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3/27 - UW 29 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of bcl-2?

A

Inhibits apoptosis of tumor cells

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2
Q

Mutations of genes responsible for DNA mismatch repair lead to what neoplasm?

A

Lynch syndrome: hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

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3
Q

How does NAC treat acetaminophen toxicity?

A

Donates sulfhydryl groups to enhance SULFATION elimination (non-toxic)

Reacts with NAPQI as a substitute for glutathione

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4
Q

What is the product of the toxic P450 oxidation elimination of acetaminophen?

A

NAPQI, usually metabolized by hepatic glutathione into nontoxic compounds.

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5
Q

What should be administered to improve the cardiovascular manifestations of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Sodium bicarb

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6
Q

In a migraine, what vasoactive neuropeptides are released by trigeminal afferents that innervate the meninges?

A

Sustance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP)

Leads to neurogenic inflammation due to vasodilation and plasma protein extravasation

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7
Q

“-triptans” MOA?

A

5HT agonists

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8
Q

How do triptans treat migraines?

A

Inhibit repease of substance P and CGRP, promoting vasoconstriction and blocking pain pathways

Abortive therapy

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9
Q

What are some prophylactic migraine meds?

A

Beta blockers
Antidepressants (amitriptyline, venlafaxine)
Anticonvulsants (Valproate, topiramate)

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10
Q

What are the two most common causes of SCID?

A
  1. X linked SCID

2. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

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11
Q

Why does adenosine deaminase deficiency cause SCID?

A

Adenosine accumulation is toxic to lymphocytes

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12
Q

What is the function of xanthine oxidase?

A

Enzyme in formation of uric acid from hypoxanthing and xanthine.

Essential for final step of purine degradation

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13
Q

What is the xanthine oxidase inhibitor called? What is it used for?

A

Allopurinol, to decrease uric acid formation in gout

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14
Q

How does pneumoconiosis (interstitial lung fibrosis secondary to inhalation of inorganic dust) arise?

A

Alveolar macrophages which phagocytose particles are activated to release cytokines and growth factors. These cause inflammation/injury/fibrosis.

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15
Q

Which DNA polymerase is primarily responsible for synthesis of daughter DNA strands?

A

DNA polymerase III

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16
Q

What are two etiologies for disease of the posterior column of the spinal cord?

A

Syphilis (tabes dorsalis) and vit B12 def

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17
Q

What are some sx of vagus nerve damage?

A

Hoarseness
Dysphagia
Abnormal GI motility
Tachycardia

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18
Q

What type of ventricular adaptation is seen in pressure overload?

A

Concentric hypertrophy, from parallel deposition of new sarcomeres, reducing chamber size

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19
Q

What type of ventricular adaptation is seen in volume overload?

A

Eccentric hypertophy, from chamber dilation due to increased volume, and in series deposition of new sarcomeres

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20
Q

How does renal disease relate to bones???

A

VITAMIN D COME ON!!!

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21
Q

What are all the B vitamins?

A 
B1: Thiamine
B2: Riboflavin
B3: Niacin
B4: DOESN'T EXIST
B5: Pantothenic acid
B6: Pyridoxine
B7: Biotin
B9: Folic acid
B12: Cobalamin
22
Q

What are the downstream products and uses for Riboflavin (B2)?

A

Riboflavin (phosphorylated to) flavin mononucleotide FMN (phosphorylated to) flavin adenine dinucleotide FAD.

FMN and FAD are cofactors for flavoproteins, enzymes for redox reactions

23
Q

FAD, and thus riboflavin, is necessary for what TCA enzyme?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase, converts succinate to fumarate

24
Q

What is the pathogenesis of alcohol-induced hepatic steatosis?

A

Decrease in free fatty acid oxidation secondary to excess NADH production by alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase

25
Q

What two HBV antigens correlate well with viral replication?

A

HBcAg

HBeAg

26
Q

What does the tibial nerve do?

A

Calf muscles motor, and plantar foot sensory.

27
Q

What effect do statins and bile acid binding resins have on cholesterol synthesis?

A

Statins: decrease (inhibit HMG CoA

Bile acid binding resins: increase (reduced bile recycling, need new bile!)

28
Q

What is thiopental?

A

Short acting barbiturate used for general anesthesia, as a GABA agonist

29
Q

Why does thiopental only work briefly?

A

Highly lipid soluble, so it goes to brain within 1min. Then quickly redistributes into skeletal muscle and adipose with 5-10 min.

30
Q

Terbinafine MOA?

A

Allylamines class, inhibits ergosterol SYNTHESIS by inhibiting squalene epoxidase

31
Q

What antifungal blocks squalene epoxidase? What does that do?

A

Terbinafine, blocks ergosterol synthesis

32
Q

What antifungals bind to ergosterol?

A

Polyenes (anphotericin B and nystatin)

33
Q

What antifungal blocks cell wall synthesis? What is the component it blocks?

A

Caspofungin blocks synthesis of B-D-glucan, cell wall component of Candida and Aspergillus

34
Q

Caspofungin MOA?

A

Blocks fungal cell wall synthesis by blocking synthesis of B-D-glucan

35
Q

Griseofulvin MOA?

A

Binds to microtubules and disrupts fungal mitotic spindle, preventing mitosis

36
Q

What is the only group of fungi for which Griseofulvin is effective? Why?

A

Dermatophytes only, because it accumulates in skin

37
Q

What is the antifungal that prevents mitosis by binding to tubulin?

A

Griseofulvin, for dermatophytes

38
Q

Flucytosine MOA?

A

Antifungal URACIL analog that is transformed into 5-fluorouracilin in the cell

39
Q

What antifungal inhibits protein synthesis?

A

Flucytosine

40
Q

How is fetal lung maturity measured via amniocentesis?

A

Level of phophatidylcholine (i.e. lecithin) is a major component of surfactant

41
Q

What do you measure in the amniotic fluid to check fro NTD?

A

AFP

42
Q

What are you checking for when you measure amniotic fluid bilirubin?

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

43
Q

Enlargement and proliferation of what cells is seen in a gliosis in the brain?

A

Astrocytes, which resorb the necrotic tissue after a stroke

44
Q

Leukocytoclastic vasculitis is characterized be what pathology of the small vessels?

A

Segmental fibrinoid necrosis

45
Q

Lesions of Microscopic polyangiitis are histologically similar to what?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa (segmental fibrinoid necrosis)

46
Q

What arteries are often affected in Thromboangiitis obliterans?

A

Tibial and radial arteries

47
Q

What type of lymphoma is marked by remissions and recurrences?

A

Follicular lymphoma (from follicular B cells)

48
Q

How does Follicular lymphoma present?

A

Painless lymph node enlargement or abdominal discomfort from a mass

49
Q

What lymphoma can form Pautrier microabscesses in the dermis and epidermis?

A

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T cell lymphoma)

50
Q

What drug blocks the rate limiting step of catecholamine synthesis? What is that step?

A

Metyrosine blocks tyrosine hydroxylase

51
Q

Is p53 a tumor suppressor or oncogene?

A

Tumor suppressor

52
Q

When and how does p53 regulate cell proliferation?

A

During G1, it detects abnormalities and prevents progression.

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