Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > 3/31 - UW 37 > Flashcards

3/31 - UW 37 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the embryonic source of the anterior pituitary?

A

Surface ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What organs are derived from the surface ectoderm?

A

Rathke’s pouch (anterior pituitary), lens/cornea, inner ear, nose/mouth, epidermis, sweat/mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What organs are derived from the neural tube?

A

CNS, posterior pituitary, retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What organs are derived from the neural crest?

A

Pia/arachnoid mater, ganglions, Schwann cells, aorticopulmonary septum and endocardial cushions, branchial arches, melanocytes, adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What organs are derived from the mesoderm?

A

MSK, CV sys (incl blood and lymphatics), serosal lining, spleen, internal genitalia, kidney/ureters, adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What organs are derived from the endoderm

A

GI tract (incl liver, pancreas), lungs, thymus, para/thyroids, middle ear, bladder/urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Caspofungin MOA?

A

Block glucan synthesis, for CELL WALL!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Polyenes? MOA?

A

Amphotericin B, nystatin

BIND (as opposed to azoles) ergosterol, for the cell MEMBRANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Azoles MOA?

A

Inhibit ergosterol SYNTHESIS, for the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Caspofungin most effective against?

A

Candida and Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What tx for isolated HTN in a nondiabetic can cause peripheral edema and flushing?

A

Amlodipine (CCBs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug can cause blue-gray skin discoloration and corneal micro-deposits?

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do NK cells mediate destruction of cells with decreased or absent MHC I expression?

A
  1. Perforins open membrane holes

2. Granzymes enter through holes to induce apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What CD # do NK cells express?

A

CD16 or 56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do Cheyne-Stokes respirations occur?

A

Advanced CHF, stokes, brain tumors, traumatic brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are common side effects of arteriolar vasodilators (hydralazine, minoxidil)?

A

Reflex tachycardia and edema, due to lower arterial pressure causing baroreceptor stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypersensitivity to everyday noises results from injury to what?

A

Paralysis of the stapedius muscle (from injury or facial nerve lesion) will cause hyperacusis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does Galactose enter the glycolytic pathway?

A

G6P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where does Mannose enter the glycolytic pathway?

A

F6P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where does Fructose enter the glycolytic pathway?

A

Glyceraldehyde 3P (after PFK-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An ulcer not in the duodenal bulb (proximal duodenum) suggests what syndrome?

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome (caused by gastrin-secreting tumors)

22
Q

Where do gastrinomas arise?

A

Pancreas mostly

23
Q

Where are PUD ulcers typically found?

A

Lesser curvature of the stomach or the proximal duodenum (duodenal bulb)

24
Q

What type of gastritis spares the antrum?

A

Autoimmune (not H pylori)

25
Q

What are the most common clinical manifestations of Vit E def?

A

Neuromuscular disease (myopathy, ataxia, pigmented retinopathy), hemolytic anemia

26
Q

What drug has a similar structure to pyridoxine (B6)?

A

INH

27
Q

Resistance and flow is proportional to radius of a vessel to what power?

A

4th

28
Q

In acute viral hepatitis, what is seen histologically?

A

Diffuse ballooning degeneration (hepatocyte swelling), mononuclear cell infiltrates, Councilman bodies (eosinophilic apoptotic hepatocytes0

29
Q

What lab findings are usually seen in Klinefelter’s?

A

Elevated gonadotropins (esp FSH) and estradiol, reduced testosterone

30
Q

What is the rate limiting step of the HMP shunt?

A

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

31
Q

What two reactions/enzymes reduce oxidative damage in RBCs?

A

G6PD and glutathione reductase

32
Q

What drugs are purine analog antimetabolites?

A

6-Thiopurines
Fludarabine (CLL)
Cladribine (HCL)

33
Q

What drugs are pyrimidine analog antimetabolites?

A

5-fluorouracil
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

34
Q

How does Cladribine achieve high intracellular concentrations? What is it used for?

A

Resistant to adenosine deaminase. Used for Hairy Cell Leukemia.

35
Q

Where are Major Basic Proteins found?

A

In eosinophil granules, help defend against parasites

36
Q

What type of colonic polyp can transform into malignant cancer?

A

Adenomatous polyps, especially VILLOUS (villain!)

37
Q

What are the most common histologic features of Glioblastoma multiforme?

A

Pseudopalisading necrosis
New vessel formation
Small round cells, bizarre giant cells, mitotic figures

38
Q

Where is Glioblastoma multiforme most often found?

A

Butterfly distribution in the brain: Frontal and temporal lobes, crossing the midline

39
Q

What is the cell of origin of Glioblastoma multiforme?

A

Astrocyte

40
Q

Transtentorial (uncal) herniation can compress which nerve?

A

CN III

41
Q

What are the 3 Ds of Botulinum?

A

Diplopia, Dysphagia, Dysphonia

42
Q

What is the most common cause of recurrent lobar hemorrhages in an elderly patient?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

43
Q

Where are Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms typically found? In what patients?

A

In the arterioles of the basal ganglia, internal capsule, and deep white matter. In patients with long-standing hypertension

44
Q

What is responsible for the green color of pus and sputum?

A

Neutrophil myeloperoxidase

45
Q

What are the cardiac anomalies seen in Turner patients?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve and aortic coarctation

46
Q

When would you see pulsus paradoxus?

A

Cardiac tamponade

47
Q

When would you see pulsus alternans?

A

LV dysfunction (beat to beat variation in pulse pressure, with regular rhythm)

48
Q

When would you see a dicrotic pulse?

A

Severe systolic dysfunction: 2 pulse peaks, one during systole, one during diastole. Best palpated in the carotid.

49
Q

When would you see pulsus parvus et tardus?

A

Aortic stenosis: a pulse of low magnitude and delayed peak

50
Q

When would you see a hyperkinetic pulse?

A

Rapid ejection of a large SV: fever or exercise, PDA, AV fistula

Step 1 (49 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions