Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Undeleted > 3 Genitourinary > Flashcards

3 Genitourinary Flashcards

1
Q

blood urea nitrogen (“normal”)

A

5 - 25 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

creatinine (“normal”)

A

0.5 - 1.5 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

phimosis

A

narrowing or stenosis of the opening of the foreskin that prevents retraction of the foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

paraphimosis

A

retracted foreskin that cannot be replaced in normal position over glans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

paraphimosis significance?

A

urological emergency!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hydrocele: non-communicating

A

often subsides spontaneously

surgery if not spontaneously resolved at one year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hydrocele: communicating

A

requires surgery if not spontaneously resolved at one year

- scrotum smaller in the morning, larger after activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hydrocele

A

presents as soft, painless swelling of scrotum (palpable bulge in inguinal/scrotal area)
- asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

acute scrotum

A

acute PAINFUL swollen scrotum in prepubertal child

urgent/emergent finding!!!

  • requires immediate diagnosis and possibly surgery
  • treatment delay may result in loss of testicle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cryptorchidism

A

undescended testicles (one or both)

  • not painful
  • doesn’t interrupt urination
  • scrotum appears underdeveloped on affected side
  • WATCH AND SEE WHAT HAPPENS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

orchiopexy

A

surgical treatment for cryptorchidism - happens at 1 to 2 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why orchiopexy?

A
  • prevents teste overexposure to body heat (protect fertility)
  • decrease incidence of malignancy (high in undescended testes)
  • avoid rigorous activity for 2 weeks (education needed!)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AMS significant…

A

in geriatric populations with UTI. Usually no other symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

A

normal range: 5-25 mg/dl

  • by-product of protein breakdown in liver. Urea nitrogen is produced mostly from liver metabolism of food
  • other factors influential. elevation does not always mean kidney disease present
  • elevated BUN level is highly suggestive of kidney dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

creatinine

A

normal range: 0.5 - 1.5 mg/dl

  • produced with muscle/protein breaks down
  • constant so good measure of kidney function
  • No common pathologic condition other than kidney disease increases the serum creatinine level
  • does not increase until at least 50% of kidney function lost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

BUN vs creatinine

A

creatinine is more specific reflection of kidney function and renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

waste products in blood reflective of kidney function

A

BUN

creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

severe phimosis treatment

A

circumcision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hypospadias

A

urethral opening below glans penis (anywhere along ventral surface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mild hypospadias

A

meatus just below tip of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

severe hypospadias

A

meatus on perineum (+ chordee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

chordee

A

ventral curvature of penis accompanying severe hypospadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • hypospadias care key point
A

thorough assessment important - must inform parents that circumcision cannot happen because foreskin may be used in repair of penis

don’t want to take newborn into surgery - need to allow baby to feed and grow and THEN do surgery (better outcome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

epispadias

A

defect on dorsal surface of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bladder extrophy

A

severe defect with externalization of bladder (males and females)

repair in newborns a MUST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

bladder extrophy in males…

A

is almost always seen with epispadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bladder extrophy/epispadias correction…

A

may require multiple stages of repair depending on severity of defect

  • first stage: repair bladder
  • second stage: repair epispadias and create urethral sphincter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

GFR + “normal”

A

glomerular filtration rate - 115 to 125 ml/min

controlled by dilation/constriction of afferent arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

decreased GFR with aging

A
  • decreased ability to regulate water balance
  • GFR drops about 10% for adults 45+
  • a concern with chronic comorbidities like DM2, htn, CHF; which further decrease blood flow to kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

problems related to decreased GFR

A
  • dehydration
  • increased renal blood flow
  • increase in nephrotoxic potential of many meds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

nocturia

A

tubular changes lead to decreased ability to concentrate urine resulting in sense of urgency + nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

nocturia nursing implications

A
  • encourage nighttime lighting and clutter free environment
  • encourage fall risk clients to use bedpan, urinal, bedside commode
  • discourage fluid intake 2-4 hours prior to bedtime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

decreases in bladder capacity and spincter tone due to…

A

(aging)

  • changes in detrusor muscle elasticity = decreased capacity
  • sphincters lose tone and become weak
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

urinary retention causes (x3)

A

(men) enlarged prostate = narrowing of the prostatic urethra = hesitancy, decreased force of stream, urinary retention

(anticholinergic medications)

(diseases affecting CNS = neurogenic bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

urinary retention nursing implications

A
  • assess for bladder distension
  • monitor for s/s of UTI
  • provide stimuli to encourage urination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

UTI s/s

A
  • dysuria
  • confusion
  • foul smelling urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

top 7 contributing factors of chronic disease

A
  • hypertension
  • tobacco use
  • elevated cholesterol
  • poor dietary choices
  • obesity
  • physical inactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

polycystic kidney disease - acquired how?

A

genetically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

polycystic kidney disease characteristics

A
  • multiple cysts in nephrons
  • compromised function
  • larger than average kidneys
  • hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

polycystic kidney disease risks

A
  • cyst rupture
  • bleeding
  • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

polycystic kidney disease most common complication

A

chronic UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  • polycystic kidney disease most SERIOUS complication
A

end stage renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

polycystic kidney disease s/s

A
    • PAIN ** abdominal or flank. almost always first sign.
  • distended abdomen, increased abdominal girth
    • BLOODY ** or cloudy urine
  • constipation
  • nocturia
  • hypertension
  • kidney stones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

vesicoureteral reflux

A

the backward flow of urine from the bladder into the kidneys

FINDING NOT A DIAGNOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  • vesicoureteral reflux determination
A

by radiology study: voiding cystouretholgram (VCUG)

  • *done 3-6 weeks after active infection resolved
46
Q

glomerulonephritis

A

inflammation of glomerulus

  • acute or chronic
  • caused by variety of diseases
  • immunologic reaction
  • third leading cause of ESRD!!
47
Q

glomerulonephritis consequences

A
  • decreased GFR
  • edema
  • hypertension
  • scar tissue, irreversible damage
48
Q

acute glomerulonephritis

A
  • most causes infectious or other systemic diseases

- renal symptoms 10 days after onset of infection

49
Q
  • acute post-streptococcal GN
A
  • 1 to 3 weeks after strep infection
  • preschool children most likely (males 3-7yo most likely)
  • usually completed, rapid recovery
  • 1 to 2% develop ESRD
50
Q
  • acute post-streptococcal GN - prevention
A

proper medical treatment of strep throat important!!!

51
Q
  • acute glomerulonephritis s/s
A
  • *generalized edema
  • *decreased UOP
  • *proteinuria
  • hematuria
  • increased SG
  • hypertension
  • elevated BUN, creatinine
  • decreased GFR, serum albumin
  • elevated ESR-erythrocyte sedimentation rate
52
Q
  • acute glomerulonephritis nursing care
A
  • *monitor for s/s of fluid volume overload
  • compare VS to baseline
  • accurate I/O
  • daily weight
  • urine color changes: cola, smoky reddish brown, rusty
  • maybe 24 hour urine collection
  • meds (abx, immunosupressants, diuretics)
  • Na restriction if fluid retention, possible fluid restriction, possible K and protein restriction
  • bedrest
  • dialysis if fluid volume overload cannot be controlled and presence of uremic symptoms
53
Q
  • system presentation of fluid volume overload
A

increased BP, HR, RR;
dyspnea, adventitious lung sounds

  • significant finding for acute glomerulonephritis *
54
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

NOT A DISEASE
increased glomerular permeability that allows larger molecules to pass through the membrane into the urine and then be excreted

  • renal manifestation of multiple underlying causes
  • renal biopsy = definitive diagnosis
55
Q

*nephrotic syndrome pathophysiology

A
  • *proteinuria (massive)
  • *edema
  • *hypoalbuminemia
  • increased glomerular permeability
  • increased aldosterone secretion = decreased GFR
  • increased Na+ reabsorbption
56
Q

proteinuria

A

massive loss of protein in urine

57
Q

hypoalbuminemia

A

decreased plasma albumin level

58
Q

*nephrotic syndrome client presentation

A
  • *generalized edema
  • *decreased UOP
  • hypertension
  • massive proteinuria
  • lipiduria and hyperlipidemia
  • hypoalbuminemia
  • anorexia
  • malaise
59
Q

nephrotic syndrome medical/nursing management

A

goal: reduce albuminuria, control edema, promote general health

diagnostic tests: urinalysis, serum tests, renal biopsy = definitive diagnosis

meds (corticosteroids, possibly immunosuppresive, diuretics)

diet: if GFR normal, more protein. if GFR decreased, less protein.

bedrest

60
Q

*nephrotic syndrome nursing care

A
  • daily measure of abdominal girth, especially in kids = evaluates fluid retention!
61
Q

*UTI etiology for females

A
  • shorter urethra, proximity to vagina and rectum
  • lack of prostatic fluid = protective
  • elderly: hormonal changes alter vaginal pH/flora
  • sexual activity: urethral inflammation
  • pregnancy: spontaneous clearing decreased, 60% asymptomatic
62
Q

*UTI etiology (general)

A
  • instrumentation
  • *CAUTI (most common!)
  • UTIs 40% of HAI
  • 80% due to indwelling vs straight catheter
63
Q

*UTI pathophysiology

A

GRAM NEG #1 CAUSE

  • E coli 85-90%
  • Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas
  • originate in GI tract
  • vesicoureteral reflux
  • urinary stasis (incomplete or infrequent voiding; alkaline urine facilitates bacterial growth)
  • impaired host resistance + break in mucus membrane of urinary tract
  • erosions caused by indwelling catheter
64
Q

pediatric UTI

A

most are uncomplicated and respond to outpatient abx treatment

65
Q

*pediatric UTI requiring hospitalization

A
  • patient toxic/septic
  • signs of urinary tract obstruction or significant underlying disease
  • patient unable to tolerate PO fluids/meds
  • < 2yo with febrile UTI
  • all < 3 months
66
Q

*urethritis etiology (adult)

A
  • infection: STI!

- inflammation: instrumentation, trauma, postmenopausal tissue changes

67
Q

urethritis risk factors (adult)

A 
male 20-35
female (reproductive years)
- multiple sexual partners
- high risk sexual behavior
- history of STI
68
Q
  • urethritis adult s/s (male)
A
  • dysuria
  • discharge
  • frequency
  • urgency
69
Q
  • urethritis adult s/s (female)
A
  • dysuria
  • discharge
  • frequency
  • urgency
70
Q
  • urethral strictures
A

scar tissue causing narrowing of the urethra and resulting in decreased force of urination or urinary retention

  • etiology: complications of STI (especially gonorrhea)
71
Q

urethral strictures s/s

A
  • obstruction of urine
  • UTI s/t urinary stasis
  • overflow incontinence
  • bladder distension

male client with STI hx and any of the s/s, encourage to see urologist

72
Q

cystitis

A

infection, inflammation, or irritation of the urinary bladder

73
Q

cystitis etiology

A

infectious: UTI, CATUI

non infectious: irritation, inflammation

74
Q
  • cystitis s/s
A
  • frequency
  • urgency
  • dysuria
  • fever, chills, cloudy/foul urine, hematuria, hesitancy, low back pain, nocturia, suprapubic tenderness, feeling of incomplete emptying
75
Q
  • cystitis UA & culture results
A

positive leukocyte esterase and nitrate

results take approximately 48 hours
- bacteriuria, hematuria, pyuria, positive urine culture and sensitivity (growth of single pathogen, technique of gathering - sterile or clean catch?)

76
Q

cystitis treatment

A
  • abx (cover most pathogens or tailor for culture results)
  • lower urinary tract analgesics (relief of symptoms only)
    • pyridium: turns urine orange
    • uroblue: turns urine blue
  • urinary bladder antispasmodics
  • prophylactic abx for clients with freq re-infection
    • treat for 6-12 months, periodic UA and C&S
77
Q

*cystitis nursing care

A

*early detection of cystitis to prevent ascending infection

  • adequate treatment (based on C&S)
  • follow up: culture urine 2 weeks after abx therapy ends (chronic? continued therapy)
  • client education
  • relief of symptoms
  • prevent recurrent infections, CAUTI
78
Q

*cystitis client education

A
  • *increase fluid intake to increase urine volume
  • urinate with regular frequency: void at first urge
  • complete emptying
  • perineal hygiene
  • void after intercourse
  • avoid bubble baths (irritant)
  • cranberry juice (urinary pH)
79
Q

pyelonephritis

A

infection, inflammation, or irritation of the kidneys

80
Q

pyelonephritis

A

infectious: ascending originating in urethra or bladder; UTA or CAUTI
noninfectious: irritation, inflammation

81
Q

*acute pyelonephritis

A

ACTIVE INFECTION

  • ascending infection
  • *E Coli most common
82
Q

chronic pyelonephritis

A

may be associated with structural abnormality of urinary tract such as vesicoureteral reflux

83
Q

*pyelonephritis s/s

A
  • *fever, chills, tachycardia, tachypnea
    • CVA/flank tenderness/pain
  • lower UTI symptoms
  • malaise, fatigue, n/v, abdominal pain
  • increased serum WBCs
  • UA and culture (WBC, bacteria, casts)
84
Q

urosepsis

A

systemic infection originating in the urinary tract

85
Q

urinary incontinence

A

leakage of urine related to bladder or sphincter dysfunction

86
Q
  • stress incontinence
A

leakage of urine related to weakness of urinary sphincter and pelvic floor musculature

87
Q
  • urge incontinence
A

involuntary spasm

88
Q

overflow/reflex incontinence

A

mechanical obstruction

89
Q

functional incontinence

A

CNS disorders leading to neurogenic bladder (damage to nerves innervating the urinary bladder)

90
Q

bladder scan

A

non-invasive method to measure post-voice residual

91
Q

urolithiasis

A

stones in urinary tract

92
Q

nephrolithiasis

A

kidney stone

93
Q

ureterolithiasis

A

stone in ureter

94
Q

cystolithiasis

A

stone in bladder

95
Q

urolithiasis assessment

A
  • CVA flank pain radiating to groin

- gold standard imaging study: non-contrasted CT scan (abdomen and pelvis)

96
Q

urinary obstruction

A

primary etiology: stones

early treatment of causes is critical

97
Q

*urinary obstruction leads to

A

hydronephrosis

hydroureter

98
Q

*hydronephrosis

A

enlarged kidney as urine collects in renal pelvis, caused by obstruction in upper part of ureter

99
Q

*hydroureter

A

enlarged ureter above level of obstruction, caused by obstruction in lower part of ureter

100
Q

urinary obstruction nursing care

A
  • pain management

- constipation

101
Q

prostratitis

A

infection or inflammation of prostrate (acute or chronic)

102
Q

benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

A

benign growth of prostrate with or without obstruction

103
Q

prostratitis risk factors

A 
male
unprotected sexual activity
history of prostratitis
pelvic trauma
compromised immunity
recent prostrate biopsy
104
Q

prostratitis s/s

A

acute: onset often accompanied by flu-like symptoms
- dysuria
- frequency
- urgency
- pain (lower back, groin, perineum, upper thighs)

105
Q

BPH risk factors

A

males 41 - 75
family history
changes in urination (pattern)

106
Q

BPH assessment

A

H&P, UA & culture, post-void residual

PSA blood test: measures prostate specific antigen (non-specific)

107
Q

BPH management

A
  • promote regular urination
  • prevent urinary obstruction
  • prevent infection
108
Q

*BPH surgical management

A
  • transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) - most common
  • endoscopic procedure (no incision, through the urethra)
  • removes prostate tissue from around the prostatic urethra

holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP)

  • modern alternative to TURP
  • particularly indicated for men with >60cc^2 prostate (large!)
109
Q

urothelial cancers

A

arising from lining of urinary tract and defined by location

  • renal pelvis
  • ureter
  • bladder
  • urethra/prostatic urethra
110
Q

urologic cancer

A

affects structures outside urinary tract but related to GU system
- testicular, prostate

Undeleted (79 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions