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Med Prep > ophtha - optical defects, optical motility, Neuro-ophtha > Flashcards

ophtha - optical defects, optical motility, Neuro-ophtha Flashcards

0
Q

Process by which the media alters the course of light

A

Refraction

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1
Q

2 ocular media

A

Cornea and lens

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2
Q

Refractive power of cornea

A

43 D (38-47)

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3
Q

Refractive power of lens

A

17 D (12-22)

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4
Q

Total refractive power

A

60 D

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5
Q

Measurement of refraction

A

Diopter

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6
Q

Total amt of disparity between the length of eye and RO of eye if accom is suspended

A

Total ametropia

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7
Q

Amt that accom can help

A

Latent ametropia

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8
Q

Amt that the lenses can help correct When accom is active, it is the diff between latent and total ametropia

A

Manifest ametropia

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9
Q

Light rays are not focused at a pt but at 2 planes. One or both if which are not at same level as plane of retina.

A

Astigmatism

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10
Q

Ametropia is hereditary

A

True

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11
Q

Refractive error of ___ are physiologic variation

A

<5 D

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12
Q

Indiv with ametropia complain of blurred vision which is improved with

A

Pinhole

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13
Q

Most common symptom of ametropia which is bilateral situated in frontal or temporal area, and most common in people with small RE.

A

Headache

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14
Q

Due to too short or too weak RP

A

Hyperopia

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15
Q

Convergent squint
Ant chamber is shallow
Pupil is smaller
Disc is smaller

A

Hyperopia

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16
Q

Management for hyperopia

A

Convex

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17
Q

Decreased or loss of power of accom

A

Presbyopia

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18
Q

Too long eyeball or too strong RP

A

Myopia

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19
Q

Also caused by centicular sclerosis as in incipient cataract.

A

Myopia

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20
Q

Divergent squint
Ant chamber is deep
Wider pupil
Bigger optic disc

A

Myopia

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21
Q

An extreme condi of myopia with hyper pigmentation

A

Myopic crescent

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22
Q

Management for myopia

A

Concave lens

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23
Q

Regular/irreg astigmatism: most common, there are only 2 focal lines produced

A

Regular

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24
Q

Astigmatism is hereditary

A

True

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25
Q

Astigmatism due to corneal scar or faulty surgical incision

A

Irreg astigmatism

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26
Q

Management for astigmatism

A

Cylindrical lense

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27
Q

Astigmatism with no accompanying spherical correction

A

Simple astigmatism

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28
Q

Objective method if refraction that catches the rays of light reflected at the pt’s retina whose source comes from a mirror near the examiner’s eye

A

Retinoscope

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29
Q

Method of refraction that administers drugs that paralyze accom

A

Cycloplegic refraction

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30
Q

Drugs to be uses for cycloplegic refraction for children <6 y/o

A

Atropine

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31
Q

Drugs to be uses for cycloplegic refraction for persons >38 y/o

A

Holm atropine
Cyclopenyolate
Topicamide

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32
Q

Measurement for corneal astigmatism

A

Keratometry

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33
Q

Shatter proof lenses. Ordinary lenses given to patient are made of

A

Crown glass

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34
Q

Additional protection can be given by ___ them which is made possible thru additional heating if ordinary lens ff by cooling

A

Hardening

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35
Q

Another way is to use ___ which do not break and are of light weight but appears thicker and scratch easily

A

Plastic lens

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36
Q

It is due to optical fatigue rather than excessive lighting

A

Glare

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37
Q

Used by persons exposed to excessive UV or infra-red rays

A

Colored lens

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38
Q

Useful in decreasing illum becoz half of light rays are diverted under wards. Consists of 2 laminated lenses.

A

Polarizing lenses (Polaroid)

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39
Q

Corneal lens becoz it is smaller than the diameter of cornea.
Corrects corneal astigmatism.
Cheaper and easier to clean
Needs build up period for tolerance

A

Hard lens

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40
Q

Hard lens is worn only for

A

8-12hrs with comfort

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41
Q

Scleral lens whose edges arrest beyond the cornea.
Corrects cornea not higher than 1D
More comfortable to wear and tolerable longer
Hard to sterilize becoz of too many pores

A

Soft lens

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42
Q

Intraocular lens is removed after ___ to avoid complication

A

15 yrs

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43
Q

2 images coming from each eye are perceived by brain as one

44
Q

Corresponds to plane of pull of that particular ms

A

Primary action

45
Q

Concomitant pulling effect that may happen becoz of change of position of eyeball from primary position

A

Secondary action

46
Q

Primary position

A

Straight forward

47
Q

One eye can not move in any direction without concomitant movement if the other. In order for both eyes to move in same direction, it will involve the action of at least one ms in each eye.

48
Q

Binocular vision is not present at birth

49
Q

Mos that follow large obj

50
Q

Mos that hold obj

51
Q

Mos that fix at an obj for 1-2min

52
Q

Visual acuity at birth

53
Q

Visual acuity at 1year

54
Q

Visual acuity at 3 yr

55
Q

Convergence present at what month

56
Q

Develops due to any interruption of development of binocular vision

A

Strabismus

57
Q

Measures angle do deviation in strabismus, 2 dissimilar targets are placed at end of 2 tubes and can be observed separately by 2eyes thru corresponding eyepiece

A

Amblyoscope

58
Q

Normal ms balance, when either eye show no deviation when fusion is partly or completely suspended.

