trauma anes, burns Flashcards

0
Q

T/F: avoid ventilation between administration of medication and intubation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Indication for endo tracheal intubation

A
CRAFTeDD
Cardiac or respiratory arrest
Respiratory insuff
Airway protection
Facilitation for diagnostic work up (uncoop, intoxicated)
Transient hyperventilation (increase ICP)
Deep sedation or analgesia
Delivery of 100% O2 (CO poisoning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/f: administer particulate antacid prior to induction

A

False. Nonparticulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maneuver to be applied during airway management

A

Cricoid pressure or sellick maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/f: do mri of cervical spine if have neck pain or have cervical tenderness to palpations

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

High risk factors mandating c-spine radiography

A

> 65y/o
Dangerous mechanism
Paresthesia on extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Low risk factors allowing neck range of motion

A

Simple rear-end MVA
No immediate neck pain
No midline c-spine tenderness
Ability to sit or ambulate in ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Unable to rotate neck (how many degrees) left and right for c-spine radiography

A

45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/f: direct laryngoscopy cause cervical motion and the potential to exacerbate sc injury

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Uncleared cervical spine mandates..

A

In-line stabilization (no traction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T or F: the front of cervical collar cannot be removed for greater mouth opening and jaw displacement

A

False. Can be removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Minutes of hypoxia before permanent brain injury and death

A

5-10 min hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Airway/breathing, which is the most immediate threat to life?

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Protection of cervical spine.

T or F: Emergency awake fiber optic intubation requires less manipulation of the neck

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Emergency awake fiber optic intubation is generally difficult becoz…

A

Hemorrhage
Airway secretions
Rapid desaturation
Lack of PTS coop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Vasodilator
(-) inotropic effect

A

Propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Potentiate hypotension or cardiac arrest

A

Propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Increased cvs stability

A

Etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Direct myocardial depressant

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Catecholamine release

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Hypertension or tachycardia

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Reduced awareness

A

Midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Hypotension

A

Propofol

Midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone:
Inhibits memory formation

A

Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Propofol/ etomidate/ ketamine/ midazolam/ scopolamine/ ms relaxant alone: Recall of intubation / recall of emergency procedures
Ms relaxant alone
25
Neuromuscular blocking drug
Succinylcholine
26
Onset of action of succinylcholine
Fastest onset | <1 min
27
Duration of succinylcholine
Shortest duration | 5-10min
28
What are increased in succinylcholine?
Increase potassium level (0.5-1mEq/L) (5mEq/L after 24hr) Increased IOP Increased ICP
29
Consequence of hemorrhage
Shock
30
T or F: cancel airway management when difficulty arise
False. It is not an option.
31
When difficult arise in intubation, do...
Awake intubation
32
Of unsuccessful ventilation after gen anes
Standard: awake is always an option Trauma: seldom an option
33
If surgical airway decision
Standard: only if awake intubation failed/ failed ventilation Trauma: first and best choice
34
If management of recognized diff airway
Standard: awake ventilation Trauma: only if uncoop, stable and spont. ventilating
35
If failed awake ventilation
Standard: cancel is an option Trauma: requires gen anes with or without spont. ventilation
36
T or F: due to urgency, there is NO time for pharma to decrease gastric volume and acidity
True
37
MRI of cspine can not be done in (hours)
First 24 hrs
38
MRI Cspine contraindication
Metallic skeletal fixators
39
T or F: airway maneuver can cause Cspine movement
True
40
T or F: pressure in tongue during airway manipulation affects Cspine.
True. Indirectly
41
Standard care for Cspine injury
MILS, manual in-line immobilization
42
Consist of primary cellular injury due to hypoperfusion and the secondary inflammation response that follows.
Shock
43
Deaths in trauma is due to
Shock -50% Hemorrhage -40% MOSF -10%
44
Patho physio of lost airway/ pulmonary injury on shock
O2 does not reach circulation
45
Patho physio of tension pneumothorax
Decrease blood return to heart
46
Patho physio of cardiac tamponade
Decrease blood return to the heart
47
Patho physio of hemorrhage
Decrease O2 carrying capacity | Decrease intravascular vol
48
Patho physio of cardiac injury
Decrease pump action
49
Patho physio of spinal cord injury
Decrease pump action | Decrease vasodilation
50
Patho physio of poisoning
Decrease vasodilation | Direct failure of cellular
51
Patho physio of sepsis
Decrease vasodilation | Direct failure of cellular
52
Cns response to ischemia
Mod: anxiety Severe: coma
53
Cvs response to ischemia
Mod: vasoC, increase CO Severe: vasoD, MI, dysthymia
54
Pulmonary response to ischemia
Mod: increase RR Severe: V/Q mismatch, ARDS
55
Renal response to ischemia
Mod: hybernation Severe: ATN
56
GI response to ischemia
Mod: ileus Severe: infarct, loss of barrier function
57
Hepatic response to ischemia
Mod: increase glucose release Severe: no reflow, re perfusion injury
58
Hematologic response to ischemia
Mod: none Severe: decrease cell production, impaired immune function
59
It begins as soon as Shock is identified
Fluid resuscitation
60
T or F: resu and primary therapy overlaps
True
61
Risk of aggressive fluid resuscitation
``` BBHC GEDP Increase bp Decrease blood viscosity Decrease hct Decrease clothing factors Greater transfusion reqr Electrolyte imbalance Direct immune suppression Premature reperfusion "pop the clot" ```
62
Fluid resu goal of maintaining Lower than normal Bp (___mnHg) until definitive control of hemorrhage
90mmhg
63
Responder/ transient responder/ non responder and implication Increased and sustained improvement of bp
Responder- | Not actively bleeding, unlikely to require transfusion
64
Responder/ transient responder/ non responder and implication Increased bp Ff by recurrent hypotension
Transient responder- | Actively bleeding, consider early transfusion
65
Responder/ transient responder/ non responder and implication No improvement
Non-responder- | Must R/o other causes, active bleeding
66
Fluid which causes dilution of blood composition
0.9% Saline LR Plasmalyte Starch
67
Fluid which cause rapid volume expansion
``` Starch Hypertonic saline RBC Plasma FWB ```
68
Fluid which is cheap and compatible with blood
0.9 saline
69
Fluid which cause hyperchloremic metab acidosis
0.9 saline
70
Fluid in which Ca clots the blood
LR
71
Fluid with physiologic electrolyte mix
Plasmalyte
72
Fluid which cause coagulopqthy with 1st generation
Starch
73
Fluid which cause rapid increase of bp
Hypertonic saline
74
Fluid which cause increase O2 delivery
RBC
75
Fluid which have clotting factors
Plasma
76
Fluid which have O2, clotting factors and is ideal but Unavailable
FWB
77
Fluid which are expensive, limited resource, requires cross matching, viral transmission, TRALI
RBC | Plasma
78
Vicious cycle of rapid crystalloids infusion in pts with Active hemorrhage
Vigorous fluid resu Hemodilution, increased bleeding Recurrent hypotension
79
In deep shock, one can use ____ to rapidly restore coagulation
Bicarbonate Cryoprecipitate FActore VIIa
80
1 blood loss vol in 24hr is equivalent to
10units of whole blood
81
Indications for massive transfusion
``` 4 units in 1hr 50 units in 48hrs 20 units in 24hrs 50% blood loss in 3hrs >150ml/min blood loss ```
82
Bloody vicious cycle or lethal triad
``` Acidosis Hypothermia Coagulopathy (due to large vol of crystalloids, colloid, PRBC without hemo static component) ```
83
Warm all IV fluids and blood to avoid hypothermia. Room temp?
>28C | Humidify inspired gas
84
For decreased ionized calcium, how many CaCl to give?
Calcium chloride 20mg/kg
85
Resu end points within 1st 24hr after trauma: | Mixed venous oxygen tension
>35mmHg
86
Resu end points within 1st 24hr after trauma: | Mixed venous oxygen saturation (CVP, PA)
>65mmHg
87
Resu end points within 1st 24hr after trauma: | Base deficit
<3mmol/L
88
Resu end points within 1st 24hr after trauma: | Lactate
<2.5mmol/L
89
Pulse oximetry information
O2 sat HR Plethysmographic tracing of pulse Tissue perfusion
90
Interferes with reading in pulse oximetry
``` IV dyes Movement Dark fingernails Highly pigmented skin COHgb metHgb ```
91
High sat but truly with low oxyhemoglobin
Poisoning/inhalational injury
92
Trauma pts suffers from low perfusion state thus oximetry reading not reliable. Which is a more sensitive measure?
ABG
93
Efficacy of ventilation or ute elimination of CO2 can be assessed by both PETCO2 values and Capnogran analysis
End tidal CO2 analysis
94
High CO2 | Increased production
Hyperthermia/malignant hyperthermia Cancer Burn Sepsis
95
High CO2 | Decreased elimination
Asthma COPD Inadequate ventilation (drugs, fatigue, sweating)
96
Low CO2 | Increased elimination
Hyperventilation | Anxiety/vent strategy
97
Low CO2 | Decreased production
Coma Hypothermia Anesthesia Paralysis
98
``` Ventilator setting (low pressure/high pressure alarms): Machine leak or disconnection of breathing circuit ```
Low pressure alarm
99
``` Ventilator setting (low pressure/high pressure alarms): Due to patient condition such ass reduced lung compliance, secretions in ET tubes, dyssynchronous ventilation ```
High pressure alarms
100
Pulse electrical activity 5H
``` Hypovolemia Hypothermia Hyper/hypokalemia H ion acidosis Hypoxemia ```
101
Pulseless electrical activity 5T
``` Tension pneumothorax Tamponade Thrombosis (pulmonary embolism) Thrombosis (coronary artery embolus) Tablets (drug overdose) ```
102
CVP level
8-12mmHg
103
T or F: CVP has no predictable relationship between pressure and volume preload indices and cardiac performance variables
True
104
T or F: CVP is used as guide to fluid therapy
True
105
PA catheter information
CO CVP PAP PAWP
106
Urine production
0.5ml/kg/hr
107
Surrogate measure of organ perfusion
Urine output
108
Indicator of hemolysis, sk ms destruction and UT integrity
Urine output
109
T or f: urine output reliability is increased in prolonged shock prior to surgery and use of osmotic dieresis
False. Decreased reliability
110
Accurate site for temp
Distal esophagus Tympanic mem PA catheter sensor Nasopharynx
111
Intermediate accurate site of temp
Bladder Rectum Mouth Axilla
112
Inaccurate site of temp
Skin
113
Conseq of patient expo
``` Coagulation disturbance Arrhythmias Inappro diuresis Delay in metab of drugs Risk of infection ```
114
T or F: avoid anesthetics and ms relaxants before securing the airway
True
115
Hemorrhagic shock (increase/decrease) the MAC by approx __
Decrease Mac by 25%
116
T or f: anesthetic drugs are direct CV depressant and inhibit compensatory hemodynamics mechanism
True
117
Expulsion of eye contents and loss of vision
``` LEt BuCKS Laryngoscopy ET intubation Bucking Coughing Ketamine Succinylcholine ```
118
T or F: aspiration of stomach contents may cause lung injury and pneumonia
True
119
Induction agents
Thiopental Propofol Midazolam
120
Crystalloids/colloid: what to give during early phase of burn
Crystalloids
121
Crystalloids/colloid: what to give 24hrs after burn injury
Colloid
122
When to avoid succinylcholine in burn injury
If >24hrs and for at least 18mos after injury
123
Burn injury, rapid sequence induction of ____ if >24hrs after burn injury
Rocuronium
124
IV anesthetics in early phase burn injury
Decrease dose requirements
125
IV anesthetics in during hyper dynamic phase burn injury
Increase dose reqr | Consider multimodal therapy (opioid, Propofol, ketamine, benzodiazepines)
126
Inhalation agents in early phase burn injury
Decrease MAC during early phase
127
Inhalation Agnets in during hyper dynamic phase burn injury
Increase MAC
128
T or F: beta blocker attenuated hyperdynamic phase of burn injury
True
129
Succinylcholine increase K if __%TBSA
10%
130
Causes of persistent hypotension
Bleeding Tension pneumothorax Neurogenic shock Cardiac injury
131
LR/NS in persistent hypotension
LR
132
LR cause no acidosis but tissue edema due to..
Hypotonicity
133
The higher the molar substitution, the ___ retention, the ___ chance of coagulopqthy
The higher the molar substitution, the higher retention, the higher chance of coagulopqthy
134
Causes of hypothermia
``` SAAFE Shock Alcohol intoxication Abnormal Thermoregulatory mech Fluid resu Expo to cold ```
135
Coagulation abnormalities causes
``` DATHH Dilution of coag factors Acidosis Tissue hypoperfusion Hypoxia Hypothermia ```
136
Indication for FFP
>10 units PRBC within 6hrs >1.5x the normal PTT and PT Reversal of coag in pts in Vit.K antagonist
137
Platelet indication
<50 x 10^9/L | Higher in pts with DIC, hyperfibrinolysis, head injury and massive bleeding
138
One unit of whole blood contains platelet concentrates of
7.5 x 10^10/L
139
Fibrinogen indications
<1.5g/L
140
Replace fibrinogen conc and cryoprecipitate
3-4g fibrinogen | 50mg/kg cryoprecipitate
141
Antifibrinolytic agents and dose
Tranexamic acid - 10-15mg/kg then 1-5mg/kg/hr | Aminocaproic acid - 100-150mg/kg then 15mg/kg/hr
142
T or F: anti fibrinolytic agents are effective in cardiac and elective surgery
True
143
Why is antifibrinolytic agents not included in massive transfusion protocol?
Be do it contains all endogenous antifibrinolytic elements
144
Conditions to justify the use of factor 7a
Controlled bleeding Corrected severe acidosis, hypothermia and hypocalcemia Using antifibrinolytic agents
145
Caution for the use of factor 7a
Arterial and venous TE
146
Dose for factor 7a
100-140 mg/kg repeat after 1-3hrs later
147
Electrolyte and acid base disturbance
Hyperkalemia | Metab acidosis
148
Early post-op considerations
Acute renal failure Abdominal compartment syndrome TE
149
Creatinine and free water clearance on ARF
Creatinine <25ml/min | Free water >15ml/hr
150
Myoglobinuria/hemoglobinuria: clear supernatant (crush syndrome)
Myoglobinuria
151
Myoglobinuria/hemoglobinuria: rose color
Hemoglobinuria
152
Management for ARF
Fluids only. | DONT Give mannitol and HCO3
153
Intra abdominal hypertension with organ dysfunction
Abdominal compartment syndrome
154
Most important factor in abdominal compartment syndrome
Limit crystalloids infusion
155
Management for TE
``` PPV FiO2 of 1 Intubation Fluids and inotropes Arterial CVP monitoring TEE ```
156
TE prophylaxis
Compressin devices LMW heparin Vena cava filter Thrombolytic agents
157
Superficial burn
First degree burn
158
Partial thickness burn
Second degree burn (superficial and deep dermal burn)
159
Full thickness burn
Third and fourth degree burn
160
Erythema of skin Microscopic destruction of superficial layers of epidermis Heals spontaneously
First degree burn
161
Burn from epidermis to upper Dermis | Heals spontaneously
Superficial derma burn
162
Burn from epidermis to deep Dermis | Requires excision and grafting
Deep dermal burn
163
Burn of epidermis and dermis | Excision and grafting with limitation of function and scar formation
Third degree burn
164
Burn of ms, fascia and bone | Complete excision with limited function
4th degree burn
165
Full thickness burn TBSA
>10% TBSA
166
Partial thickness TBSA
>25% TBSA in adults | 20% TBSA in extremes of age
167
Surface area of head and neck in children is larger than 9%, and that of lower extremities are smaller, thus can't use rules of 9, instead use...
Lund and Browder chart | -takes into aact the changing prop of body from infancy to adulthood
168
CO increase/decrease immediately after burn injury due to ...
Decrease CO due to circulating myocardial depressant factors
169
CO increase/decrease after 24hrs resu due to ...
Increase CO due to hypemetabolic state (tachycardia, hypertension)
170
Patho physio changes in burn injury in upper airway
Glottis and preglottic edema = obstruction
171
Patho physio changes in burn injury in lower airway
Decrease surfactant and mucociliary func Mucosal necrosis and ulceration Edema Leads to obs, air trapping, broncho spasm, ARDS, PE
172
Patho physio changes in burn injury in GI
``` Adynamia ileus (>20%tbsa) Curlings ulcer (stomach and duo) ```
173
Life threatening complication of burn injury in GI
Curlings ulcer
174
Patho physio changes in burn injury in renal
Decrease RBF and GFR = RAAS activation and ADH release = Na and water retention = exag K, Ca, Mg losses
175
T or F: Renal changes in burn injury improves with adequate resu
True
176
Patho physio changes in burn injury in endocrine
ADH, renin, aldosterone, angiotensin, glucagon and catecholamine release = inc serum glucose
177
Patho physio changes in burn injury in metab and thermoreg
Increase metab rate Increase skin and core temp Ineffective water vapor barrier = loss of ion-free water
178
Leading cause of hypoxia in burn injury
Carbon monoxide poisoning.
179
Produced by incomplete combustion of C-containing cmpds (wood, coal, gasoline)
Carbon monoxide
180
Carbon monoxide is ___x greater affinity for ____
200x greater affinity to Hgb than O2
181
Carbon monoxide (competitive/noncompetitive; irrev/rev) reaction
Competitive reversible reaction
182
T or F: fluid resu is essential in the early burn injury period
True
183
Parkland formula
4ml/kg/% TBSA 1st 8hrs - 1/2 Nxt 8hrs - 1/4 Nxt 8hrs - 1/4
184
What to give in 1st 24 hr in burn injury
LR | Parkland formula
185
What to give in second 24hr in burn injury
``` Glucose in water (replace water loss and maintain Na level) Colloid soln (albumin) ```
186
Dose of colloid soln with TBSA 30-50%
0.3ml/kg/%
187
Dose of colloid soln with TBSA 50-70%
0.4ml/kg/%
188
Dose of colloid soln with TBSA >70%
0.5ml/kg/%
189
What to give in children <20kg burn injury
Crystalloids (2-3ml/kg/%) same hr Crystalloids with 5% dextrose (maintenance) for 24 hrs 1st 10kg = 100ml/kg 2nd 10kg = 50ml/kg
190
Fluid resu clinical ends
Uo 0.5-1ml/kg/hr PR 80-140bpm SBP 60mmHg infants; 70-90mmHg + (age x 2) children Basale deficit <2
191
If difficult mask ventilation and intubation, consider
Awake intubation
192
Ms relaxant of choice in burn injury
Non depolarizing | Esp with minimal histamine release
193
T or F: burn patient have RELATIVE RESISTANCE To nondepolarizing relaxants
True
194
How many fold increase in dose requirement of ms relaxant in burn injury
3-fold
195
In pts with burns >30% TBSA, manifesting approx 10 day postinjury, peak is ____ and declines after ____
Peak -40d | Decline -60d
196
T or F: succinylcholine is contraindication in burn patients
True, 24hrs postinjury up to 2yrs
197
Reason behind an increase serum K in succinylcholine
Due to presence of extra junctional Ach receptors
198
T or F : avoid NSAID in burn injury
True