Kidneys: RPGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antibodies against what proteins mediates rheumatic heart disease? Clinical signs?

A

Anti-M proteins of streptococci crossreact with glycoproteins of heart and joints. Presents with joint pain and cardiac murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is deficient in Glanzmann thrombasthenia?

A

Gp IIb/IIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Abciximab MOA?

A

Gp IIb/IIIa receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Transmural inflammation of the arterial wall with fibrinoid necrosis is characteristic of what disease?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In addition to the erythema with silvery scales, what else is seen in psoriasis?

A

Nails: yellow/brown discoloration with pitting, thickening or crumbling
Joints: arthritis with market deformities, like in RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The “pterion” is where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet in the skill. What artery is at risk here?

A

Middle MENINGEAL artery, a branch of the Maxillary. Can cause epidural hematomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Differentiation of osteoclasts by what signal molecules?

A

RANK-ligand and Monocyte-CSF (both released by osteoblasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What protein dilutes the interaction between RANK and RANK-L?

A

Osteoprotegerin (OPG), a decoy receptor secreted by osteoblasts

17
Q

How does PTH stimulate bone resorption?

A

PTH receptors are NOT on osteoclasts, but on osteoblasts, stimulating release of M-CSF and RANK-L

18
Q

What is the effect of Low estrogen on bone vasularity?

A

Increase, due to increased VEGF

19
Q

What is embryonic hemoglobin called, and what globin chains is it composed of?

A

Gower hgb, composed of 2 zeta chains and 2 epsilon chains. Produced in the yold sac

20
Q

What organ produces fetal hgb (HbF)? What are its globin chains?

A

Fetal liver. HbF is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

21
Q

What type of hemoglobin is composed of 2 alpha and 2 delta?

A

HbA2

22
Q

Between what 2 arteries does CN III course between as it leaves the midbrain?

A

Posterior cerebral

Superior cerebellar

23
Q

Aside from Spironolactone, what other drugs can be used for hirsutism?

A

Flutamide (testosterone receptor antagonist)

Finasteride (5-alpha-reductase inhibitor)

24
Q

Clomiphene MOA?

A

Antiestrogen, interferes with negative feedback of estrogens on hypothalamus and pituitary, thus INCREASING GnRH.

Used for infertility related to anovulation.

25
Q

Mitotane use?

A

Adrenortical carcinoma (adrenocorticolytic drug)

26
Q

In conjunction with general symptoms of anemia, what particular symptoms indicate iron deficiency anemia?

A

Spoon nails or koilonychia, and dysphagia

27
Q

What common drugs cause antimuscarinic effects?

A

Atropine, TCAs (amitriptyline), H1 antagonists (diphenhydramine), neuroleptics, antiparkinsonians

28
Q

What neoplasms show elevated CA 19-9?

A

Pancreatic cancer

29
Q

In addition to hepatocellular cancer, what other neoplasm shows high AFP?

A

Nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors (yolk sac tumors)

30
Q

What neoplasm is associated with opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome?

A

Neuroblastoma

31
Q

Deficiency in what proteins causes narcolepsy?

A

Hypocretin-1 (orexin-A) or hypocretin-2 (orexin-B) (produced in the lateral hypothalamus

32
Q

In what disease do you see decreases in melatonin in the CSF?

A

Alzheimer

33
Q

Decreased levels of what metabolite are seen in Parkinson?

A

Decreased homovanillic acid (primary depamine metabolite)

34
Q

What lab test should be obtained to confirm Temporal Arteritis?

A

ESR (>100mm/hr). Biopsy for definitive dx.

35
Q

What is seen on biopsy in Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)?

A

Transmural inflammation of the arterial wall with fibrinoid necrosis

36
Q

Polyarteritis Nodosa is often associated with what disease?

A

Hep B

Step 1 (49 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions