Microbio - all!

Question 0

Osteoperiostitis of the alveoli of the teeth

Secondary to gingivitis

Answer 0

Magitot’s disease

Question 1

Blue pus

By pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer 1

Charrin’s disease

Question 2

Durand’s disease is caused by

Answer 2

Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 3

Erythrasma is caused by

Answer 3

Corynebacterium minutissimum

Question 4

Tuberculous pericarditis

Cirrhosis of the liver

Answer 4

Hutinel’s disease

Question 5

Hutinel’s disease is caused by

Answer 5

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 6

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis

Answer 6

Armstrong’s disease

Question 7

Tyzzer’s disease is caused by

Answer 7

Bacillus pilliformis

Question 8

Chromoblastomycosis

Cauliflower like lesion

Answer 8

Chromomycosis

Question 9

Inflammation of tunica intima of cerebral arteries

Answer 9

Heubner’s disease

Question 10

Self limited diarrhea

Un pasteurized milk and untreated well water

Answer 10

Brainered diarrhea

Question 11

Phycomycosis, mucormycosis

Answer 11

Zygomycosis

Question 12

Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Red-violet lesions
Tendency to become malignant

Answer 12

Lewandowsky lutz disease

Question 13

Maduramycosis

Madura foot

Answer 13

Mycetoma

Question 14

Infectious ecematoid dermatitis

Answer 14

Engman’s disease

Question 15

Fourth disease

Answer 15

Duke’s disease

Question 16

Echinococcus multilocularis larvae infection

Answer 16

Hydatid disease, alveolar

Question 17

Sepsis of cirrhotic patient

Oyster ingestion

Answer 17

Vibrio vulnificus

Question 18

Chromomycosis is caused by …

Answer 18

Phialophora verrucosa, fonsecaea pedrosoi and

Clasposporium carrioni

Question 19

Prion disease
Mad cow disease
Degenerative brain disorder

Answer 19

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

Question 20

Rapidly progressive septicemia

Puncture wound from Fish spine

Answer 20

Fish-slime disease

Question 21

Diamond skin disease is caused by…

Answer 21

Strep pyogenes

Question 22

Lethargic encephalitis

Answer 22

Economo’s disease

Question 23

Endartritis obliterans

Answer 23

Friedlander’s disease

Question 24

Vesicles on penis or vagina

Answer 24

Durand’s disease

Question 25

Brown-symmers disease is an acute encephalitis. What are the viral pathogens that causes this?

Answer 25

Rabies
Rubella
Mumps
Measles
Influenza

Question 26

Echinococcus granulosus infection

Answer 26

Hydatid disease, unilocular

Question 27

Acute miliary TB of larynx and pharynx

Answer 27

Isambert’s disease

Question 28

Duke’s disease is caused by…

Answer 28

Coxsackie and echovirus

Question 29

Erysipelothrix insidiosa

Meat and fish handlers

Answer 29

Erysepeloid

Question 30

Osteochondritic separation of epiphyses due to syphilis

Answer 30

Wegner’s disease

Question 31

Transmission of armstrong’s disease

Answer 31

Food or dust contaminated by rodents

Question 32

Rheumatic endocarditis

Delayed sequel for pharyngeal infection by group B strep

Answer 32

Boulilauds disease

Question 33

Engman’s disease is caused by

Answer 33

Staph

Question 34

Mycetoma is caused by

Answer 34

Allescheria boydii or actinomycetales

Question 35

Polymorphous skin eruption

Etiology unknown

Answer 35

Habermann’s disease

Question 36

Congenital syphilis

By treponema pallidum

Answer 36

Duboi’s disease

Question 37

Superficial bacterial skin infection

Answer 37

Erythrasma

Question 38

Syphylitic disease of the bursa

By treponema pallidum

Answer 38

Verneuil’s disease

Question 39

Liver and intestine necrosis

Contact with rodents or dogs

Answer 39

Tyzzer’s disease

Question 40

Armstrongs’s disease is caused by

Answer 40

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus LCM of arena virus

Question 41

Swine erysipelas

Acute febrile vascular disease

Answer 41

Diamond-skin disease

Question 42

Economo’s disease is caused by

Answer 42

Neurotropic virus

Question 43

Diseases caused by coxsackie B3 and B5

Answer 43

Devil’s eye
Myocarditis and pericarditis
Pleurodynia (Bornholm’s disease)

Question 44

Rimantadine and amantadine action

Answer 44

Prevents viral un coating in influenza A

Question 45

CMV infection recurrence in immunocompromised patients, especially AIDS patient.

Answer 45

CMV retinitis

Question 46

Re activation to zoster from…

Answer 46

Dorsal root ganglia

Question 47

Incubation period of chickenpox

Answer 47

10-21 days

Question 48

Glycoprotein the breaks down neuraminic acid, an important component of mucin

Answer 48

NA

Question 49

Prion disease

Answer 49

Kuru
Gerstmann-straussler disease
Prion (13-3-3 protein)

Question 50

Positive sense RNA virus

Answer 50

PCCRaFT 
Picornavirus 
Calicivirus 
Coronavirus
Reovirus
Flavivirus
Togavirus

Question 51

Most common viral encephalitis in the Philippines

Answer 51

Japanese encephalitis

Question 52

Negative sense RNA viruses

Answer 52

"Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication"
Arenavirus
Bunyavirus
Paramyxovirus 
Orthomyxovirus
Filovirus
Rhabdovirus

Question 53

Diagnosis for parvovirus

Answer 53

PCR

Question 54

Primary infection of HSV 1

Answer 54

Gingivostomatitis - painful group of vesicles on the lips and mouth, which ulcerate and has usually without leaving a scar. Often accompanied by fever and viral symptoms

Question 55

Family of hepa D virus

Answer 55

Deltavirus

Question 56

Type of RNA virus which are like mRNA, they are immediately translated by the host’s ribosome into protein

Answer 56

Positive sense RNA virus

Question 57

Diagnostic preparation in isolating HSV

Answer 57

Tzanck smear, cowdry A

Question 58

Coxsackie A or B:

In mice, it causes paralysis and death with multiple organ damage

Answer 58

Coxsackie B

Question 59

Diseases caused by poliovirus

Answer 59

Mild flu-like illness
Nonparalytic poliomyelitis: Aseptic meningitis
Paralytic poliomyelitis

Question 60

Hepatitis that is chronic, cirrhosis, carcinoma and carrier

Answer 60

Hepatitis C

Question 61

Protein found in paramyxovirus that results in multinucleated giant cells (called syncytial cells)

Answer 61

F protein

Question 62

Non defective parvovirus strain

Answer 62

B19 virus

Question 63

Reoviruses

Answer 63

Respiratory, Enteric, Orphan

Question 64

Transfusion hepatitis

Answer 64

Hepatitis C

Question 65

Kluver-bucy syndrome

Answer 65

Herpes encephalitis

Question 66

Polio virus initially replicated in the tonsils and Peyer’s patches, spreading to the blood, and across cns barrier to the (anterior,posterior) horn of the spinal cord.

Answer 66

Anterior horn cells

Question 67

Intact virus of hepatitis B

Answer 67

Dane particle

Question 68

Hepatitis that may cause hepatocellular carcinoma

Answer 68

Hepatitis B and C

Question 69

All RNA virus are SIngle stranded, except…

Answer 69

Rotavirus

Reovirus

Question 70

Disease caused by parvovirus which ensues when the virus stops the production of RBCs in the bone marrow

Answer 70

Transient aplastic anemia crisis

Question 71

Transmission of poliovirus

Answer 71

Fecal-oral transmission

Question 72

Rhinovirus is acid-labile or acid-stable?

Answer 72

Acid-labile

Question 73

Also known as break bone fever

Answer 73

Dengue fever

Question 74

Treatment for CMV infection

Answer 74

Ganciclovir

Question 75

Caliciviruses

Answer 75

Norwalk virus

Hepatitis E

Question 76

Type of RNA virus that is transcribed in reverse fashion into DNA

Answer 76

Retrovirus

Question 77

Most common cause of common cold

Answer 77

Rhinovirus

Question 78

Papovavirus
Polyomavirus that causes mild and ASYMPTOMATIC infection in children. Also seen from immunosuppressive kidney transplant patients and HPV.

Answer 78

BK polyomavirus

Question 79

RNA virus has this enzyme for synthesis.

Answer 79

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Question 80

Building block of capsid

Answer 80

Capsomer

Question 81

Herpesvirus that cause infectious mononucleosis

Answer 81

EBV

Question 82

RNA viruses that cause gastroenteritis

Answer 82

Rotavirus (reovirus)

Calicivirus

Question 83

Causes adult acute t-cell leukemia and tropical spastic paraparesis (partial paralysis of lower limb)

Answer 83

Human T lymphotrophic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)

Question 84

Retrovirus has this required enzyme for synthesis

Answer 84

Reverse transcriptase

Question 85

Virus that cause common cold and has prominent halo and spikes

Answer 85

Coronavirus

Question 86

TORCHES can cross blood-placental barrier

Answer 86

Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
CMV
Herpes, HIV
Syphilis

Question 87

Most frequent cause of viral (aseptic) meningitis

Answer 87

Mumps virus
Coxsackie
Echovirus

Question 88

Intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in yellow fever virus infection

Answer 88

Councilman bodies - acidophilic inclusion

Question 89

Most important antigen of EBV

Answer 89

Viral capsid antigen (VCA)

Question 90

Diseases caused by HSV 1

Answer 90

Gingivostomatitis
Encephalitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Herpes labialis

Question 91

Largest virus

Answer 91

Poxvirus

Question 92

Poxvirus that is Completely eradicated worldwide

Answer 92

Variola virus

Question 93

Type of RNA virus which should be transcribed first into positive sense RNA virus.

Answer 93

Negative sense RNA virus

Question 94

Bronchiolitis

Answer 94

RSV

Question 95

Infectious RNA

Hamstring Myalgia

Answer 95

Poliovirus

Question 96

Influenza B and C infects…

Answer 96

Human only

Question 97

HPV genes implicated in carcinogenesis

Answer 97

E6, E7 genes

Question 98

Non paralytic polio

Answer 98

Aseptic meningitis

Question 99

Australian antigen

Answer 99

Hepatitis B

Question 100

True or false : genetic material of viruses may be both DNA and RNA.

Answer 100

False. Never both

Question 101

Intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in poliovirus infection

Answer 101

Cowdry B

Question 102

Aka slow virus

Answer 102

Lentivirus

Question 103

Only occurs in inflenza A because of trading of RNA segments between animals and human strains. It is a reassortment, a major changes of the HA and NA resulting in devastating influenza pandemics.

Answer 103

Antigenic shift

Question 104

Difference between Orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus

Answer 104

Combined HA and NA Glycoprotein (wherein in Orthomyxovirus they are separate)
Has fusion protein (F protein)

Question 105

Treatment for poliovirus

Answer 105

Pleconaril - inhibits penetration
Salk vaccine - formalin-killed poliovirus injected subQ
Sabin vaccine (OPV) - attenuated polio virus is ingested

Question 106

Small mutations resulting in minor changes in the antigenicity of NA or HA. This results in epidemics go the common flu.

Answer 106

Antigenic drift

Question 107

HSV 8 transmission

Answer 107

Sexually transmitted especially in homosexual men

Question 108

Influenza A infects..

Answer 108

Human and animals

Question 109

physical separation of the viral nucleic acid from the outer structural components of the virion so that it can function.

Answer 109

Uncoating

Question 110

Disease caused by b19 virus of parvovirus with characteristic “slapped cheek” rash.

Answer 110

Erythema infectiosum

Question 111

Diseases caused by poxvirus

Answer 111

Smallpox

Molluscum contagiosum - small white bumps with central dimple (like wart). Often found in genital region.

Question 112

Gamma group herpesvirus

Answer 112

EBV, HSV-8

Question 113

Catarrhal

Answer 113

Measles virus

Question 114

Recurrence of VZV leads to what disease?

Answer 114

Shingles - painful eruption of vesicles isolated in a single dermatome. The vesicles dry up and form crusts which disappears in about 3wks.

Question 115

All DNA virus have linear DNA, except…

Answer 115

Papovavirus

Hepadnavirus

Question 116

Entire infectious unit

Answer 116

Virion

Question 117

Steps of viral replication

Answer 117

1. Adsorption and penetration
2. Uncoating
3. Synthesis and assembly of viral products
4. Release of virions from host cell (by lysis or by budding)

Question 118

Most common viral cause of infant pneumonia

Answer 118

RSV

Question 119

T or F: acute viral hepatitis never becomes chronic in hepatitis A

Answer 119

True

Question 120

All RNA virus are enveloped, except…

Answer 120

PCR
Picornavirus
Calicivirus
Reovirus

Question 121

Characteristic appearance of the vesicle rash in chickenpox

Answer 121

Dew drop lesion on the top of a rose petal

Question 122

Herpesvirus causes this type of infection where in the virus migrates up to the nerves to sensory ganglia and reside there. It will be activated in peripheral skin

Answer 122

Latency

Question 123

Focal micro glial nodules in rabies

Answer 123

Babes nodules

Question 124

Arenaviruses

Answer 124

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCM)

Lassa virus

Question 125

Arthropod borne viruses (arbovirus)

Answer 125

Togavirus
Flavivirus
Bunyavirus

Question 126

Dengue fever is a biphasic fever. What is its vector

Answer 126

Aedes mosquitoes

Question 127

T or F: IFN does not protect virus-infected cell and not itself the antiviral agent

Answer 127

True

Question 128

Forscheimer spots

Answer 128

Rubella virus

Question 129

All DNA virus have icosahedral capsid, except…

Answer 129

Pox virus

Question 130

Family of hepa G virus

Answer 130

Flavivirus

Question 131

Enteric hepatitis C

Answer 131

Hepatitis E

Question 132

Family of hepa C virus

Answer 132

Flavivirus

Question 133

Type I or viral IFN

Answer 133

IFN alpha and beta

Question 134

Most common poliomyelitis

Answer 134

Abortive poliomyelitis

Question 135

Rhinovirus replicates better in what temperature

Answer 135

33 degrees centigrade

Question 136

Steps in viral pathogenesis

Answer 136

1. Viral entry
2. Primary viral replication
3. Viral spread
4. Cellular injury
5. Host immune responses
6. Viral clearance
7. Viral shedding

Question 137

Papovavirus
Polyomavirus that causes Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) characterized by degenerative cns white matter disease

Answer 137

JC polyomavirus

Question 138

Varicella is highly contagious. It causes what disease?

Answer 138

Chickenpox

Question 139

DNA virus which is circular and ds. The complete strand not covalently closed circle and other strand is missing approximately 25% of its length

Answer 139

Hepadnavirus

Question 140

Virulence factor / glycoproteins of Orthomyxovirus

Answer 140

Hemagglutinin (HA)

Neuraminidase (NA)

Question 141

type II or immune interferon

Answer 141

IFN Gamma

Question 142

Papovavirus that causes warts

Answer 142

HPV

Question 143

HPV type that causes verucca vulgaris and condylomata accuminata (hallmark: koilocytes)

Answer 143

HPV type 6,11

Question 144

causes the epidemic keratoconjunctivitis.

Answer 144

Adenovirus type 8

Question 145

Diseases caused by coxsackie A

Answer 145

Herpangina - fever, sore throat and small red-based vesicles over the back of the patient’s throat
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

Question 146

Family of hepa B virus

Answer 146

Hepadnavirus

Question 147

Most common viral cause of infant diarrhea

Answer 147

Rotavirus

Question 148

Chemical treatment for genital warts

Answer 148

Podophyllin

Question 149

Retroviruses

Answer 149

Oncovirus

Lentivirus

Question 150

Diagnostic tests for EBV

Answer 150

Paul-bundle test
Heterophil antibody test (positive by 2wks of illness)
Monospot test

Question 151

Infectious particles composed solely of protein with no detectable nucleic acid.

Answer 151

Prion

Question 152

Diseases caused by bunyavirus

Answer 152

Encephalitis
Korean hemorrhagic fever
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
Muerto canyon virus

Question 153

Xanthochromic CSF is a finding in …

Answer 153

Herpes encephalitis

Question 154

HSV 6 transmission

Answer 154

Transmitted by saliva

Question 155

Envelope is acquired from

Answer 155

Budding

Question 156

Creutzfieldt-Jakob syndrome
Heidenheim dementia
90% die in 1year
Corneal transplant

Answer 156

Prion (13-3-3 protein)

Question 157

Beta group herpesvirus

Answer 157

CMV, HSV-6

Question 158

HSV 2 latency in …

Answer 158

Lumbar or sacral sensory ganglia

Question 159

Alpha group herpes virus

Answer 159

HSV-1
HSV-2
VZV

Question 160

HPV type that causes common warts

e.g. Verucca plantaris, skin warts

Answer 160

HPV type 1, 2, 4 and 7

Question 161

Appears during early acute phase and disappears before HBcAg is gone

Answer 161

Hep B 37 Ag (HBeAg)

Question 162

Influenza a treatment

Answer 162

Amantadine and rimantidine

Question 163

Picornaviruses

Answer 163

Enterovirus: poliovirus, coxsackie A&B, echovirus, hepatitis A
Rhinovirus

Question 164

Hydrophobia and foaming of mouth in rabies is due to

Answer 164

Laryngospasm

Question 165

Vaccine for poxvirus

Answer 165

Vaccinia virus - an avirulent pox virus

Question 166

Small infectious agents that cause diseases of plants.

Answer 166

Viroids

Question 167

Do not give aspirin in children for fever,. You give what?

Answer 167

Acetaminophen

Question 168

Diseases caused by HSV 2

Answer 168

Genital herpes
Neonatal herpes
Aseptic meningitis in neonates

Question 169

Characteristic appearance in roseola

Answer 169

Nagayama spots - in uvopalatoglossal junction

Question 170

HSV type lesions below the waist

Answer 170

HSV 2

Question 171

All DNA virus are double stranded, except…

Answer 171

Parvovirus

Question 172

Paramyxoviruses

Answer 172

Parainfluenza virus
RSV
Mumps virus
Measles virus (rubeola)

Question 173

Japanese encephalitis vector

Answer 173

Culex mosquitoes

Question 174

RNA virus

Answer 174

PCR TCORPR
picornavirus
Calicivirus
Reovirus
Toga virus
Corona virus
Orthomyxovirus
Rhabdovirus
Paramyxovirus
Retrovirus

Question 175

Mode of transmission of HSV-1

Answer 175

Direct contact of mucus membrane

Question 176

All DNA virus replicates in nucleus, except…

Answer 176

Pox virus which replicates in cytoplasm

Question 177

Hepatitis that enteric and for expectant mother

Answer 177

Hepatitis E

Question 178

Paramyxovirus that has no HA and NA

Answer 178

RSV

Question 179

Family of hepa E virus

Answer 179

Calicivirus

Question 180

HSV 1 latency in …

Answer 180

Trigeminal ganglia

Question 181

Incubation of Hepatitis A

Answer 181

14-45 days

Question 182

Mumps virus has only one antigenic type. Therefore, the MMR vaccine is protective. What is the antigen?

Answer 182

“S” soluble antigen

Question 183

Disease caused by parainfluenza virus characterized by strider and barking cough due to infection and swelling of larynx

Answer 183

Croup

Question 184

Mononucleosis is a dse of young adults. As with viral infections, the lower the socioeconomic class, the earlier children are indeed and the milder disease. American teenagers living in high socioeconomic class with better sanitation are infected later in life through social contact such as kissing. Thus the reference to kissing’s disease. What virus causes this?

Answer 184

EBV

Question 185

CMV infection recurrence in immunocompromised patients, especially bone marrow transplant patients

Answer 185

CMV pneumonitis

Question 186

Filovirus that cause mucus membrane bleeding (hemorrhagic fever)

Answer 186

Ebola virus

Question 187

Disease caused by HSV 8

Answer 187

Kaposi’s sarcoma
Castleman’s disease (lympho proliferative disorder)
Primary effusion lymphoma

Question 188

RNA viruses that cause common cold.

Answer 188

Coronavirus and rhinovirus (picornavirus)

Question 189

Herpesviruses has this effect, especially HSV 1&2, and VZV. This results in separation of epithelium and causes blisters.

Answer 189

Cytopathic effect - cause cell destruction

Question 190

Transmission of hepatitis A and E

Answer 190

Fecal-oral route

Question 191

HPV type that causes genital warts

Answer 191

HPV type 6,11,16,18

Question 192

Hepatitis that only carries DNA polymerase within the virion

Answer 192

Hepatitis B

Question 193

RNA virus that contains nonfunctional ribosomes on its surface.

Answer 193

Arenavirus

Question 194

Treatment fro HSV 1&2 and VZV

Answer 194

Acyclovir

Question 195

Smallest virus

Answer 195

Picornavirus, parvovirus

Question 196

Characterized by high fever, black vomitus, jaundice

Answer 196

Yellow fever

Question 197

Family of hepa A virus

Answer 197

Picornavirus

Question 198

Hepatitis that is asymptomatic, alone and acute

Answer 198

Hepatitis A

Question 199

Cannibalism-related prion disease

Answer 199

Kuru “shivering”

Question 200

Coxsackie A or B:

In mice, it causes paralysis and death with extensive skeletal muscle necrosis

Answer 200

Coxsackie A

Question 201

Wheel-shape appearance

Answer 201

Rotavirus

Question 202

DNA virus

Answer 202

HHAPPPy , PHP AHP
Parvovirus
Hepadnavirus
Papovavirus
Adenovirus
Herpes virus
Poxvirus

Question 203

Herpes viruses

Answer 203

Herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2 HSV
Varicella-zoster virus VZV
cytomegalovirus CMV
Epstein-Barr virus EBV

Question 204

Enveloped viruses are heat labile

Answer 204

True

Question 205

Paramyxovirus that only has HA and F protein

Answer 205

Measles (rubeola)

Question 206

Disease caused by HSV 6

Answer 206

Roseola infantum (6th disease, exanthem subitum)

Question 207

All RNA virus have helical capsid symmetry, except…

Answer 207

PCRFT, R
Picornavirus 
Calicivirus
Reovirus
Flavivirus
Togavirus 
Rhabdovirus - bullet-shaped

Question 208

Host cell outcome

Answer 208

1. Death

2. Transformation - oncogene

Question 209

RNA virus that cannot replicate without hepa B

Answer 209

Deltavirus

Question 210

Disassociation of Dane particles leaves..

Answer 210

HBcAg and HBsAg

Question 211

Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion in rabies virus

Answer 211

Negri bodies

Question 212

HPV type that causes cervical cancer

Answer 212

HPV type 16,18

Question 213

Antigen found within nuclei of infected hepatocytes

Answer 213

HBcAg

Question 214

Mode of transmission of HSV-2

Answer 214

Sexually transmitted

Question 215

Incubation of hepatitis B

Answer 215

50-180 days

Question 216

Diseases caused by b19 strain of parvovirus

Answer 216

Erythema infectiosum

Transient aplastic anemia crisis

Question 217

Disease caused by influenza virus

Answer 217

Flu fever

Question 218

Transmission of Hepatitis B, C, D

Answer 218

Blood transfusion
Needle stick
Sexual
Across placenta

Question 219

RNA virus that causes rabies

Answer 219

Rhabdovirus

Question 220

Major target cell of EBV

Answer 220

B lymphocytes, binding to C3d receptor

Question 221

HSV type lesions above the waist

Answer 221

HSV 1

Question 222

Recurrent infection of measles after 2 years

Answer 222

Subacute sclerosing para encephalitis (SSPE)

Question 223

What are the papovaviruses?

Answer 223

Papillomavirus (HPV)
Polyomavirus
Vacuolating viruses (SV40)

Question 224

Bunyavirus that is not arbovirus

Answer 224

Hantavirus

Question 225

Filoviruses

Answer 225

Ebola virus

Marburg virus

Question 226

Togavirus that is not arbovirus

Answer 226

Rubivirus

Question 227

DNA virus that causes childhood URTI such as rhinitis, sore throat, fever and conjunctivitis, and the epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (pink eye)

Answer 227

Adenovirus

Question 228

Recurrent infection of HSV 1

Answer 228

Herpes labialis (fever blisters,cold sore)

Question 229

Hematologic hallmark of Monocucleosis

Answer 229

Atypical lymphocytes

Question 230

Autosomal dominant prion disease

Supranuclear gaze palsy

Answer 230

Gerstmann- straussler disease

Question 231

Virus particle that is functionally deficient in some aspect for replication

Answer 231

Defective virus

Question 232

All RNA virus replicates in cytoplasm, except…

Answer 232

Retrovirus

Orthomyxovirus

Question 233

Segmental viruses

Answer 233

BORA
bunyavirus
Orthomyxovirus
Reovirus
Arenavirus

Question 234

Intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in herpes encephalitis

Answer 234

Cowdry A

Question 235

RNA virus that cause rubella (German measles/ 3-day measles)

Answer 235

Rubivirus

Question 236

Vector of yellow fever virus

Answer 236

Aedes mosquito

Question 237

Glycoprotein that binds with sialic acid, often found in the surface of RBC.

Answer 237

HA

Question 238

Vaccine for rubella

Answer 238

MMR vaccine
Measles
Mumps
Rubella

Question 239

Host-coded proteins that are member of cytokines and which inhibits viral replication.

Answer 239

Interferon (IFN)

Question 240

Hepatitis that is defective and dependent to hepatitis B

Answer 240

Hepatitis D

Question 241

Protein coat of viruses

Answer 241

Capsid

Question 242

Diseases caused by flavivirus

Answer 242

Yellow fever
Dengue fever
Japanese encephalitis
St. Louis encephalitis
West Nile encephalitis
Hepatitis c

Question 243

Orthomyxovirus

Answer 243

Influenza virus (a,b,c)

Question 244

Togaviruses

Answer 244

Alpha virus:
WEE
VEE
EEE

Rubivirus

Question 245

Neuraminidase inhibitors that can shorten course of influenza A and B infection

Answer 245

Zanamivir (inhaled)

Oseltamivir (oral)

Question 246

Soluble component of HBcAg and a markers of active disease and highly infectious

Answer 246

HBeAg

Question 247

HPV type that causes laryngeal warts

Answer 247

HPV type 6,11

Question 248

Incubation period of poliovirus

Answer 248

7-14 days or 3-35days

Question 249

Diseases caused by EBV

Answer 249

BHINK
Burkitt’s lymphoma: B cell lympho affecting children in central Africa
Hodgkin’s disease : lymphoma characterized by arising in a single node or chain of nodes, spreading in anatomically contagious nodes
Infectious mononucleosis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Kissing’s disease

Question 250

Phase of viral growth cycle where in soon after interaction with a host cell, the infecting virion is disrupted and its measurable infectivity is lost.

Answer 250

Eclipse period

Question 251

Disease that travels to the cns in a retrograde fashion up to the nerve axon

Answer 251

Rhabdovirus

Question 252

Parvovirus that requires helper virus to replicate

(+) and (-) strand DNA are carried on separate particles

Answer 252

Defective parvovirus

Question 253

Complication of influenza virus infection

Answer 253

Secondary bacterial pneumonia in elderly

Reye’s syndrome: children who use aspirin and get liver and brain disease

Question 254

Hematologic hallmark in CMV

Answer 254

Owl’s eye inclusion

Question 255

Diseases caused by mumps virus

Answer 255

Parotitis
Orchitis (in post pubertal male
Meningitis
Encephalitis

Question 256

T or F: maternal antibody against mumps virus provide protection during 6months of life

Answer 256

True

Question 257

T or F: Icosahedral viruses tend to be stable, losing little infectivity after several hours at 37 °C.

Answer 257

True

Question 258

Incubation of mumps virus

Answer 258

18-21 days

Question 259

The koplik’s spot in measles occur after 1-2days of prodrome. It is small red based blue-white centered lesions in the mouth found specifically in..

Answer 259

Opposite the 2nd upper molar

Question 260

DNA virus that has brick-like appearance

Answer 260

Poxvirus

Question 261

Sandy appearance

Answer 261

Arenavirus

Question 262

Hepatitis that is blood-borne, big, bad, body-fluid

Answer 262

Hepatitis B

Question 263

Typical lesion of staph aureus

Answer 263

Abscess

Question 264

Tetracycline inhibits what ribosomal unit?

Answer 264

30s

Question 265

Growth media which is the source of AA and N (beef,yeast extracts)
An undefined medium because AA source contains variety of cmpds with the exact composition being unknown
Contains all the elements that most bacteria needed for growth and are non selective

Answer 265

Nutrient agar

Question 266

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Thayer-Martin or New York City agar

Answer 266

Neisseria with area of normal flora

Question 267

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Buffered charcoal-yeast extract (BCYE) agar

Answer 267

Legionella

Question 268

Ribosome subunits of fungi, Protozoa, helminths, animals and humans

Answer 268

80s

Question 269

Exotoxins that binds to MHC II receptors

Non specifically activates large number of T cells

Answer 269

Superantigen exotoxins

Question 270

Examples of differential media

Answer 270

Blood agar
Eosin methylene blue EMB
MacConkey 
Mannitol salt agar MSA
X-gal plates

Question 271

Staph that causes UTI in sexually active women

2nd to e.coli

Answer 271

Staph saprophyticus

Question 272

Tears, saliva, and mucus has natural antimicrobial property

This enzyme cleaves the peptidoglycan backbone by breaking GLYCOSYL BOND

Answer 272

Lysozyme

Question 273

Strep pneumoniae is encapsulated thus exhibits what reaction

Answer 273

Quellung reaction

Question 274

Reserve of high energy stored in the form POLYMERIZED METAPHOSPHATE.

Answer 274

Volutin granules

Question 275

(-) peptidoglycan

(+) sterols

Answer 275

Eukaryotes

Question 276

Treatment for strep saprophiticus

Answer 276

Quinolones

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Question 277

Enriched media in which nutritionally rich whole blood supplements is the basic nutrient.

Answer 277

Blood agar

Question 278

Disease caused by staph epidermidis

Answer 278

IV catheter infections

Endocarditis on normal prosthetic heart valves

Question 279

Requires living host cells for growth thus they are the only obligatory intracellular organism among bacteria

Answer 279

Rickettsia and chlamydia

Question 280

Enterococci is resistant to vancomycin because of different cross-linking sequence in the cell wall of the bacteria

Answer 280

D-ala-lactate

Question 281

Enzymes of beta hemolytic

Answer 281

Streptolysin o and S (hemolysin)

Question 282

Processes of DNA transfer on bacteria

Answer 282

Conjugation, transformation, transduction

Question 283

The energy for flagellar movement provided by ATP

Answer 283

Proton-motive force

Question 284

Enriched media that contains heat-treated blood (40-45c) which turns brown

Answer 284

Chocolate agar

Question 285

Differential media for lactose fermentation

Answer 285

Macconkey

Question 286

Nutrient agar medium composition

Answer 286

Beef extract- 0.3g (mineral and carbo)

Question 287

A membrane disrupting bacterial exotoxins which contain lecithinase showing a double zone of hemolysis.

Answer 287

Cl. Perfringens alpha toxin

Question 288

Basis of the selective action of several antibiotics

Answer 288

Differences in ribosomal RNAs and proteins

Question 289

Inclusion bodies formed when source of N, S, P are depleted and there is excess C

Answer 289

Poly beta hydroxybutyric acid (PHB acid)

Question 290

Green zone, incomplete hemolysis

Answer 290

Alpha hemolytic

Question 291

Growth at 4C

Answer 291

Y. Enterocolitica

L. Monocytogenes

Question 292

Treatment for staph aureus

Answer 292

Prp
Vancomycin (if methicillin or nafcillin resistant)
Clindamycin
Nafcillin or cloxacillin (if beta lactamases resistant)

Question 293

Backbone of peptidoglycan

Answer 293

Alternating n-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid molecules

Question 294

Transfer of naked forms of DNA which occurs in same sp of bacteria

Answer 294

Transformation

Question 295

Enzyme reaction that produces O2 + H + NADP

Answer 295

NADPH oxidase

Question 296

Capsule of bacillus anthracis is not composed of polysaccharide, it is composed of..

Answer 296

Glutamic acid

Question 297

Linear pcs of DNA

Answer 297

Exogenates

Question 298

Murein or mucopeptide
Structural support and maintains the characteristic shape
Able to withstand media of low osmotic pressure

Answer 298

Peptidoglycan

Question 299

Transport media that uses broth for strict anaerobes

Answer 299

Thioglycolate

Question 300

Type minimal media the contains a single selected agent, usually AA or sugar.
This allows the culturing of specific lines of auxotrophic recombinants

Answer 300

Supplementary minimal media

Question 301

Different types of media for growing different types of cell

Answer 301

Differential media
Enriched media
Nutrient media
Transport media
Selective media

Question 302

Diseases caused by staph aureus (6)

Answer 302

Mastitis
Blepharitis 
Cellulitis
Osteomyelitis
Food poisoning
TSS

Question 303

Spore-forming bacteria

Answer 303

Clostridium and bacillus

Question 304

Flagellum-like structure that provides undulating motion for spirochetes

Answer 304

Axial filament

Question 305

Normal flora of conjunctiva

Answer 305

Diptheroids, staph epidermidis and non hemolytic strep

Question 306

Found in the outer layer of gram positive bacteria
Antigenic, induce ab that are SPECIES-SPECIFIC
mediates the adherence of staph to mucosal cells

Answer 306

Teichoic acid

Question 307

Toxin of vibrio cholerae
Catalyzes ADP-ribosylation of Gs protein ECG activates adenylcyclase that produces high level of cAMP, thus increases water and acid secretion

Answer 307

Choleragen

Question 308

Most common resident of upper respiratory tract

Answer 308

Alpha hemolytic strep and neisseria

Question 309

A selective differential agar used to isolate and identify member of enterococcus

Answer 309

Bile esculine agar

Question 310

Coagulase (-)

Answer 310

Staph epidermidis and staph saprophyticus

Question 311

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Loeffler’s and tellurite medium

Answer 311

Corynebacterium diptheria

Question 312

Growth media used for the growth of only selected microorganisms.
An antibiotic (by which the selective microorganisms is resistant) is added to the medium in order to prevent other cells, which do not posses the resistance, from growing.

Answer 312

Selective media

Question 313

Growth media that contains minimum nutrients possible for colony growth.
Often used to grow wild type microorganism.
Used to select or used against recombinants or exconjugants

Answer 313

Minimal media

Question 314

Selective and differential bacterial media:

TCBS (alkaline medium)

Answer 314

Vibrio cholerae

Question 315

Transport media for vibrio cholera

Answer 315

Venkat-ramakrishnan medium

Question 316

Evasion of immediate host defense:

Listeria

Answer 316

Listeriolysin

Question 317

Components of anthrax toxin

Answer 317

Protective Antigen (PA) that serves as B component
Edema factor (EF) that activates adenylcyclase 
Lethal factor (LF) kills cell

Question 318

Teichoic acid is a polymer of (2)

Answer 318

Glycosyl phosphate and ribitol phosphate

Question 319

Complete cell wall lysozyme digestion

Answer 319

Protoplast

Question 320

Membrane disrupting exotoxins

Answer 320

Pore-forming cytolysin

Question 321

Is cell wall or cell membrane antigenic?

Answer 321

Yes

Question 322

Examples of defined media

Answer 322

Nutrient agar medium
Peptone
Agar

Question 323

Bacteria that grow well in tap and distilled water

Answer 323

Psedomonasl

Question 324

Toxins of staph aureus and its manifestations

Answer 324

Enterotoxin: vomiting, watery and nonbloody diarrhea
TSST: asso with tampon use, superantigen
Exfoliatin: phage II staph, scalded skin syndrome, superantigen
Alpha toxin: skin necrosis

Question 325

Inhibits enolase

Answer 325

Fluoride ion

Question 326

Microaerophilic

Answer 326

Campylobacter, helicobacter

Question 327

Strep pyogenes has what type of capsule

Answer 327

Hyluronic acid capsule

Question 328

Bacteria that escapes macrophage and grow inside them

Answer 328

RuMBLeS
Rickettsia
mycobacteria
Brucella
listeria
shigella

Question 329

Responsible for toxic effects of endotoxins. Found in LPS in OM.

Answer 329

Lipid A

Question 330

Spores can be destroyed this steam heating

Answer 330

Autoclaving at 121C for 30 min, psi of 15

Question 331

Peptone composition

Answer 331

0. 5g protein and N source

0. 5g NaCl as electrolyte

Question 332

Site of beta-lactamases

Answer 332

Periplasmic space

Question 333

Pore forming cytolysin

Answer 333

Alpha toxin by staph aureus

Question 334

Colonize with further spread

Answer 334

Strep. Pneumoniae
Neisseria gonorrheae and meningitidis
H. Influenzae

Question 335

Mediates the adherence and phage typing in staph aureus

Answer 335

Teichoic acid

Question 336

Examples of nutrient media

Answer 336

Blood agar

Chocolate agar

Question 337

Acid-fast bacteria

Answer 337

Mycobacterial

Question 338

Neurotoxin of Cl. Tetani which act on cns, inhibiting the inhibitory transmitter GABA

Answer 338

Tetanospasmin

Question 339

Transport media that has a non-nutrient soft agar gel containing a reducing agent to prevent oxidation, charcoal to neutralize

Answer 339

Stuart transport medium

Question 340

Transfer of bacterial genes via phage vectors

Answer 340

Transduction

Question 341

Homologous recombination requires what protein

Answer 341

Rec A protein

Question 342

Partial cell wall lysozyme digestion

Answer 342

Spheroplast

Question 343

Strep pyogene is sensitive to..

Answer 343

Bacitracin

Question 344

(+) peptidoglycan

(-) sterols

Answer 344

Prokaryotes

Question 345

Neurotoxin of Cl. Botulinum that acts on peripheral synapses, blocking the release of neurotransmitters

Answer 345

Botulinum toxin

Question 346

Selective and differential bacterial media:

EMB or MacConkey

Answer 346

Enteric bacteria

Question 347

Hemolytic activity of strep pneumoniae

Answer 347

Alpha hemolytic

Question 348

Obligate anaerobes

Answer 348

Actinomyces
Bacteroides
Clostridium

Question 349

Enzyme reaction that produces H2O + O2

Answer 349

Catalase

Question 350

Bacterium that is an obligate parasite

Answer 350

Treponema PALLIDUM

Question 351

(-) teichoic acid; endotoxins

Answer 351

Gram negative bacteria

Question 352

Test in lancefield classification

Answer 352

Precipitin test

Question 353

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Chocolate agar

Answer 353

Haemophilus and neisseria for sterile area

Question 354

Involved in cross-linking

Answer 354

D-alanine

Question 355

Superantigen exotoxins examples

Answer 355

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST) by staph aureus

Strep pyogenes exotoxin A (SPE-A)

Question 356

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is nutrient depletion or toxic products slow down growth until the number of new cells produced balances the cells that die
(Living=death)

Answer 356

Stationary phase

Question 357

Minimal media contains

Answer 357

Carbon source (succinate)
Salts (Mg, N, P)
Water

Question 358

(+) teichoic acid; exotoxin

Answer 358

Gram positive

Question 359

Bacteria reproduce by this process in which one parent cell divides to form 2 progeny cells

Answer 359

Binary fission

Question 360

Bacteria that has thick peptidoglycan

Answer 360

Gram (+) bacteria

Question 361

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is a marked decline on the number of viable bacteria.

Answer 361

Death phase

Question 362

They have chitin, which is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine

Answer 362

Fungi

Question 363

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis (5)

Answer 363

Diptheria toxin
Exotoxin A
Shigella toxin
Shigalike toxin 
Verotoxin

Question 364

Differential media mannitol fermentation

Answer 364

Mannitol salt agar

Question 365

Gelatinous layer covering the entire bacterium

Composed of polysaccharide

Answer 365

Capsule

Question 366

No hemolysis

Answer 366

Gamma hemolytic

Question 367

Differential media that is used in strep test, contains bovine heart blood that becomes transparent in the presence of hemolytic streptococcus

Answer 367

Blood agar

Question 368

Evasion of immediate host defense:

Mycoplasma

Answer 368

Ciliastasis

Question 369

It a liquid or gel designed to support the growth of microorganisms or cells.

Answer 369

Growth medium or culture medium

Question 370

Staph epidermidis is the normal flora of…

Answer 370

Skin ans mucus membrane

Question 371

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Regan-Lowe

Answer 371

Bordetella pertussis

Question 372

Evasion of immediate host defense:

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 372

Sulfolipids (sulfatides)

Question 373

A single circular molecule of loosely organized DNA lacking a nuclear membrane and mitotic apparatus

Answer 373

Nucleiod

Question 374

Obligate aerobes

Answer 374

Pseudomonas

Mycobacteirum

Question 375

Component of exotoxin that binds to specific cell surface receptors and initiates internalization of the A component. It determines what cell type each toxin damages.

Answer 375

B component

Question 376

What is the type of sex pili used for bacterial conjugation

Answer 376

Type VII

Question 377

Treatment for staph epidermidis

Answer 377

Vancomycin

Question 378

Produce igA protease

Answer 378

N. gonorrheae and meningitidis

H. Influenzae type B

Question 379

Spores contains their own DNA

What structure Coats the spores?

Answer 379

Dipicolinic acid (calcium chelator)

Question 380

Toxin of enterotoxic e.coli

Internalize A component to ADP-ribosylates Gs, which activates an adenylcyclase that produces high level of cAMP

Answer 380

Labile toxin

Question 381

Strep pneumonia does not live in the presence of…

Answer 381

bile and optochin

Question 382

Oxygen generates 2 toxic molecules

Answer 382

Hydrogen peroxide

Superoxide radicals

Question 383

(+) sterols

Smallest bacteria

Answer 383

Mycoplasma

Mycoplasma genitalium (468 genes)

Question 384

Bacteria infected by virus

Answer 384

Bacteriophage

Question 385

Obligate intracellular pathogens

Answer 385

Mycobacterium leprae
Chlamydia
Mycoplasma

Question 386

Peptidoglycan synthesis is inhibited by..

Answer 386

Penicillin and cephalosporin

Question 387

Functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell on half and as the binding site of DNA bacterial ribosomes

Answer 387

Mesosome

Question 388

Cross linking enzyme on the surface of bacteria which is targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics

Answer 388

Transpeptidase

Question 389

Growth media that distinguishes one microorganism type to another.
This uses biochemical characteristics of the microorganism growing in the presence of specific nutrients or indicators

Answer 389

Differential or indicator media

Question 390

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Hektoen enteric agar

Answer 390

Salmonella and shigella spa

Question 391

One of the ways to visualize capsules, where it swells in the presence of homologous antibodies

Answer 391

Quellung reaction

Question 392

A polysaccharide coating secreted by many bacteria

Adhere to various structures such as on the surface of teeth by strep.mutans

Answer 392

Glycocalyx or slime layer

Question 393

Examples of transport media

Answer 393

Thioglycolate
Stuart transport medium
Venkat-ramakrishnan medium

Question 394

They are determined by its rigid cell walls

Answer 394

Bacterial shape

Question 395

Strep pyogenes causes what disease.

Answer 395

Pharyngitis

Question 396

Replicate only within cells
Inner core of either DNA or RNA but no cytoplasm
Depends on host cells for protein synthesis and energy generation
Fast mutation

Answer 396

Virus

Question 397

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis:

Diptheria toxin

Answer 397

EF-2 inhibitor

Question 398

Catalase (+)
Coagulase (+) forms golden yellow colonies
Mannitol (+)

Answer 398

Staph aureus

Question 399

Component of exotoxin which internalize and inhibits a specific critical intracellular function causing damage to the cell. It is the active toxic portion of toxin

Answer 399

A component

Question 400

Bacteria that invades the Peyer’s patches thru the phagocytic M cells

Answer 400

Shigella

Question 401

Colonize with toxin elaboration

Answer 401

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Question 402

Differential media for lac Operon mutants

Answer 402

X-gal plates

Question 403

Mycobacteria is an acid fast bacteria, resisting decolorization with an acid alcohol after being stained by carbolfuchsin.
What component contributes to this property?

Answer 403

Mycolic acid

Question 404

Exchange of two nearly identical pcs of DNA

Answer 404

Homologous recombination

Question 405

Occurs when nutrients (c and n) are depleted

Answer 405

Sporulation

Question 406

Staph aureus is a normal flora of..

Answer 406

Nose

Question 407

Criteria of transport media (5)

Answer 407

1) temporary storage of specimens
2) maintains specimen’s viability without altering their conc
3) contains buffers and salt only
4) lacks C, N and other GF so as to prevent microbial multiplication
5) in isolating anaerobes, must be free from molecular oxygen

Question 408

Lancet shape diplococci

Answer 408

Strep pneumoniae

Question 409

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Lowenstein Jensen

Answer 409

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 410

Transfer of DNA directly from one living bacterium to another.
Bacterial sex.
Major mechanism for transfer of antibiotic resistance.

Answer 410

Conjugation

Question 411

Most common bacterial resident of large intestine

Answer 411

Bacteroides

Question 412

Contains gene for toxins and antibiotic resistance

Answer 412

Plasmid

Question 413

Prokaryotes, especially bacteria doesn’t have true nucleus, rather they have..

Answer 413

NUCLEOID

Question 414

Staph epidermidis is ____ sensitive

Answer 414

Novobiocin

Question 415

Enzyme reaction that produces ClO + H2O

Answer 415

Myeloperoxidase

Question 416

Determined group of beta hemolytic strep

Answer 416

C carbo

Question 417

4 phases of bacterial growth cycle

Answer 417

1) lag phase
2) log phase
3) stationary phase
4) death phase

Question 418

Functions of capsule

Answer 418

Virulence
Identification
Adherence
Antigen in vaccine

Question 419

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis:

Shiga toxin

Answer 419

Of shigella dysenteriae type I

A component cleaves 60s ribosomes

Question 420

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle occurs a vigorous metabolic activity where cells do not divide yet.

Answer 420

Lag phase

Question 421

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is rapid cell division

Answer 421

Log phase

Question 422

Major determinant of growth of bacteria

Answer 422

Nutrients

Question 423

D-ala-D-ala is targeted by what antibiotic?

Answer 423

Vancomycin

Question 424

Highly resistant structures formed in response to adverse conditions

Answer 424

Spores

Question 425

Bacteria that grows in amoeba in streams

Answer 425

Legionella

Question 426

Clear zone, complete hemolysis

Answer 426

Beta hemolytic

Question 427

Axial filament.
Counterclockwise rotation - ?
Clockwise rotation -?

Answer 427

Counterclockwise rotation - directed motion

Clockwise rotation - tumbling

Question 428

Undefined medium (aka basal or complex medium) contains: (3)

Answer 428

1. C source
2. Water
3. Various salts

Question 429

Invagination of cytoplasmic membrane

Answer 429

Mesosome

Question 430

A-B toxin that increase cAMP

Answer 430

Labile toxin
Anthrax toxin
Pertussis toxin
Choleragen

Question 431

Differential media for lactose and sucrose fermentation

Answer 431

EMB

Question 432

Toxin that inhibits Gi which is the negative regulator of adenylcyclase thru ADP ribosylation thus increasing cAMP

Answer 432

Pertussis toxin

Question 433

Enzyme reaction that produces H2O2 + O2

Answer 433

Superoxide dismutase

Question 434

Determined by orientation and degree of attachment of bacteria at the time of cell division

Answer 434

Bacterial arrangement

Question 435

True or false: pathologic effects of endotoxins are similar irrespective of organism

Answer 435

True

Question 436

transport enzyme and oxidative phosphorylation

Answer 436

Plasma membrane

Question 437

Ribosome subunit of bacteria

Answer 437

70s (50s and 30s)

Question 438

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis:

Verotoxin

Answer 438

Of e.coli serotype O157:H7
Inactivates protein synthesis by removing adenine from the 28s rRNA
Causes bloody diarrhea

Question 439

Most important virulence factor of streps

Provides type specific immunity

Answer 439

M protein

Question 440

Growth media commonly used to harvest as many different types of microbes as are present in the specimen.
Contains nutrients required to support the growth of wide variety of organisms.

Answer 440

Nutrient media

Question 441

Erythromycin inhibits what ribosomal subunit of bacteria?

Answer 441

Inhibits 50s

Question 442

Evasion of immediate host defense:

N. gonorrheae

Answer 442

Capsule

Question 443

Agar composition

Answer 443

1.5g solidifying agent
100ml distilled water
pH 7

Question 444

Breaks down the beta 1->4 bonds between NAM and NAG

Answer 444

Lysozyme

Question 445

Group a strep

Answer 445

Strep pyogenes

Question 446

Cytokines that cause fever

Answer 446

TNF, IL-1, IL-6

Question 447

Facultative anaerobes

Answer 447

Strep

E. coli

Question 448

Strep pneumoniae produces this enzyme causing mucosal colonization

Answer 448

IgA protease

Question 449

Single, covalently closed circle or a loop of double stranded DNA

Answer 449

Bacterial chromosome

Question 450

Defined medium (aka chemically defined medium or synthetic medium) contains:

Answer 450

1. All chemical used are known

2. No yeast, animal or plant tissue present

Question 451

Major protein in the cell wall of staph aureus which binds to Fc portion of IgG

Answer 451

Protein A

Question 452

Evasion of immediate host defense:
Some gram (-)

Answer 452

Membrane activation (MAC) resistance

Question 453

Entamoeba, trichomonas

Answer 453

Diamond medium

Question 454

Cryptosporidium

Answer 454

Sheather’s sugar flotation

Question 455

Microsporidia

Answer 455

Ryan’s trichrome blue stain

Question 456

Trichinosis

Answer 456

Bemtonite floccukation test

Question 457

Schistosoma

Answer 457

Kato’s thick smear method

Question 458

Acanthamoeba

Answer 458

Culbertson’s medium

Question 459

Enterobius, taenia egg

Answer 459

Cellophane tape swab

Question 460

Onchocerca volvulus

Answer 460

Mazzotti test

Question 461

Leishmania

Answer 461

Montenegro skin test

Question 462

Eosinophilia in urine

Answer 462

Hansel’s stain

Question 463

Amoeba

Answer 463

Boeck and Orbohlav’s Locke-Egg serum medium

Question 464

Strongyloides

Answer 464

Baermann’s technique
Filter paper strip procedure
Agar plate method

Question 465

Trypanosoma cruzi

Answer 465

Machado-Guerreiro test

Question 466

Trichomonas

Answer 466

Modified thioglycolate medium

Question 467

Cyclospora

Answer 467

KOH

Question 468

Egg counting

Answer 468

Stoll’s technique

Question 469

Child + peri orbital cellulitis + sinusitis + ear discharge

Answer 469

H. Influenzae

Question 470

Meyers-Kouwenaar syndrome is a synonym for

Answer 470

Tropical pulmonary eosiophilia
Occult filariasis
Weingartner’s syndrome

Question 471

Army barracks + flu like+ maculopapular rash + petechiae

Answer 471

Meningococcemia (n.meningitidis)

Question 472

Toxin of v.cholerae and LT enterotoxic of E. coli are similar

Answer 472

B subunits of the toxin bind to GM1 receptors on the host cell

Question 473

Travel + fever + jaundice + bleeding + neurologic signs

Answer 473

Fulminant malaria (p.falciparum)

Question 474

Diarrhea + beef, poultry + legumes

Answer 474

Clostridium perfringens

Question 475

Watery diarrhea + shellfish ingestion

Answer 475

Vibrio cholera

Question 476

Thumbprint sign + epiglottis

Answer 476

H.influenzae

Question 477

Cellulitis + exposure to fresh water

Answer 477

Aeromonas hydrophila

Question 478

Outbreaks of respiratory infections every winter

Answer 478

RSV

Question 479

Diagnosis of infective endocarditis

Answer 479

Duke criteria

Question 480

Outbreaks of respiratory infections in hospitalized infants

Answer 480

RSV

Question 481

Diarrhea + fried rice ingestion + china town

Answer 481

Bacillus cereus

Question 482

Camping + tick bite + flu like + blanching macules

Answer 482

Rocky Mountain spotted fever (rickettsia rickettsii)

Question 483

Facial or sphenoidal sinus infection + unilateral + retro-orbital headaches

Answer 483

Septic cavernous sinus thrombosis (staph)

Question 484

Pale, greasy, malodorous stools with malabsorption after drinking untreated stream or lake water

Answer 484

Giardia lamblia

Question 485

Aseptic meningitis + facial diplegia

Answer 485

Borrelia burgdoferi

Question 486

Bloody diarrhea + salami + apple juice + raw veggies

Answer 486

EHEC

Question 487

Un pasteurized milk + cabbage

Answer 487

Listeria monocytogenes

Question 488

Indolent + culture negative + a febrile + endocarditis

Answer 488

Tropheryma whipplei

Question 489

HIV + hypoxemia + CXR infiltrates

Answer 489

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Question 490

Para nasal infection + fever + nuchal rigidity + brainstem signs

Answer 490

Subdural empyema (microaerophilic staph and strep)

Question 491

Diarrhea+ ingestion of potato + egg salad + mayonnaise

Answer 491

Staph aureus

Question 492

Major determinant of virulence in h.influenzae

Answer 492

Capsule

Question 493

Painless genital ulcer

Answer 493

Primary syphilis

Question 494

Travel to US (Oklahoma/Arkansas/Missouri) + wild rabbits + tabanid fly

Answer 494

Tularemia

Question 495

Watery diarrhea + salads + cheese

Answer 495

ETEC

Question 496

Hemorrhagic vesicles surrounded by a rim of erythema with central necrosis or ulceration

Answer 496

Erythema gangrenosum (p.aeruginosa and A.hydrophila)

Question 497

Ethmoid or maxillary sinus infection + nuchal rigidity + brain stem signs

Answer 497

Septic thrombosis of the superior Sagittal sinus (s.pneumoniae)

Question 498

“Bull neck” appearance + pseudomembrane

Answer 498

Diphtheria

Question 499

Quinolones kill bacteria by

Answer 499

Inhibiting DNA gyrase

Question 500

Most commons presenting sign of liver abscess

Answer 500

Fever

Question 501

19yr old man develops fever, sore throat, malaise, headache, nausea, and rash on the lower parts of both is arms and legs

Answer 501

Rickettsia rickettsii

Question 502

Dysentery + mollusks + crustaceans

Answer 502

Vibrio parahemolyticus

Question 503

Unilateral/ bilateral parotid swelling + pain aggravate when drinking citrus juice

Answer 503

Mumps virus

Question 504

Confers resistance to malaria

Answer 504

G6PD, hemoglobin C or E

Question 505

Steeple sign + croup

Answer 505

Parainfluenza virus

Question 506

Endocarditis + injection drug users + tricuspid valve

Answer 506

Staph aureus

Question 507

Trauma/post-op incision + red, hot, shiny, swollen + exquisite tenderness

Answer 507

Necrotizing fasciitis (group A strep)

Question 508

Transplant recipients + diabetes, elderly, Cancer patients + meningismus

Answer 508

Bacterial meningitis ( strep.pneumoniae)

Question 509

Ingestion of shellfish + flu like + hypotension + bullous lesions + leg pain

Answer 509

Vibrio vulnificus

Question 510

Travel to Europe + tick bite + flu-like + ecchymoses + petechiae

Answer 510

Babesia

Question 511

Inflammatory diarrhea + poultry + raw milk

Answer 511

Campylobacter jejuni

Question 512

Painful genital ulcers

Answer 512

Chancroid

Question 513

Making more than one type of mRNA for the same piece of DNA (virus)

Answer 513

Shifting the reading frame

Question 514

Puncture wound of the foot

Answer 514

P. aeruginosa

Question 515

Necrotizing fasciitis that leaked into the perineal area causing massive swelling of scrotum of penis

Answer 515

Fourneir’s gangrene

Question 516

New properties that a bacterium acquires as a result of expression of the integrated probated genes

Answer 516

Lysogenic conversion

Question 517

Involved in the initial viral-specific phosphorylation of acyclovir

Answer 517

Thymidine kinase

Question 518

Chemical treatment for genital warts

Answer 518

Podophyllin

Question 519

Topical herpes keratitis but no effect on genital lesions

Answer 519

Vidarabine

Question 520

Inhibits pox protein synthesis

Blocks translation of late mRNA

Answer 520

Methisazone

Question 521

Efavirine inhibits ..

Answer 521

CYP2C9 and CYP2C19

Question 522

For treatment-experienced HIV
Effective against HIV strains resistant to other drugs
Induced CYP3A4
Inhibits CYP2C9 and CYP2C19

Answer 522

Efavirine

Question 523

Stavudine, zerit, d4T

Answer 523

Didehydro-dideoxythymidine

Question 524

Injected intravitreally for treatment of CMV retinitis

Answer 524

Fomivirsen

Question 525

NNRTI

Answer 525

Delavirdine
Efavirenz
Efavirine
Nevirapine

Question 526

Virazole

Answer 526

Ribavirin

Question 527

Prodrug of acyclovir?

Answer 527

Valacyclovir.

It has longer duration

Question 528

Has longer half life than amantadine

Require no dosage adjustment in renal failure

Answer 528

Rimantadine

Question 529

Ddl, ddc, d4T all cause this adverse effect

Answer 529

All Ds cause peripheral neuropathy

Question 530

Mode of action of ganciclovir

Answer 530

Inhibits DNA polymerase of cmv and HSV

Chain termination

Question 531

Dihydroxypropoxymethylguanine (DHPG)

Answer 531

Gancyclovir

Question 532

Treatment for CMV infection

Answer 532

Ganciclovir

Question 533

Do not give aspirin in children for fever,. You give what?

Answer 533

Acetaminophen

Question 534

Major route of elimination of acyclovir

Answer 534

Renal excretion

Question 535

Highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART)

1st line standard care

Answer 535

2 NRTI + 1 PI

Question 536

Prodrug and oral prep of ganciclovir

Answer 536

Valgancyclovir

Question 537

Host-coded proteins that are member of cytokines and which inhibits viral replication.

Answer 537

Interferon (IFN)

Question 538

Has activity against HBV

Asso with fanconi’s syndrome

Answer 538

Tenofovir

Question 539

Prophylaxis and treatment for ganciclovir-resistant strains

Answer 539

Foscarnet

Question 540

Acyclovir triphosphate inhibits DNA synthesis by (2)

Answer 540

Competitive substrate for DNA polymerase

Chain termination

Question 541

type II or immune interferon

Answer 541

IFN Gamma

Question 542

Adenine arabinose, ara-A

Answer 542

Vidarabine

Question 543

Blood levels decreased by antacids, phenytoin and rifampin
Increased by azole antifungals and macrolides
Teratogenic

Answer 543

Delavirdine

Question 544

N-methylisatin - B-thiosemicarbozone

Answer 544

Methisazone

Question 545

Adverse effect of ganciclovir

Answer 545

MaLTHuS
Mucositis
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Hepatic dysfunction
Seizure

Question 546

Primary adverse effect of azidothymidine

Answer 546

Bm suppression

Question 547

NRTIs

Answer 547

Azidothymidine (zidovudine, AZT)
Dideoxyinosine (didanosine, ddI)
Dideoxycytidine (zalcitabine, ddC)
Didehydro-dideoxythymidine (stavudine, d4T)
Ribavirin (Virazole)
Emtricitabine
Methisazone (N-methylisatin B-thiosemocarbazone)
Tenofivir
Lamivudine (3TC)

Question 548

Didanosine, videx, ddl

Answer 548

Dideoxyinosine

Question 549

Does not require phosphorylation
Inhibits DNA and RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase
Pyrophosphate analog

Answer 549

Foscarnet

Question 550

NRTI or NNRTI:
Competitive inhibition of HIV-1 reverse transcriptase
Requires intracytoplasmic activation via phosphorylation
Activity against HIV-1 and HIV-2

Answer 550

NRTI

Question 551

Thiazole-carboxamide moiety is substituted by aminoimidazole-carboxamide

Answer 551

Ribavirin

Question 552

Another guanosine analog that does not cause chain termination

Answer 552

Penciclovir

Question 553

Structural difference between nucleoside and nucelotide

Answer 553

Nucleotide has an attached phosphate group

It has an ability to persist in cells for long period of time increasing their potency

Question 554

NRTI or NNRTI :
Binds directly to HIV-1 reverse transcriptase resulting in allosteric inhibition of RNA and DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
Neither competes with nucleoside triphosphate s nor require phosphorylation to be active
No activity against HIV-2

Answer 554

NNRTI

Question 555

NNRTI or NRTI
Do not need phosphorylation
Binds directly and incompetitively to reverse transcriptase

Answer 555

NNRTI

Question 556

Neuraminidase inhibitors that can shorten course of influenza A and B infection

Answer 556

Zanamivir (inhaled)

Oseltamivir (oral)

Question 557

T or F: IFN does not protect virus-infected cell and not itself the antiviral agent

Answer 557

True

Question 558

Drug of choice for HSV-1 encephalitis

Answer 558

Acyclovir

Question 559

1st protease inhibitor to be approved for treatment of HIV

Answer 559

Saquinavir

Question 560

Included in HAART regimen
Effective against HBV infection by inhibiting DNA polymerase
Safely administered to patients with decompensated liver disease

Answer 560

Lamivudine (3TC)

Question 561

Antisense oligonucleotide that binds to mRNA of CMV

Answer 561

Fomivirsen

Question 562

Trisodium phosphonoformate, foscavir

Answer 562

Foscarnet

Question 563

Treatment for AIDS patients resistant to azidothymidine

Answer 563

Dideoxyinosine

Question 564

Adverse effects of foscarnet

Answer 564

Nephrotoxicity
Hypocalcemia
Hallucination
Seizures

Question 565

Blood level of delavirdine is increased by …

Answer 565

Azole, antifungal and macrolides

Question 566

Zidovudine, retrovir, AZT

Answer 566

Azidothymidine

Question 567

Rimantadine and amantadine action

Answer 567

Prevents viral un coating in influenza A

Question 568

Drug is metabolized to ddCTP to be active

Answer 568

Dideoxycytidine

Question 569

Blood level of delavirdine is decreased by

Answer 569

Antacids, phenytoin and rifampin

Question 570

Drug of choice for CMV retinitis

Answer 570

Gancyclovir

Question 571

Zalcitabine, hivid, ddc

Answer 571

Dideoxycytidine

Question 572

1st NNRTI to be approved for treating HIV infection

Answer 572

Nevirapine

Question 573

Treatment for advance AIDS patients

Answer 573

Didehydro-dideoxythymidine

Question 574

Drug is metabolized into ddATP to be active

Answer 574

Dideoxyinosine

Question 575

Other name for rimantadine

Answer 575

Flumadine

Question 576

Confers resistance to NRTIs

Answer 576

Pol genes

Question 577

Primary adverse effect of dideoxyinosine

Answer 577

Pancreatitis

Peripheral neuropathy

Question 578

Phsphorylated acyclovir is converted by thymidine kinase into…. which interferes with viral synthesis by acting as competitive substrate for DNA polymerase and chain termination

Answer 578

Acyclovir triphosphate

Question 579

Drugs that inhibits NA synthesis

Answer 579

Acyclovir
Ganciclovir
Vidarabine
Fomivirsen 
Foscarnet

Question 580

Inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides

For RSV infection in children

Answer 580

Ribavirin

Question 581

Treatment fro HSV 1&2 and VZV

Answer 581

Acyclovir

Question 582

Has an adverse effect of nightmare and nausea

Answer 582

Efavirenz

Question 583

Adverse effect of vidarabine

Answer 583

GiPiTCH
Gi irritation
Paresthesia
Tremor
Convulsion 
Hepatic dysfunction

Question 584

NNRTI that penetrates most tissue including CNS and placenta
Metabolized by CYP3A4
Effective in preventing HI vertical transmission

Answer 584

Nevirapine

Question 585

Main adverse effect of Didehydro-dideoxythymidine

Answer 585

Peripheral neuropathy
Lactose acidosis
Hepatic steatosis

Question 586

Main adverse effect of dideoxycytidine

Answer 586

Peripheral neuropathy

Question 587

Nucleoside analog of arabinose, instead of ribose.

Teratogenic.

Answer 587

Vidarabine

Question 588

Inhibits early replication of influenza A (not B)

Prevents in coating by binding to M2 (matrix protein)

Answer 588

Amantadine

Question 589

NNRTI that are teratogenic

Answer 589

Delavirdine

Efavirenz

Question 590

This drug increases the clearance of azidothymidine

Answer 590

Rifampin

Question 591

Increase plasma levels of azidothymidine by…

Answer 591

Antifungals

Question 592

Inhibitor of protease encoded by HIV

Answer 592

Saquinavir

Indanivir

Question 593

Frequent adverse effects of NNRTI

Answer 593

Rash (ulceration, SJS)

Question 594

Newest NNRTI

Answer 594

Efavirine

Question 595

Resistant strains of influenza A to amantadine

Answer 595

H3N2 virus

H1N1 strains

Question 596

Drug of choice for patients with AIDS

Answer 596

Azidothymidine

Question 597

Other name for amantadine

Answer 597

Alpha-adamantanamine

Symmetrel

Question 598

Contains propylene glycol
Contraindications for pregnancy and young children
Adverse effects of renal or hepatic dysfunction

Answer 598

Emtricitabine

Question 599

Enhance bioavailability by fatty foods
Metabolized by cytochrome p450
Teratogenic

Answer 599

Efavirenz

Question 600

Ultrahigh-temperature sterilization temp and time

Answer 600

140C for 1-3sec

Question 601

Microbial control (reduction and elimination) methods can be classified based upon their level of effectiveness against different types of microbes: 
Treatment include bacterial endospores, which form a 3-layer coat of protection, and acid-fast Mycobacteria which have a waxy cell wall.

Answer 601

Highest level of resistance

Question 602

residual chemicals that remain active on surfaces for extended periods of time, providing longer-lasting antimicrobial effects.

Answer 602

Chlorhexidine

Question 603

Alcohols are most effective in concentrations ranging from _____.

Answer 603

50-90%

Question 604

Peroxides can be used as sterilants (\_\_\_ peroxide vapor), high-level disinfectants (\_\_\_ solutions) or
as antiseptics (\_\_\_ solutions).

Answer 604

sterilants (30% peroxide vapor)
high-level disinfectants (25% solutions)
antiseptics (3% solutions).

Question 605

Utilizes steam to penetrate cells, is faster and more effective than dry heat.

Answer 605

Moist heat

Question 606

Depending on ______ used, chemicals from these groups (SCHHAAPPP) can be used as sterilants, disinfectants, and antiseptics.

Answer 606

Concentration and form (gas, liquid or solid)

Question 607

Autoclave temperature

Answer 607

121C for 15 min under 15psi

Question 608

Laundry detergent (benzalkonium chloride)
Dish soap
Household cleaners (409)
Mouthwash. (Cetylpyridinium chloride)

Answer 608

Soap and detergents

Question 609

Sorbic, benzoic, propionic, lactic, acetic (vinegar), ascorbic

Answer 609

Organic acids

Question 610

Gas or vapor form of a chemical agent (aldehyde, halogen, H2O2)

Answer 610

Sterilants

Question 611

Photoreactivation uses visible light (_____nm) to activate repair enzymes (pyrimidine or thymine dimerase or DNA photolyase) that repair the UV damaged DNA.

Answer 611

400-750nm

Question 612

Liquid form of chemical agent

Answer 612

Disinfectant

Question 613

aromatic compounds that are toxic to tissues in high concentrations. They are intermediate to low-level disinfectants and antiseptics that damage cellular membranes and alter protein structure. They are bactericidal, fungicidal and virucidal, but CANNOT kill ENDOSPORES.

Answer 613

Phenol and phenol derivatives

Question 614

Chemical control method that can only eliminate some types of bacteria, fungi and viruses. These agents are generally used to clean materials that contact outer, but not inner, skin surfaces.

Answer 614

Low-level disinfectants

Question 615

A powerful, penetrating form of radiation that causes breakages in microbial DNA.

Answer 615

Ionizing radiation

Question 616

Microbes that grow best at cooler temperatures ranging from -5°C to 20°Celsius.

Answer 616

Psychrophiles and psychrotrophs

Question 617

2% glutaraldehyde solution (cidex)

37% formaldehyde

Answer 617

Aldehydes

Question 618

Copper,zinc, mercury and silver
Gold and silver lining of the teeth
Thimerosal (vaccine preservative) 
Silver nitrate eye drops
Zicam
Mercury chlorides

Answer 618

Heavy metals

Question 619

Filters pores size used to remove smallest

Answer 619

0.01 um

Question 620

Microbes that include bacteria growing in hot springs and deserts, prefer warmer temperatures ranging from 40°C to 80°C.

Answer 620

Thermophiles

Question 621

Category of microbial control methods:

Include the use of sterilants, disinfectants, antiseptics and sanitizers

Answer 621

Chemical control method

Question 622

process used to disinfect or sterilize gases and heat-sensitive liquids by physically removing microbes. It mechanically traps and removes microbes, but does not kill them and cannot remove some of the toxins they produce. Used to sterilize water, air, blood products, vaccines, drugs, IV fluids, enzymes and media. Surgical masks and respirators filter the air that healthcare workers inhale and exhale.

Answer 622

Filtration

Question 623

Danger zone that allows microbes to rapidly grow and metabolize.

Answer 623

Temperatures between 20-50C

Question 624

Main advantage of ionizing radiation

Answer 624

Ability to penetrate and sterilize material thru outer packages ad wrappings

Question 625

Much lower concentration than sterilants and disinfectants

Answer 625

Antiseptics

Question 626

Filters pores size used to remove bacterial cells

Answer 626

0.22-0.45 um

Question 627

Batch (historical) pasteurization temp and time

Answer 627

63C for 30min

Question 628

process that destroys less than 100 % of microbes on living surfaces. Examples include swabbing skin with iodide prior to surgery and washing your hands with soap.

Answer 628

Antisepsis

Question 629

Filters pores size used to remove largest viruses and most bacteria

Answer 629

0.22 um

Question 630

A form of non-ionizing energy with a short wavelength (4-400nm). It kills microbes by damaging their DNA.

Answer 630

UV radiation

Question 631

Microbes that can be found in geysers and volcanoes, grow best at temperatures above 80°C.

Answer 631

Hyperthermophiles

Question 632

Example of microbes that can survive several months in refrigerator.

Answer 632

Psychrophiles
Staph aureus
Clostridium

Question 633

Filters pores size used to remove multicellular algae, animals and fungi

Answer 633

5 um

Question 634

Lysol, pine-sol, antibacterial soaps and products that contains triclosan

Answer 634

Phenol and phenol derivatives

Question 635

Microbicidal/microbistatic:

agents that kill microbes

Answer 635

Microbicidal

Question 636

used in cured meats (ham, bacon, hot dogs, bologna, salami) to maintain a bright red color. These substances break down during frying and freezing, causing the meat to lose its “pink” appearance. There has been a link between nitrosamines produced from the cooking of processed meat and cancer in humans.

Answer 636

Nitrites and nitrates

Question 637

Chemical control method that can kill fungal spores (sex cells) and acid-fast bacteria (TB), but cannot kill endospores. These agents are typically used to treat materials that come into contact with mucous membranes.

Answer 637

Intermediate-level disinfectant

Question 638

can be used to create hypertonic environments, which cause microbial cells to shrink and undergo plasmolysis due to the loss of water. These preservatives are static agents, because they do not kill microbes, they only slow or inhibit their metabolism.

Answer 638

Natural preservatives

Question 639

Microbes that include most disease-causing forms of bacteria, grow best at temperatures ranging from 20°C to 40°C.

Answer 639

Mesophiles

Question 640

Non-ionizing radiation example

Answer 640

Uv radiation

Question 641

any process that removes microbes and other debris or contaminants to “safe levels.” Examples include washing plates and cups.

Answer 641

Decontamination

Question 642

It produces highly reactive free radicals that damage proteins and DNA. It is most toxic to anaerobes, which lack the enzyme catalase needed for its breakdown. It is one of the 3 chemical groups that can be used to kill endospores.

Answer 642

Hydrogen peroxide s

Question 643

Because dry heat penetrates more slowly than moist heat (steam), dry heat ovens require higher temperatures and longer exposure times in order to effectively sterilize objects.
Dry heat temp and time?

Answer 643

1 hour at 171°C or

2 hours at 160°C

Question 644

Disadvantage of UV radiation

Answer 644

Unable to penetrate thru substances such as glass, metal and plastic.

Question 645

Iodide (skin antiseptic, betadine surgical scrub)
chlorine gas (sterilant); chlorine bleach (high level disinfectant)
bromine
fluorine (toothpaste and water disinfectant)

Answer 645

Halogens

Question 646

Filters pores size used to remove viruses

Answer 646

0.01-0.22 um

Question 647

A high pressure chamber that utilizes temperatures of121°C for 15 minutes under 15 psi (pressure) to sterilize nonliving surfaces (kills endospores). Used to sterilize heat-resistant materials, such as glassware, surgical dressings, rubber gloves, metallic instruments, liquids, and some heat-resistant papers and plastics.

Answer 647

Autoclave

Question 648

Microbial control (reduction and elimination) methods can be classified based upon their level of effectiveness against different types of microbes: 
Treatment include protozoans in both cyst and vegetative form, Gram-negative bacteria, which have an outer membrane, porins and drugs pumps, as well as fungi, which have a cell wall made of chitin.

Answer 648

Intermediate level resistance

Question 649

UV damaged DNA forms ____ that block DNA replication and transcription.

Answer 649

pyrimidine (thymine) dimers

Question 650

Process that destroys 100% of microbes (even endospores) on non-living surfaces.

Answer 650

Sterilization

Question 651

A mechanical method of microbial control used to remove microbes from the surface of instruments and teeth. It utilizes high frequency sound waves to generate “shock waves” that are conducted through living structures or liquids. The force exerted by these shock waves leads to the rupture of microbial membranes and their removal from surfaces. Used to clean surgical instruments, dental instruments, teeth, pacemakers, hearing aids, test tubes and small electronics.

Answer 651

Ultrasonic vibration

Question 652

effective physical control agent that can be delivered in both moist (steam sterilization, pasteurization) and dry (bacti-cinerators and ovens) forms.

Answer 652

Heat

Question 653

T or F: refrigeration and freezing do NOT kill microbes.

Answer 653

True, they merely hold the number of microbes steady (static). Although refrigeration and freezing can slow or halt the growth of most mesophiles, it may allow the slow growth of spoilage bacteria, such as psychrophiles that can grow and metabolize even at freezing temperatures!

Question 654

Filters pores size used to remove Protozoa and small unicellular algae

Answer 654

1.2 um

Question 655

Flash pasteurization temp and time

Answer 655

72C for 15sec

Question 656

chemicals that alter microbial proteins and at high concentrations and in gas form can be sporicidal

Answer 656

Halogens

Question 657

static agents used to prevent food spoilage.

Answer 657

Preservatives

Question 658

Chemical antimicrobials range from low-level disinfectants, to intermediate-level disinfectants, to high-level sterilants. Antimicrobial chemicals include:

Answer 658

SCHHAAPPP

1) halogens;
2) phenolics;
3) chlorhexidine;
4) alcohols;
5) peroxides;
6) soaps and detergents;
7) heavy metals;
8) aldehydes; and
9) preservatives.

Question 659

Non-ionizing/ionizing radiation:

causes breakage in microbial DNA.

Answer 659

Ionizing radiation

Question 660

can be used as low-level disinfectants or antiseptics. They are NOT sporicidal. They oxidize and inactivate proteins and can be toxic to humans

Answer 660

Heavy metals

Question 661

Filters pores size used to remove larger viruses and pliable bacteria (mycoplasma, rickettsia, chlamydia, some Spirochetes)

Answer 661

0.025 um

Question 662

radiation that can be used to regulate the growth of microbes on non-living substances, such as: food, water, on walls and floors, even the air in dental offices and hospital operating rooms.

Answer 662

Non-ionizing radiation (UV radiation)

Question 663

70% ethanol (disinfectants)
50% isopropanol (antiseptics)
Water-free Hand sanitizer such as purell

Answer 663

Alcohols

Question 664

Heat helps control microbial growth by…

Answer 664

Destroying or denaturing structural and regulatory proteins.

Question 665

Factors that affect the rate at which microbes are killed include:

Answer 665

ENARA

1) exposure time to agent (the longer the material is exposed to agent, the more microbes will be killed)
2) number of microbes present on surface (the more microbial contamination, the longer it will take to disinfect it)
3) amt of organic debris or contaminants
4) resistance level of microbes (endospores vs non-endospores);
5) activity level of the agent (cidal versus static).

Question 666

Exposure of human tissue to UV light can result in …

Answer 666

UVA (wrinkles)
UVB (sunburn)
UVC (cancer)

Question 667

added to baked goods, cheeses, pickles, sodas, jams, jellies and dried fruits to reduce the growth of mold and bacteria.

Answer 667

Organic acids

Question 668

intermediate-level disinfectants or antiseptics that dissolve lipid membranes (surfactants) and denature proteins. They are effective against most fungi and bacterial cells, but CANNOT kill endospore- formers.

Answer 668

Alcohols

Question 669

Non-ionizing/ionizing radiation:

uses ultraviolet light to form dimers between neighboring thymines in the DNA.

Answer 669

Non-ionizing radiation

Question 670

Sugar and salts

Answer 670

Natural preservatives

Question 671

Preferred method for disposing of animal carcasses contaminated with infectious agents.

Answer 671

Incineration

Question 672

Chemical control method that are able to kill endospore-forming bacteriaand can be used to completely eliminate all microbes on non-living surfaces. These powerful agents are used to sterilize materials such as catheters, implants, and surgical instruments.

Answer 672

High-level disinfectant

Question 673

Filters pores size used to remove yeasts and larger unicellular algae

Answer 673

3 um

Question 674

another effective dry heat method, which uses temperatures of 800°C to 6500°C to burn microbial material.

Answer 674

Incineration

Question 675

Category of microbial control methods:

Include heat, filtration, UV radiation and US vibration

Answer 675

Physical control method

Question 676

Intermediate level disinfectant ___ in killing mycobacteria and non lipid viruses, but does NOT kill endospores

Answer 676

Varies

Question 677

Moist heat methods

Answer 677

Steam sterilization (Autoclaving, boiling, pasteurization)

Question 678

A low-pressure steam method that requires temperatures of 100°C for a minimum of 10 minutes in order to disinfect, but NOT STERILIZE, objects. Exposing materials to this for 30 minutes will kill most non-spore-forming pathogens, but NOT ENDOSPORES. Used to disinfect drinking water, eating utensils, food, hospital bedding and baby bottles.

Answer 678

Boiling

Question 679

Microbicidal/microbistatic:

agents that temporarily inhibit the reproduction of microbes, but do not kill them.

Answer 679

Microbistatic

Question 680

T or F:Mechanical agents (filtration) physically remove microbes but do not kill them.

Answer 680

True

Question 681

low-level disinfectants used in hospitals, dental offices, and veterinary clinics. They can also be used as skin degerming agents in preoperative scrubs or oral rinsed. It disrupts cellular membranes (surfactants) and denatures proteins, but cannot kill endospores.

Answer 681

Chlorhexidine

Question 682

Antimicrobial agents damage microbes by disrupting the:

Answer 682

1) cell wall;
2) cell membrane;
3) proteins;
4) NA (DNA or RNA).

Question 683

Used to disinfect drinking water, eating utensils, food, hospital bedding and baby bottles.

Answer 683

Boiling

Question 684

Filters pores size used to remove largest bacteria

Answer 684

0.45 um

Question 685

Radiation that is Used to regulate the growth of microbes in food, drugs, vaccines, medical plastics, surgical gloves, bone and skin tissue grafts

Answer 685

Ionizing radiation

Question 686

An effective sterilizing agent because it can denature structural and regulatory proteins needed for metabolism. Used for water-sensitive materials such as metals, oils, and powders.

Answer 686

Dry heat

Question 687

It is cationic quaternary ammonium compounds called “quats.”

Answer 687

Soap and detergent

Question 688

prevent the growth of molds in dried fruits, juices, syrups and wines and prevent discoloration of food products.

Answer 688

Sulfur compounds (sulfites)

Question 689

A low-pressure, moist heat method used to reduce the number of microbes in MILK and JUICE in order to slow the rate of food spoilage. Milk is not sterile after this, as this techniques kills most microbes that cause human disease and food spoilage, but not all.

Answer 689

Pasteurization

Question 690

UV damaged DNa can be repaired by a process called ____.

Answer 690

Photoreactivation

Question 691

Ultrahigh-temperature pasteurization temp and time

Answer 691

134C for 1sec

Question 692

Microbial control (reduction and elimination) methods can be classified based upon their level of effectiveness against different types of microbes: 
Treatment include naked viruses, Gram-positive bacteria, and enveloped viruses.

Answer 692

Low level resistance

Question 693

Used to sterilize heat-resistant materials, such as glassware, surgical dressings, rubber gloves, metallic instruments, liquids, and some heat-resistant papers and plastics.

Answer 693

Autoclave

Question 694

Main disadvantage of ionizing radiation

Answer 694

Risk of exposure for those who work with this type of radiation.

Question 695

Chemical agents of control have 4 primary sites of action:

Answer 695

1) cell wall;
2) cell membrane;
3) proteins;
4) NA (DNA or RNA).

Question 696

weak disinfectants or antiseptics that act as surfactants to disrupt the cellular membranes of some bacteria and fungi. It is unable to kill endospore-forming bacteria.

Answer 696

Soap and detergents (quats)

Question 697

Boiling temp and time

Answer 697

100C for 10min

Question 698

highly toxic agents which can be used as sterilants, high-level disinfectants, or tissue preservatives depending upon concentration and form (gas, liquid or solid). It inhibits microbial growth by damaging proteins and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). It can be used to kill endospores and inactivate viruses during vaccine preparation.

Answer 698

Aldehydes

Question 699

process that destroys less than 100% of microbes on non-living surfaces. Unable to kill endospores which are the most difficult type of microbe to treat. Examples include applying 5% bleach soln to an operating table and boiling eating utensils after use by sick patients

Answer 699

Disinfection

Question 700

organic acids, sulfur compounds,nitrites, and sugars and salts.

Answer 700

Preservatives

Question 701

Dry heat methods

Answer 701

Incineration (bacti-cinerator)

Sterilization ovens

Question 702

High level disinfectant kills endospores.

Answer 702

Some

Question 703

Hibiclens,hibitane, betasept, peridex

Answer 703

Chlorhexidine

Question 704

Category of microbial control methods:

Include filtration and US vibration

Answer 704

Mechanical control method

Question 705

Ionizing radiation

Answer 705

Gamma rays

X-rays

Question 706

Diagnostic test for Enterobius vermicularis infection

Answer 706

Scotch tape test on the perianal area

Cellophane tape swab

Question 707

Diagnostic test for Strongyloides

Answer 707

Filter paper strip procedure
Agar plate method
Baermann’s technique

Question 708

Lemon-shaped egg

Answer 708

Trichuris trichiura

Question 709

Treatment for Strongyloides stercoralis infection

Answer 709

Albendazole

Question 710

Pathognomonic sign of taenia solium infection

Answer 710

Migrating intraventricular cyst

Question 711

Cephalic cone

Halzoun

Answer 711

Fascio hepatica

Question 712

Filariasis is caused by

Answer 712

Wuchereria bancrofti

Brugia malayi

Question 713

Lung fluke

Answer 713

Paragonimus westermani

Question 714

Intermediate host of loa loa

Answer 714

Deer fly

Question 715

“Mal morado” or “erisipelas de la costa”

Answer 715

Onchocerca volvulus

Question 716

Fiery serpents that plagued the Israelites by the Red Sea

Answer 716

Dracunculus medinensis

Question 717

Resemble gastric carcinoma

Answer 717

Anisakis sp.

Question 718

Brood capsules

Liver cysts

Answer 718

Echinococcus granulosus

Question 719

Resides in veins surrounding the bladder and deposits egg in urine.
Causes urinary bladder carcinoma
Terminal spine

Answer 719

Schistosoma haematobium

Question 720

Sheep liver fluke

Sheep liver rot

Answer 720

Fasciola hepatica

Question 721

Transmitted by genus mansonia

Answer 721

Brugia malayi

Question 722

Collarette of spine

Answer 722

Echinostoma ilocanum

Question 723

Dot sign

Answer 723

Ascaris lumbricoides

Question 724

T or F: within the normal human host, there is no immune reaction to living worms

Answer 724

True

Question 725

Test for schistosoma cercariae

Answer 725

Circum oval precipitin test (COPT)

Question 726

Mode of transmission of fasciolopsis buski

Answer 726

Eating aquatic vegetation carrying the cysts

Bamboo shoots and water chestnuts

Question 727

Treatment for onchocerciasis

Answer 727

DEC diethylcarbamazine

Question 728

Whipworm

Answer 728

Trichuris trichiura

Question 729

Fascio hepatica excysts in..

Answer 729

Duodenum

Question 730

Can be acquired thru ingestion of undercooked meat where in the encysted larvae of nematode live in striated muscle

Answer 730

Trichinella spiralis

Question 731

Pinworms mature in..

Answer 731

Cecum and ascending intestine

Question 732

Box-like segments of tapeworm

Answer 732

Proglottids

Question 733

Treatment for filariasis

Answer 733

Ivermectin

Diethylcarbamazine DEC

Question 734

Causes neurocysticercosis

Answer 734

Taenia solium

Question 735

Treatment for toxocarca canis infection

Answer 735

Diethylcarbamazine

Question 736

May cause periorbital edema

Answer 736

Trichinella spiralis

Question 737

Bipolar plugs

Answer 737

Trichuris trichiura

Question 738

Transmission of fasciola hepatica

Answer 738

Eating watercress contaminated with metacercariae

Question 739

African eye worm

Answer 739

Loa loa

Question 740

Differentiate in dermal nodule

Answer 740

Onchocerca volvulus

Question 741

Hanging groin

Answer 741

Onchocerca volvulus

Question 742

Form of larva that can penetrate the skin (n.americanus and s.stercoralis)

Answer 742

Filariform larva

Question 743

Infective stage of loa loa

Answer 743

Micro filariae

Question 744

Beef tapeworm

Answer 744

Taenia saginata

Question 745

Cat/dog hookworm

Answer 745

Ancyclostoma braziliensis

Question 746

Barber’s pole

Answer 746

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

Question 747

Blood and tissue nematodes spread by ..

Answer 747

Bite of arthropod

Question 748

Vector of filariasis

Answer 748

Culex, aedes poicilus, and anopheles flavirostis mimimus mosquito

Question 749

Guinea worm

Answer 749

Dracunculus medinensis

Question 750

Treatment for Cestodes and Trematodes infection

Answer 750

Praziquantel

Question 751

Black river blindness

Answer 751

Onchocerca volvulus

Question 752

Infective stage of hymenolepis nana

Answer 752

Eggs are directly infectious to humans

Question 753

In trichuris trichiura, there is no auto infection, why is that?

Answer 753

Since the eggs must incubate in moist soil for 3-6weeks before they become infective.

Question 754

Treatment for fasciola hepatica

Answer 754

Bithionol

Question 755

Blood and tissue nematodes

Answer 755

Onchocerca volvulus

Wuchereria bancrofti and brugia malayi

Question 756

Treatment of fasciolopsis buski

Answer 756

Praziquantel

Question 757

4 suckers and circle of hooks

Answer 757

Taenia solium

Question 758

Acquired when ingested undercooked crabs/crayfish
Ova with operculum
Hemoptysis

Answer 758

Paragonimus westermani

Question 759

Dog roundworms

Answer 759

Toxocarca canis

Question 760

Positive uterine rosette

Spirometra

Answer 760

Diphyllobothrium latum

Question 761

The thickened skin may appear dry, scaly and thick (LEOPARD SKIN)

Answer 761

Onchocerca volvulus

Question 762

Infective stage of filariasis in man

Answer 762

Microfilariae

Question 763

Intestinal nematodes that are acquired when their larvae penetrate the skin, usually of the foot

Answer 763

Necator americanus (hookworm)
Strongyloides stercoralis

Question 764

Intermediate host of Trematodes

Answer 764

Snail

Question 765

Vector of onchocerca volvulus

Answer 765

Black fly or buffalo gnat

Simulium flies

Question 766

Nematode that causes loeffler’s syndrome -pneumonitis

Answer 766

Ascaris lumbricoides

Question 767

Intermediate hosts of diphyllobothrium latum

Answer 767

Crustaceans and fish

Question 768

Adult worms of blood and tissue nematodes lives in

Answer 768

Lymphatic tissue

Question 769

Reaction to proteins released by dying onchocerca, including fevers, rashes, ocular damage, joint and muscle pain, and lymphangitis as well as hypotension, pyrexia, respiratory distress, and prostration.
Drug reaction to DEC diethylcarbamazine

Answer 769

Mazzoti reaction

Question 770

Acquired thru ingestion of raw seafoods

Answer 770

Anisakis sp.

Question 771

The most anterior segment of tapeworm, which has suckers or sometimes hook

Answer 771

Scolex

Question 772

Garrison fluke

Answer 772

Echinostoma ilocanum

Question 773

Length of pork tapeworm

Answer 773

2-8meters

Question 774

Dog tapeworm

Answer 774

Echinococcus granulosus

Question 775

___proglottids that contains the fertilized eggs

Answer 775

Gravid proglottids

Question 776

Pudoc worm

Answer 776

Capillaria philippinensis

Question 777

Visceral larva migrans

Answer 777

Toxocarca canis

Question 778

Scariest worm

Answer 778

Ascaris lumbricoides

Question 779

Causes hydatid disease, an extra-intestinal tapeworm infection

Answer 779

Echinococcus granulosus

Question 780

Eating raw fish containing cysts

Causes cardiac beriberi / cardiac failure

Answer 780

Heterophyses heterophyses

Question 781

Most common sequela of neurocysticercosis

Answer 781

Seizure

Question 782

Rat tapeworm

Answer 782

Hymenolepis diminuta

Question 783

Treatment for loa loa infection

Answer 783

Ivermectin

Diethylcarbamazine

Question 784

Flatworms

Answer 784

Platyhelminthes

Question 785

T or F: flatworms does not have digestive tract

Answer 785

True

Question 786

Schistosoma that resides in intestinal tract and deposits eggs in feces.
Small lateral spine.

Answer 786

Schistosoma japonicum

Question 787

Diagnostic test in echinococcus granulosus infection

Answer 787

Casoni’s skin test

Question 788

“Craw-craw or “sowda”

Answer 788

Onchocerca volvulus

Question 789

Cutaneous larva migrans aka creeping eruption (intensely pruritic, migratory skin infection)

Answer 789

Ancyclostoma braziliensis

Question 790

Nurse cells

Answer 790

Trichinella spiralis

Question 791

Infective stage of dracunculus medinensis to man

Answer 791

Microfilariae in Copepods

Question 792

Intermediate host of Echinostoma ilocanum

Answer 792

Pila luzonica

Question 793

Cochin china diarrhea

Answer 793

Strongyloides stercoralis

Question 794

Schistosoma that resides in intestinal tract and deposits eggs in feces.
Prominent lateral spine

Answer 794

Schistosoma mansoni

Question 795

Intestinal nematode that is acquired by ingestion of encysted larvae in muscle (pork meat)

Answer 795

Trichinella spiralis

Question 796

Produces large eosinophilic exudates

Answer 796

Ascaris lumbricoides

Question 797

Pin worm / seat worm

Answer 797

Enterobius vermicularis

Question 798

New world hookworm

Answer 798

Necator americanus

Question 799

Mature schistosomal larva that infects human

Answer 799

Cercariae

Question 800

Largest intestinal nematode

Answer 800

Ascaris lumbricoides

Question 801

Cutting plates

Answer 801

Necator americanus

Fasciolopsis buski

Question 802

Blood fluke

Answer 802

Schistosoma

Question 803

Occurs when humans take the role of pigs and ingest eggs rather than the encysted larvae

Answer 803

Cysticercosis

Question 804

Endemic in Philippines

Answer 804

Hymenolepis nana

Echinostoma ilocanum

Question 805

Flukes

Answer 805

Trematodes

Question 806

Rat lungworms

Answer 806

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

Question 807

A group of Platyhelminthes that is hermaphroditic (has male and female sex organs)

Answer 807

Cestodes

Question 808

T or F: all flukes have a water snail species as an intermediate host

Answer 808

True

Question 809

Fish tapeworm

Answer 809

Diphyllobothrium latum

Question 810

For egg counting

Answer 810

Stoll’s technique

Question 811

Has indirect and direct cycle and

Autoinfection where filariform larvae develop and penetrate intestinal wall

Answer 811

Strongyloides stercoralis

Question 812

The larvae of diphyllobothrium latum is called..

Answer 812

Plerocercoid / sparganum

Question 813

Topical pulmonary eosinophilia

Answer 813

Filariasis

Question 814

Tapeworms

Answer 814

Cestodes

Question 815

Disease caused by clonorchis sinensis

Answer 815

Cholangicarcinoma

Question 816

Max length of diphyllobothrium latum

Answer 816

45 meters

Question 817

Diagnostic test for trichinosis

Answer 817

Bentonite floccukation test

Question 818

No filariform larvae stage, no tissue invasion, no lung involvement and the eosinophilic count is not elevated

Answer 818

Trichuris trichiura

Enterobius vermicularis

Question 819

Schistosoma with Non-operculated ovum

Answer 819

Schistosoma japonicum

Question 820

Ova with operculum

Has elongated sucking grooves

Answer 820

Diphyllobothrium latum

Question 821

Giant intestinal fluke

Answer 821

Fasciolopsis buski

Question 822

Anisakis sp. transmission

Answer 822

Acquired thru ingestion of raw seafoods

Question 823

___proglottids that has the male and female sex organs

Answer 823

Mature proglottids

Question 824

Has rostellar hooks

Answer 824

Taenia solium

Question 825

Causes borborygmi (rumbling and gurgling noise in intestine) and diarrhea

Answer 825

Capillaria philippinensis

Question 826

Roundworms

Answer 826

Nematodes

Question 827

Causes radiculomyeloencephalitis

Answer 827

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

Question 828

Manifests:
Katayama reaction (fever) as a result of the grown adults laying their eggs.
Swimmer’s itch as a result of penetration of cercaria on the swimmer’s skin.
Claystem/pipe stem fibrosis

Answer 828

Schistosoma japonicum

Question 829

Causes vitamin b12 deficiency to megaloblastic anemia

Answer 829

Diphyllobothrium latum

Question 830

The life cycle of trichuris trichiura is

Answer 830

Slow

Question 831

Pork tapeworm

Answer 831

Taenia solium

Question 832

Diagnostic test for toxocarca canis

Answer 832

Casoni skin test

Question 833

Tramway sign in X-ray

Answer 833

Ascaris lumbricoides

Question 834

Causes calabar swelling or fugitive swelling

Crawling across the conjunctiva

Answer 834

Loa loa

Question 835

A group of Platyhelminthes that live and mate within digestive tract

Answer 835

Cestodes

Question 836

Fluke that is Endemic in Philippines

Answer 836

Echinostoma ilocanum

Question 837

Schistosomes

Answer 837

S. haematobium
S. japonicum
S. mansoni

Question 838

Tapeworm that is Endemic in Philippines

Answer 838

Hymenolepis nana

Question 839

Rectal prolapse

Answer 839

Trichuris trichiura

Question 840

Nematodes that has larval form that migrates through the tissue and into the lung at some stage of their life cycle. The larvae grow in the lung, are coughed up and swallowed into the intestine, where they grow into adult worms.

