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3/18b Flashcards

1
Q

What areas of the respiratory tract are lined with pseudostratified, columnar, mucus-secreting epithelium?

A

Nose, paranasal sinuses, nasopharynx, most of the larynx, and the tracheobronchial tree

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2
Q

What areas of the repiratory tract are lined with stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, anterior epiglottis, upper half of the posterior epiglottis, and the true vocal cords

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3
Q

Where are the piriform recesses of the oropharynx? What do they cover?

A

Small cavities on either side of the laryngeal orifice through which food pass around the airway. Food can get lodged there. They cover the internal laryngeal nerve.

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4
Q

Which laryngeal nerves carry motor fivers to the vocal cord muscles?

A

Recurrent and external laryngeal nerves

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5
Q

Which laryngeal nerve carries only sensory and autonomic fibers?

A

Internal laryngeal nerve (mediates cough reflex

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6
Q

What nerve mediates the gag reflex?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN9)

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7
Q

What nerve mediates the cough reflex?

A

Internal laryngeal nerve, a branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, off of the vagus.

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8
Q

What is a common cause of outpatient hypocalcemia?

A

HypoPTH

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9
Q

What is the mechanism for the microangiopathy and nephropathy seen in chronic DM?

A

Glycosylation products, that accumulate and cross link with collagen in blood vessel walls and interstitial tissues

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10
Q

What is the mechanism for the cataracts and peripheral neuropathy seen in chronic DM?

A

Glucose converted to sorbitol by aldose reductase. Sorbitol converted to fructose, which increases osmotic pressure. Osmotic injury to lens fiber cells and Schwann cells.

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11
Q

What type of inheritance is Friedreich ataxia?

A

AR

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12
Q

Where is the mutation located in Friedreich ataxia?

A

Chromosome 9

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13
Q

What disease causes gait ataxia, kyphoscoliosis, foot abnormalities, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and sometimes DM?

A

Friedreich ataxia

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14
Q

Airflow obstruction in COPD results from what two causes?

A
  1. anatomic narrowing of the bronchi

2. decreased lung elasticity from destruction of interalveolar walls

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15
Q

What is the embryological process that leads to tetralogy of fallot, truncus arteriosus, and transposition of the great vessels?

A

Abnormal migration of neural crest cells

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16
Q

Collagen degradation by what enzyme increases risk of atherosclerotic plaque rupture?

A

Metalloproteinases

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17
Q

What cells secrete metalloproteinases?

A

Macrophages

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18
Q

What does prolyl 4-hydroxylase do?

A

Hydroxylation of proline on procollagen chains, a step in the formation of a stable collagen triple helix

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19
Q

What does lysyl oxidase do?

A

Conversion of collagen amino terminus from LYSINE to ALDEHYDE, stabilizing it.

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20
Q

How does the liver take up indirect bilirubin?

A

Passively with an organic anion transporting polypeptide (OATP)

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21
Q

How does the liver secrete direct bilirubin?

A

Actively by MRP2

22
Q

What happens when MRP2 in the liver is inhibited?

A

Conjugated bilirubin leaks out of basolateral OATP into the blood, causing hyperbilirubinemia and bilirubinuria

23
Q

What organism causes scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei mite

24
Q

How does scabies present?

A

Rapidly spreading, pruritic rash with erythematous papules and excoriations on the exremities

25
Q

What type of infection is suggested by intensely pruritic rash on the flexor surfaces of the wrist, lateral surfaces of the fingers, and finger webs?

A

Scabies infection by Sarcoptes scabiei

26
Q

What type of immune response causes the rash seen in scabies?

A

Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

27
Q

What type of infection would show multinucleated giant cells on skin sampling?

A

Shingles, which present as painful vesicles in dermatomal distribution

28
Q

What type of infection would show molluscum bodies?

A

Molluscum contagiosum, presenting with single or multiple lesions (smooth, 2-6mm, white/skin colored, firm)

Typically does not involve pals and soles

29
Q

How does Candida intertrigo present?

A

Erythematous plaques and erosions with satellite papules or pustules in the axillae, genital areas, web spaces, and skin folds.

30
Q

Where, and in what stage of life is physiological carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) found?

A

In the embryonic pancreas, liver, and intestine

Minute amounts in healthy adults

31
Q

What is the CEA used for?

A

Not for dx, just for monitoring colorectal cancer recurrence

32
Q

Mucosal neuromas and Marfanoid habitus are signs of which MEN syndrome?

A

MEN 2b, along with medullary carcinoma of the thyroid and pheochromocytoma

33
Q

Biotin is involved in the reactions of which enzymes?

A

acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC), pyruvate carboxylase (PC), propionyl carboxylase (PCC), and beta-methylcrotonyl CoA carboxylase (MCC)

34
Q

What are the anti-inflammatory cytokines?

A

TGF-b and IL-10

35
Q

Which cells release TNF-a?

A

T cells and monocytes, inducing nf-kB

36
Q

What are the two SERMs?

A

Raloxifene and Tamoxifen

37
Q

What effect does milrinone have on vascular smooth muscle?

A

Vasodilation

38
Q

Milrinone MOA?

A

Phosphodiesterase isoenzyme 3 inhibitor, preventing the metabolism of cAMP. Increased cAMP levels means increased Ca release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, increasing cardiac contractility.

39
Q

MIs in what location is associated with bradycardia? Why?

A

Inferior MIs often lead to bradycardia because it is usually the result of a R coronary artery blockage, which supplies the SA and AV nodes

40
Q

What is the treatment of choice for early (<6wk gestational age) ectopic preg?

A

Methotrexate

41
Q

Methotrexate MOA?

A

Competitive, irreversible inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase

42
Q

Why might you give fatty acid oxidation inhibitors for chronic stable angina?

A

Fatty acid oxidation requires more oxygen per ATP than glucose oxidation or glycolysis. Reducing it will reduce oxygen demand in stable angina.

43
Q

What class of drugs end in “-pril”

A

ACE inhibitors

44
Q

What is a common cause of Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome?

A

Following diarrheal illness by Shiga toxin, from EHEC O157:H7 or Shigella dysenteriae

45
Q

In what syndrome can you see fibrous intimal thickening with endocardial plaques in the R heart?

A

Carcinoid syndrome

The 5-HT and bradykinin released by the carcinoid tumor target the right heart because they are inactivated by the lungs

46
Q

Where do you find serotonergic neurons in the brain?

A

Raphe nuclei

47
Q

What NT is released by the raphe nuclei?

A

Serotonin

48
Q

What role do the neurons from the raphe nuclei play?

A

Sleep-wake cycle, level of arousal. Lesions can lead to insomnia and depression

49
Q

What NT is released by the nucleus ceruleus?

A

NE, in the dorsal pons

50
Q

What NT is released by the substantia nigra? What disease is it associated with?

A

DA, Parkinson’s

51
Q

Lesions in what lobe of the brain produce contralateral superior quadrantanopia?

A

Temporal lobe

52
Q

What lab test involves mixing patient serum with cardiolipin, lecithin, and cholesterol?

A

RPR, for the spirochete T. pallidum (sylphilis)

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