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Med Prep > microbio - bacteria > Flashcards

microbio - bacteria Flashcards

0
Q

Erysipelas - fiery red swelling of face

A

Strep pyogenes

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1
Q

Group A strep, beta-hemolytic

A

Strep pyogenes

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2
Q

Disease cause by strep pyogenes

A 
PRAISE 
Pharyngitis
Rheumatic fever
Acute post strep glomerulonephritis  
Impetigo (contagiosa)
Scarlet fever - spares the face
Erysipelas
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3
Q

Used to diagnose scarlet fever

A

Dick test

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4
Q

Predictive model for diagnosis of group A strep

A

Centor criteria

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5
Q

Diagnostic test of step.pyogene that indicates presence of pyrrolidonyl arrylamidase

A

PYR test

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6
Q

Major virulence factor of strep pyogenes

A

M protein

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7
Q

Bacitracin-sensitive

A

Strep.pyogene

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8
Q

Splenic abscess

A

Steptoccocal species

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9
Q

Bacitracin-resistant

A

Strep agalactiae

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10
Q

Group B, beta-hemolytic strep

A

Strep agalactiae

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11
Q

Diseases caused by strep agalactiae

A

Neonatal meningitis, pneumonia and sepsis

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12
Q

Step agalactiae is hydrolyzed by …

A

Hippurate

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13
Q

T or F: strep agalactiae is part of normal flora of vagina of pregnant women

A

True. About 25% of pregnant

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14
Q

Rapidly spreading, diffuse process
Associated with lymphangitis and fever
Milroy’s disease

A

Strep cellulitis

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15
Q

Job’s syndrome (hyper-IgE syndrome)
Recurrent cellulitis
Spreads from central localized infection.

A

Staph aureus cellulitis

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16
Q

Lancet shape

A

Strep pneumoniae

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17
Q

No lancefield classification

Alpha-hemolytic, encapsulated

A

Strep pneumoniae

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18
Q

Rusty colored sputum in pneumonia

A

Strep pneumoniae

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19
Q

Optochin, bile and quellung positive

A

Strep pneumoniae

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20
Q

Strep pneumoniae produces this enzyme for mucosal colonization

A

IgA protease

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21
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in adults

A

Strep pneumoniae

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22
Q

Optochin-resistant

A

Strep viridans

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23
Q

Cause of dental carries

A

Strep viridans

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24
Q

T or F: strep viridans is part of normal oral flora (found in the nasopharynx and gingival crevices) and GIT.

A

True

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25
Q

Group D strep, alpha,beta,gamma-hemolytic

A

Enterococci (strep faecalis and faecium)

Non-enterococci ( strep bovis and equinus)

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26
Q

Group d strep has this thing that helps them bind to heart valves

A

Dextran

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27
Q

Disease caused by group D strep

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Biliary tract infection
Urinary tract infection

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28
Q

Can live in 6.5% NaCl and 40% bile

A

Group D strep

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29
Q

Catalase and coagulase positive

Facultative anaerobe

A

Staph aureus

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30
Q

Most common cause of post-influenza secondary bacterial pneumonia

A

Staph aureus

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31
Q

Produces golden yellow colonies

A

Staph aureus

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32
Q

Honey colored crusting

A

Staph aureus

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33
Q

Toxins of staph aureus

A

Exfoliatin
Enterotoxin
TSST-1

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34
Q

Staph that causes continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

A

Coagulase negative staph

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35
Q

Causes brain micro abscess, pyomyositis, hematogenous and contiguous focus osteomyelitis, post op infections, Ritter’s disease, localized bullous impetigo, necrotizing and nodular pneumonia

A

Staph aureus

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36
Q

Most common cause if UTI in sexually active women (second to e.coli)

A

Staph saprophyticus

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37
Q

Produce medussa head colonies

A

Bacillus anthracis

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38
Q

Produces black eschar

A

Bacillus anthracis

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39
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Clostridium

Bacteroides

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40
Q

Microaerophilic bacteria

A

Helicobacter and campylobacter

Spirochetes

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41
Q

Obligate aerobes

A 
NN BBB LMP
neisseria and nocardia
Bacillus cereus, bordetella, brucella
Legionella
Mycobacteria
Pseudomonas
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42
Q

Diseases caused by Clostridium septicum

A

Spontaneous myonecrosis

Spontaneous non traumatic gangrene

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43
Q

Causes spontaneous myonecrosis and spontaneous non traumatic gangrene

A

Clostridium septicum

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44
Q

Clostridium species that is not motile

A

Clostridium perfringens

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45
Q

Crepitus positive
Gas gangrene
Food poisoning (no fever)

A

Clostridium perfringens

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46
Q

Toxin of Cl.tetani which inhibits release inhibitory neurotransmitters (GABA, glycine) resulting in distant muscle contraction (tetany)

A

Tetanospasmin

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47
Q

Muscle spasm
Trismus
Risus sardonicus
Respiratory muscle paralysis

A

Tetanus

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48
Q

Neurotoxin of Cl.botulinum inhibits the release of _____ from peripheral nerves. Toxin is not secreted, rather It is released upon the death of bacteria.

A

Acetylcholine

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49
Q

Flagella of clostridium has this virulence protein

A

H-antigen

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50
Q

“Bull neck”

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

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51
Q

Diagnostic test for diphtheria

A

Elek’s test

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52
Q

Culture for corynebacterium diptheriae

A

TELL UR InTErn not to LOEF around

  1. Potassium tellurite agar
  2. Loeffler’s medium
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53
Q

Stain that demonstrates the metachromatic granules of corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Methylene blue

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54
Q

Are corynebacterium and listeria catalase positive

A

Yes

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55
Q

3rd most common cause of meningitis in children

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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56
Q

Transmission of L.monocytogenes

A

Ingestion of contaminated raw milk products and cabbages (coleslaw)

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57
Q

Motility of L.monocytogenes

A

Tumbling motility

Actin-jet motility

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58
Q

Purpura fulminans

A

N.menigitidis

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59
Q

Purpura fulminans + asplenia

A

N.menigitidis. + H.influenzae

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60
Q

Opthalmia neonatorum
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
PROM

A

N. gonorrheae

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61
Q

Primary bacterial peritonitis

honeymoon cystitis

A

E.coli

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62
Q

Toxin that e.coli has that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating 60s ribosomal unit

A

Verotoxin

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63
Q

E.coli strain that causes Hemorrhagic uremic syndrome.

A

E.coli O157

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64
Q

Indole positive
Beta hemolytic
Ferments lactose

A

E.coli

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65
Q

Index organism for fecal contamination of water

A

E.coli

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66
Q

Indole negative

Ferments lactose

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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67
Q

Currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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68
Q

Nonmotile enteric

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae and shigella dysenteriae

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69
Q

Friedlander’s pneumoniae

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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70
Q

Swarming enteric

A

Proteus mirabilis

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71
Q

Urease positive
Phenylalanine deaminase positive
Indole negative
Does not ferment lactose

A

Proteus mirabilis

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72
Q

Lactose fermenter enteric

A

E.coli and klebsiella pneumoniae

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73
Q

Causes UTI having alkaline urine due to urease

A

Proteus mirabilis

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74
Q

Staghorn calculi

A

Proteus mirabilis

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75
Q

Cross reacts with rickettsiae species

A

Proteus mirabilis

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76
Q

Proteus mirabilis cross reacts with _____ species

A

Rickettsiae species

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77
Q

Most common cause of bloody diarrhea in 1-4yrs old

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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78
Q

Enteric bacteria

A 
PEKSS
Proteus mirabilis
E.coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Shigella dysenteriae
Salmonella typhi
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79
Q

Most common type of salmonella infection

A

Inflammatory diarrhea

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80
Q

T or F: salmonella typhi is zoonotic

A

False. S.typhi is not zoonotic and only carried by humans

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81
Q

Some people recovering from typhoid fever become chronic carriers, harboring salmonella typhi in their ____ and excreting bacteria constantly.

A

Gall bladder

82
Q

Has characteristic rose spots on belly

And a tongue brown and furred

A

Typhoid fever /enteric fever (Salmonella typhi)

83
Q

At risk patients of salmonella typhi

A

Patients who are asplenia or have nonfunctioning spleen (sickle cell anemia)

84
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica is closely related to yersinia pestis that causes bubonic plague. Their difference is in the mode of transmission.

A

Yersinia pestis: bite of a flea

Yersinia enterocolitis: fecal-oral route

85
Q

Produces bull’s eye target colonies

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

86
Q

Diarrhea caused by yersinia enterocolitica severe abdominal pain right lower quadrant, thus it often mimics what disease?

A

Appendicitis (mesenteric adenitis)

87
Q

Most common cause of diarrhea

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

88
Q

Yersinia pestis is a gram-neg bacteria that exhibits striking bipolar staining with special stains. What are those?

A

Giemsa or Wayson’s stain

89
Q

Virulence factor of yersinia pestis

A

V and W antigen

90
Q

Caused the Black Death or the bubonic plague

A

Yersinia pestis

91
Q

Vector of yersinia pestis

A

Xenopsylla cheopis

92
Q

Treatment for yersinia pestis

A

Streptomycin + tetracycline

93
Q

Puppy feces
Pica in children
Mimics appendicitis

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

94
Q

Incubation period of yersinia enterocolitica

A

Cold enrichment - 4C For 1wk

95
Q

Pseudoappendicits syndrome.

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

96
Q

Family vibrionaceae

A

Vibrio cholera
Vibrio panhaemolyticus
Campylobacter jejuni
Helicobacter pylori

97
Q

Curved gram-negative rod with a single polar flagellum

A

Vibrio cholerae

98
Q

Toxin produced by v.cholerae

A

Choleragen

99
Q

Disease that presents with the abrupt onset of a watery diarrhea (classically described as looking like RICE WATER) with loss of up to 1liter of fluid per hr in severe cases.

A

Cholera. It causes death by dehydration

100
Q

How many organisms of v.cholerae are required to be infected?

A

100-1000 organisms

101
Q

Most common bacteria in surface water worldwide

A

Vibrios

102
Q

Diagnostic test for cholera

A

String test

Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts (TCBS) agar

103
Q

3 most common causes of diarrhea in the world

A

Campylobacter jejuni
ETEC
Rotavirus

104
Q

Has characteristic gull wing appearance at 42 degrees in culture

A

Campylobacter jejuni

105
Q

Most common cause of duodenal ulcers and chronic gastritis. And second leading cause of gastric ulcers

A

Helicobacter pylori

106
Q 
Non fermenters
Hot tub folliculitis (diffuse folliculitis)
Echtyma gangrenosum 
Cellulits ff penetrating trauma 
HAP
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

107
Q

Female genital tract abscess

Pancreatitis

A

Bacteroides fragilis

108
Q

Bacteroides fragilis infection occurs when the organism enters into the ..

A

Peritoneal cavity

109
Q

Organisms that cause echthyma gangrenosum

A

P. aeruginosa

A. Hydrophila

110
Q

Causes severe croup, acute supraglottic laryngitis and meningitis (3mos -3yrs)

A

H.influenza

111
Q

H.influenzae requires two factors for growth (both found in blood)

A

Factor V - NAD

Factor X - Hemin

112
Q

Culture of h.influenzae

A

Chocolate agar

113
Q

Painful genital ulcer -chancroid

A

H. Ducreyri

114
Q

Painless genital ulcer - chancroid

A

Syphilis (treponema pallidum)

115
Q

Causes bacterial vaginitis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

116
Q

Hematologic hallmark of gardnerella vaginalis infection

A

Clue cells

117
Q

Greenish discharge with fishy odor

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

118
Q

Mobiluncus

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

119
Q

Treatment for gardnerella vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

120
Q

Whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

121
Q

This organism in ubiquitous in natural and man-made water environments. Aerosolized contaminates water is inhaled, resulting in infection. Sources such as air conditioning units and cooling towers.

A

Legionella pneumophila

122
Q

Infected lymph node in bubonic plague

A

Inguinal nodes (boubon is Greek for groin)

123
Q

Causes left-sided valve infection in addicts

A

P. aeruginosa

Candida albicans

124
Q

Causes tularemia

A

Francisella tularensis

125
Q

Reservoir of francisella tularensis and how humans get infected

A

Rabbits. From bite of ticks and deerflies

126
Q

Patient that is a worker in the meat-packing industry, a veterinarian, a farmer or a traveler who consumes dairy (cow or goat) products in Mexico or elsewhere. Possible disease?

A

Tularemia

127
Q

Diseases caused by brucella

A 
BUM
Brucellosis (causes undulant fever) 
Bang's disease
Undulant fever
Mediterranean fever
128
Q

Cat bite fever

A

Pasteurella multocida

129
Q

Walking pneumoniae

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae or mycoplasma pneumoniae

130
Q

Most common cause of non-gonoccocal urethritis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

131
Q

Diseases caused by chlamydia trachomatis

A

TPL
Trachoma - corneal scarring (scar traction pulls and folds the eyelids inward so that the eyelashes rub against the conjunctiva and cornea
Pebbly conjunctiva
Lymphogranuloma venereum

132
Q

Between chlamydia and rickettsia, which requires an arthropod vector?

A

Rickettsia

133
Q

Between chlamydia and rickettsia, which has fond to columnar epithelium

A

Chlamydia

134
Q

Some rickettsia share antigenic characteristics with …

A

Proteus vulgaris

135
Q

Classic test that uses cross reacting OX strains of proteus vulgaris antigens to help confirm diagnosis of a rickettsial infection

A

Weil-Felix reaction

136
Q

Causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

137
Q

Vector of rickettsia rickettsii

A

Dermacentor spp.

138
Q

Epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazeki

139
Q

Endemic typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

140
Q

Recurrent form of epidemic typhus

A

Brill-zinser disease

141
Q

Comparison of rash from Rocky Mountain spotted fever and epidemic typhus

A

In contrast to Rocky Mountain spotted fever, epidemic typhus rash spares the palms, soles and face.

142
Q

Scrub typhus

A

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

143
Q

Japanese river typhus

A

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

144
Q

Trench fever

A

Bartonella quintana

145
Q

Cat-scratch disease
Bacillary angiomatosis
Inoculation lymphoreticulosis
Parinauds occuloglandular syndrome

A

Bartonella henselae

146
Q

Oroya fever is a profound intravascular hemolytic anemia of a few weeks duration, associated with lesions called VERRUGA PERUANA resembling Kaposi’s sarcoma; also known as Carrión’s disease.

A

Bartonella bacilliformis

147
Q

“The great pretender”

A

Treponema pallidum

148
Q

Stage of syphilis: chancre

A

Primary syphilis

149
Q

Stage of syphilis: condylomata latum

A

Secondary syphilis

150
Q

Stage of syphilis: tabes dorsalis (spinal cord posterior column and dorsal root)

A

Tertiary syphilis

151
Q

Rule of six in syphilis

A

Sixual transmission
6 axial filaments
6 wks incubation
6 wks for ulcer to heal
6 wks after ulcer heals,secondary syphilis develops
6 wks for secondary syphilis to resolve
66% of latent stage patients have resolution
6 years (at least) to develop tertiary syphilis

152
Q

Syphilis: endarteritis obliterans (inflam of inner lining of artery)

A

Syphilitic aortitis

153
Q

Early congenital syphilis occurs within 2 years and is like severe secondary syphilis. What are the manifestations?

A

Condylomata latum

Snuffles : runny nose

154
Q

Late congenital syphilis is similarly to tertiary syphilis except that cardiovascular involvement rarely occurs. What are the manifestations?

A

8th nerve deafness (vestibulocochlear nerve)
Saber shin (tibia leads to bowing)
Mulberry or Moon’s molar (molars have too many cusps)
Hutchinson’s teeth (incisors are widely spaced with a central notch)
Clutton’s joint (symmetrical arthrosis)

155
Q

It is seen in secondary syphilis. In paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, an antibody associated with syphilis and viral infections.

A

Donath-Landsteiner antibody

156
Q

Most patient with syphilis will develop an acute worsening of their symptoms immediately aft antibiotics. What is this phenomenon?

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer phenomenon

157
Q

Wasserman reaction

A

Treponema pallidum

158
Q

Syphilitic reagin

A

IgG and igM

159
Q

Yaws

A

Treponema pertenue

160
Q

Pinta

A

Treponema carateum

161
Q

Corkscrew-shaped spirochete

A

Borrelia

162
Q

Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

163
Q

Vector of Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Ixodid nymph tick

164
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi can invade the brain, cranial nerves and even motor/sensory nerves. What is the most common CN palsy?

A

Bell’s palsy

165
Q

Severest form of leprosy where patients cannot mount CMI response to M.leprae.

A

Lepromatous leprosy

166
Q

Long, thin aerobic spirochete that have hook on one or bothe ends, giving them an “ice tongs” appearance

A

Leptospira

167
Q

Weil’s disease

A

Leptospira interrogans

168
Q

Fevers caused by leptospira interrogans

A 
FCPCN
Fort Bragg fever
Canefield fever
Pretibial fever
Canicola fever
Nanukayami fever
169
Q

Rat catcher’s yellow

A

Leptospira interrogans

170
Q

Pemphigus neonatorum

A

Leptospira interrogans

171
Q

Incubation period of Leptospira interrogans

A

5-14 days (2-30days)

172
Q

Cord factor of mycobacteria

A

Trehalose dimycolate

173
Q

Incubation period of mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

3-8 wks

174
Q

Culture for mycobacteria

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

175
Q

Produces serpentine colonies

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

176
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis produces ____ in culture

A

Niacin

177
Q

Diagnostic test for mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Montoux test

178
Q

Caseous necrosis is due to

A

Phosphatides

179
Q

Hansen’s disease

A

Leprosy by mycobacterium leprae

180
Q

Growth medium of mycobacterium leprae

A

Footpads of mice or in armadillo

181
Q

T or F: mycobacterium leprae grows better in cooler temperature closer to the skin surface.

A

True. Leprosy involves the cooler are of the body.

182
Q

Leonine facies if a manifestation of …

A

Lepromatous leprosy

183
Q

Lucio’s phenomenon

A

mycobacterium leprae

184
Q

Poly microbial

A

Brain abscess

185
Q

Tiniest free living organism capable of self-replication

A

Mycoplasma

186
Q

Number one cause of bacterial bronchitis and and pneumonia in teenagers and young adults

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

187
Q

Diagnostic test for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Cold agglutinins

188
Q

Characteristic fried egg appearance

A

Mycoplasma

189
Q 
Nongonoccocal urethritis (20-30%)
Prostitis and epididimytis in men
A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

190
Q

Drug induced
Adults
Stratum germinativum

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

191
Q

Rat bite fever

A

By streptobacillus moniliformis

192
Q

Spirillum minus

A

Rat bite fever

193
Q

Produces cherry red colonies

A

Serratia mercescens

194
Q

Red diaper syndrome

A

Serratia mercescens

195
Q

Enzymes of serratia mercescens

A

Gelatinase
DNAse
Lipase

196
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti

197
Q

Transmission of coxiella burnetti

A

Inhalation of aerosols

198
Q

Cellulitis on bone renderers and fish mongers

A

Erysipelothrix rhusfopathiae

199
Q

Subungual hemorrhage

In s.aureus endocarditis

A

Osler’s node

200
Q

Dental plaques

Produce sulfur granules

A

Arachnia propionica

201
Q

Human granulocytotrophic ehrlichiosis

A

Anaplasma phagocytophila

202
Q

Scarlitiniform rash

A

Arcanobacterium hemolyticum

Med Prep (52 decks)

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