A

Orthophoria

59
Q

Deviation that can be corrected by fusion mechanism. Elicited when fusion is partly interrupted.

A

Heterochromia

60
Q

Deviation manifested where in the fusion mechanism can not keep the eyes in parallel alignment.

A

Heterotropia

61
Q

Deviation due to excessive ms tone or excessive accom

A

Comitant heterotropia

62
Q

Deviation due to paresis or paralysis of one or more EOM

A

Non-Comitant or paralytic heterotropia

63
Q

Deviation of eye in presence of epicanthis or presence of drooping upper eyelid laterally

A

Pseudo-strabismus or false squint

64
Q

Most common strabismus

A

Comitant esotropia

65
Q

Esotropia that occurs in 1 y/o, MR is recessed (weakened) or LR is Resected (strengthened)

A

Non-accommodative esotropia

66
Q

Esotropia with high hyperopia (great degree of convergence) and deviation greater when fixing at near than far.

A

Accommodative esotropia

67
Q

Exotropia due to excessive ms tones of LR.

Either recessed LR or Resected MR

A

Non accommodative exotropia

68
Q

Exotropia with high myopia (minimal degree of convergence) and deviation greater when fixing at far than near.

A

Accommodative exotropia

69
Q

Where optic nerve fuse

A

Optic chiasm

70
Q

Visual cortex

A

Bowmann’s area 17

71
Q

Optic nerves don’t have neurolemal sheath (Schwann)

72
Q

Inflammation of optic nerve (optic neuritis) localized in optic disc ( sudden blurring if 1 eye)

A

Pappilitis

73
Q

Inflammation of optic nerve (optic neuritis) localized beyond the globe (no ophthalmoscopic finding)

A

Retrobulbar neuritis

74
Q

Hyperemic disc with blurred margin
Dilated blood vessels
Elevated disc
Macular star

A

Optic neuritis

75
Q

Swollen disc due to some interference of optic nerve circulation

A

Papilledema or choked disc

76
Q

In papilledema, there is visual disturbance and visual field is abnormal

77
Q

In optic atrophy, when nerve fibers are destroyed , they are replaced by ___ and the finer blood vessels ___

A

Neuro glial tissue and blood vessels closes

78
Q

Chiasmal lesions are commonly caused by

A

Pituitary tumors ans craniopharyngioma

79
Q

Lower/Upper portion of optic radiation is involved in CV accident

80
Q

Lower/Upper portion of optic radiation is involved in temporal lobe tumors and otitis abscess

81
Q

Cn that Elevates upper lid, constricts pupil and incites accommodation

82
Q

CN that do not decussate

83
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For invol conjugate movement

A

Vestibular nucleus

84
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For vol conjugate movement

A

2nd frontal gurus

85
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For lateral gaze

86
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For ff movement of eye

A

Occipital lobe

87
Q

Test for cn 3,4,6

A 
Levator function test
Duction test
Vergence test
Pupillary reaction
Accom test
Diplopia test
88
Q

Pis lateral oculomotor paralysis

Contralat intention tremors

A

Benedik’s syndrome

89
Q

Oculomotor paralysis
Contralat hemiplegia
Paralysis of tongue and lower part of face

A

Weber’s syndrome

90
Q

Cn3&4 paralysis
Contralat hemianesthesia
Hemiataxia

A

Claude’s syndrome

91
Q

Cn3 palsy

Cerebellar ataxia

A

Nothnagel’s syndrome

92
Q

Cn6&7 palsied

Contralat hemiplegia

A

Muller-gambler syndrome

93
Q

Cn6 palsy

Contralat hemiplegia

A

Raymond’s syndrome

94
Q

Cn5 receives fibers from ___ located outside brain

A

Gasserian ganglion

95
Q

Semilunar ganglion of cn5 receives 3 main branches

A

Ophthalmic branch
Maxillary branch - infra orbital n
Mandible branch

96
Q

Ophthalmic branch

A

Frontal branch - supra orbital, supratrochlear n
Lacrimal branch
Nasociliary branch - infra torchbearer

97
Q

Branch ophthalmic common in lesion

A

Frontal branch

98
Q

Tests for cn 5

A

Corneal reflex
Blinking reflected
Sensation of touch, pain and temp in lids

99
Q

Branch of cn7 that supplies the upper potion of OO

A

Frontal branch

100
Q

Branch of cn7 that supplies the lower portion of OO

A

Zygomatic branch

101
Q

Cn that closes the lids

102
Q

Lesion that involves corticobulbar pathways and upper facial ms is spared

A

UMN lesion

103
Q

Lesion that involves the nucleus or facial nerve and the entire half of face is paralyzed.

A

LMN lesion

104
Q

It’s vestibular division has connection to medial longitudinal fasciculus for control of conjugate eye movement in relation to movement of head

105
Q

Stimulation of nuclei turns the eye to opposite direction (slow component of nystagmus). But cortex sensing this abnormal condi rights them by making he eyes move back to other direction (quick)

106
Q

Para/sympa system: affects the pupil and iop

A

Sympathetic system

107
Q

Stimulation of sympathetic system induces pupillary dilation/constriction

A

Pupillary dilation

Med Prep (52 decks)

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