Answer 840

Ascaris lumbricoides
Necator americanus
Strongyloides stercoralis

Question 841

Diagnostic test for schistosoma

Answer 841

Kato’s thick-smear method

Question 842

Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator americanus have very similar life cycle, they differ only in the path that each larvae form takes to reach the lung:

Answer 842

Necator americanus: foot to lung

Ascaris lumbricoides: intestine to lung

Question 843

Filariasis, a wuchereria bancrofti and brugia malayi infection, causes what manifestations?

Answer 843

Elephantiasis

Elephantoid fever

Question 844

Treatment for echinococcus granulosus

Answer 844

Albendazole

Question 845

Causes Pruritus ani (perianal itching)

Answer 845

Enterobius vermicularis

Question 846

Smallest tapeworm (15-55mm) 
Dwarf tapeworm

Answer 846

Hymenolepis nana

Question 847

Egg hen shape ova

Answer 847

Fasciolopsis buski

Question 848

Infective stage of onchocerca volvulus in man

Answer 848

Micro filariae

Question 849

Vector of schistosoma japonicum

Answer 849

Onchomelania quadrasi

Question 850

Intestinal nematodes that are acquired thru ingestion of eggs

Answer 850

Ascaris lumbricoides 
Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

Question 851

Principal host of Strongyloides stercoralis

Answer 851

Man

Question 852

It causes anaphylactic shock when the hydatid cyst bursts

Answer 852

Echinococcus granulosus

Question 853

Chinese liver fluke

Answer 853

Clonorchis sinensis

Question 854

Toxoplasma is one of the transplacentally acquired TORCHES organisms that can cross bpb. Pregnant women should avoid cats.

Answer 854

Just a note

Question 855

Has axonemes

Answer 855

Giardia lamblia

Question 856

Plasmodium grows in (liver,Rbc) while reproduce in (liver,Rbc)

Answer 856

Plasmodium grows in liver while reproduce in RBC

Question 857

Treatment for toxoplasma gondii infection

Answer 857

Pyrimethamine + trisulfapyrimidine

Question 858

Flagellated trophozoite

Answer 858

Giardia lamblia

Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 859

Manifestation in visceral leishmaniasis

Answer 859

Massive Splenomegaly

Question 860

Trophozoite of this organism asexually bud and divide into 4 merozoites that stick together, forming a cross or x-shaped TETRAD ( MALTESE CROSS)

Answer 860

Babesia sp.

Question 861

Intestinal Protozoa that causes bloody diarrhea

Answer 861

Entamoeba hystolitica

Question 862

Treatment for pneumocystis jiroveci

Answer 862

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Question 863

Campers frequently develop this protozoan infection after drinking from clear untreated mountain stream

Answer 863

Giardia lamblia

Question 864

Balantidium coli causes

Answer 864

Diarrhea

Question 865

Infective stage of plasmodium in man

Answer 865

Sporozoites

Question 866

Stain of pneumocystis jiroveci

Answer 866

Silver stain

Question 867

Strawberry cervix

Answer 867

Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 868

Quartan malaria

Answer 868

P.malaria

Question 869

Infective stage of plasmodium in mosquito

Answer 869

Gametocyte

Question 870

Blood mucoid stools
(+) tenesmus : Painful spasm of the anal sphincter along with an urgent desire to defecate without the significant production of feces

Answer 870

Amebiasis

Question 871

Treatment for chagas disease

Answer 871

Nitrofurfurylidine derivative - nifurtimox

Question 872

Giardia lamblia infection often manifests malodorous stool packed with fats.

Answer 872

Since giardia lamblia does NOT invade the intestinal walls, there is NO blood in the stool

Question 873

Commonly infects recto-sigmoid large intestine

Answer 873

Amebiasis

Question 874

Sausage- shaped gametocyte

Answer 874

P.falciparum

Question 875

Ziemann’s stipling

Answer 875

P.malariae

Question 876

Villous atrophy - malabsorption

Lactose intolerance

Answer 876

Giardia lamblia

Question 877

Positive kerandel’s sign (excruciating pain after minor soft-tissue injury, e.g. in palms and ulnar region.)

Answer 877

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Question 878

Manifestation on acute chagas disease

Answer 878

Chagoma - erythematous induration area

Question 879

Vector of leishmania donovani

Answer 879

Phlebotomus sandfly

Question 880

Swiss cheese appearance on degeneration

Answer 880

Entamoeba hystolitica

Question 881

Vivax and ovale burst loose every..

Answer 881

48 hrs (tertian malaria)

Question 882

Diagnostic test for giardia lamblia

Answer 882

String test

Question 883

Aestivoautumnal, malignant tertian or sub tertian malaria

Bursts loose irregularly

Answer 883

P.falciparum

Question 884

Swimming in freshwater

Answer 884

Naegleria fowleri

Question 885

Hypnozoite can only be found in what species of plasmodium

Answer 885

P.vivax and ovale

Question 886

Infective stage of entamoeba hystolitica to man

Answer 886

Cyst

Question 887

Cryptosporidium parvum, when ingested as a round oocyst contains ___sporozoites

Answer 887

4 sporozoites

Question 888

Vector of trypanosoma cruzi

Answer 888

Panstrongylus megistus / reduviid bug / kissing bug

Feces

Question 889

Trichomonas that is commensal

Answer 889

Trichomonas tenax

Question 890

Falling leaf motility

Answer 890

Gardia lamblia

Question 891

Diagnostic test of chagas disease

Answer 891

Machado-Guerreiro Test

Question 892

T or F: males can have trichomoniasis

Answer 892

True. Usually asymptomatic

Question 893

Malaria life cycle

Answer 893

1. Pe-erythrocytic cycle - from anopheles, sporozoites is injected to human bloodstream to liver. SPOROZOITE becomes TROPOZOITE, then undergoes nuclear division forming SCHIZONTS then cytoplasmic membrane division forming MEROZOITE resulting to liver cell bursting.
2. Exo-erythrocytic cycle - reinfects liver and repeat cycle
3. Erythrocytic cycle - enters Rbc (instead of liver cells)

Question 894

Infective stage of leishmania donovani in man

Answer 894

Promastigote (flagellated motile form)

Question 895

Manifestation in chronic chagas disease

Answer 895

Mega esophagus and mega colon

Chagasic cardiopathy

Question 896

Infective stage of trypanosoma cruzi in man

Answer 896

Metacyclic trypomastigote

Question 897

Motility of gardia lamblia

Answer 897

Falling leaf motility

Question 898

Most common site of gardia lamblia infection.

Answer 898

Upper part of small intestine

Question 899

Hemoflagellate ( lives in the bld stream)
kinetoplast (mass of mito DNA lying close to the nucleus)
Undulating membrane

Answer 899

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Trypanosoma cruzi

Question 900

Treatment for Balantidium coli infection

Answer 900

Iodoquinol

Question 901

Merozoite invades all ages of RBC

Answer 901

P. Falciparum

Question 902

Algid malaria

Answer 902

P.flaciparum

Question 903

Flask-shaped ulcer

Answer 903

Entamoeba hystolitica

Question 904

Fungal infection (previously protozoa) common in AIDS

Answer 904

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Question 905

Positive Romanas sign (edema lower eyelid with conjunctivitis
Positive intracellular amastigote stage

Answer 905

Trypanosoma cruzi

Question 906

Treatment for malaria

Answer 906

Chloroquine (vivax, ovale, malariae)
Primaquine (vivax, ovale)
Mefloquine (chloroquine-resistant)

Question 907

Causes tartar teeth

Answer 907

Trichomonas tenax

Question 908

East African sleeping sickness

Answer 908

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Question 909

Vector of malaria

Answer 909

Anopheles mosquito

Question 910

TETRAD of babesia sp,

Answer 910

Maltese cross

Question 911

Vector of trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Answer 911

Tse tse fly

Question 912

Following ingestion cyst converts back into the motile form, called the…

Answer 912

trophozoite

Question 913

When exposed to new environments (such as temperature changes, transit down the intestinal tract, or chemical agents), the protozoa can secrete a protective coat and shrink into a round armored form, called

Answer 913

Cyst

Question 914

Culture for trichomonas

Answer 914

Modified thioglycolate medium

Question 915

The largest pathogenic Protozoa found in the intestine

Answer 915

Balantidium coli

Question 916

Slow granulomatous infection and Meningitis in immunocompromised persons

Answer 916

Acanthamoeba

Question 917

Transmission of toxoplasma Gondi

Answer 917

Ingestion of infected raw meats or food contaminated with cat feces

Question 918

Treatment for trichomoniasis

Answer 918

Metronidazole

Question 919

Protozoa ingests solid pieces of food thru a small mouth called

Answer 919

Cytostome

Question 920

Acid fast oocysts

Answer 920

Cryptosporidium parvum

Question 921

Diagnostic test for entamoeba and trichomonas

Answer 921

Diamond medium

Question 922

P.malaria bursts loose every

Answer 922

72 hrs (quartan malaria)

Question 923

Glycogen vacuoles

Answer 923

Iodomoeba butschlii

Question 924

Diagnostic test for microsporidium

Answer 924

Ryan’s trichrome blue stain

Question 925

Trophozoite and cyst, which is infective?

Answer 925

Cysts

Question 926

Plasmodium merozoite invades senescent RBC

Answer 926

P.malariae

Question 927

Vector of babesia sp.

Answer 927

Ixodes sp.

Question 928

Infective stage of toxoplasma gondii

Answer 928

Trophozoite

Question 929

Culture for amoeba

Answer 929

Boeck and Drbohlav’s Locke-Egg serum medium

Question 930

The only ciliated protozoan that causes human disease - diarrhea

Answer 930

Balantidium coli

Question 931

Diagnostic test for leishmania

Answer 931

Montenegro skin test

Question 932

Obligate intracellular parasite (Protozoa)

Answer 932

Toxoplasma gondii

Question 933

Culture for acanthamoeba

Answer 933

Culbertson’s medium

Question 934

P.vivax and ovale has a dormant form called

Answer 934

Hypnozoite

Question 935

Malaria is a febrile disease caused by 4 different Protozoa:

Answer 935

Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae

Question 936

This sensitive diagnostic test is conducted where 40 lab-grown reduviid bugs are allowed to feed on the patient, and 1 month later the bug’s intestinal contents are examined for the parasite.

Answer 936

Xenodiagnosis

Question 937

Shepherds crook

Answer 937

Chliomastix mesnili

Question 938

Kala-agar (black sickness)

Answer 938

Leishmania donovani

Question 939

American trypanosoma

Answer 939

Trypanosoma cruzi

Question 940

Common site of infection in amebiasis

Answer 940

Recto-sigmoid large intestine

Question 941

Positive ingested Rbc

Answer 941

Entamoeba hystolitica

Question 942

Dum dum fever

Answer 942

Leishmania donovani

Question 943

Chagas disease

Answer 943

Trypanosoma cruzi

Question 944

Blood-borne flagellates

Answer 944

Leishmania

Trypanosoma

Question 945

Flagellated protozoan

Answer 945

Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 946

Diagnostic test for cyclospora

Answer 946

KOH

Question 947

Benign tertian malaria

Answer 947

P. vivax (and ovale)

Question 948

Free living meningitis-causing amoeba that lives in freshwater and moist soil.

Answer 948

Naegleria fowleri

Acanthamoeba

Question 949

Buffalo-skin or Dyak skin ulcers

Answer 949

Entamoeba hystolitica

Question 950

Most common site of cryptosporidiosis

Answer 950

Jejunum

Question 951

Incubation period of plasmodium

Answer 951

2-4 weeks

Question 952

Causes dysentery, amoebic colitis and liver abscess (anchovy paste)

Answer 952

Entamoeba hystolitica

Question 953

Treatment for acute amebic colitis (by Entamoeba hystolitica)

Answer 953

Metronidazole

Question 954

Diagnostic test for cryptosporidium

Answer 954

Sheather’s sugar flotation

Question 955

Causes paraventricular calcification and encephalomyelitis

Answer 955

Toxoplasma gondii

Question 956

Parasites found more commonly in AIDS

Answer 956

Pneumocystis jiroveci (MC)
Toxoplasma gondi
Cryptosporidium

Question 957

Winter button sign (posterior lymphadenopathy)

Answer 957

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Question 958

Quotidian fever

Answer 958

P.vivax

Question 959

Plasmodium merozoite invades only reticulocyte

Answer 959

P.vivax and ovale

Question 960

Clinical form of leishmaniasis caused by L.donovani.

Answer 960

Visceral leishmaniasis

Question 961

Rapidly progressing meningoencephalitis in immunocompetent persons

Answer 961

Naegleria fowleri

Question 962

Onchocerca volvulus

Answer 962

Simulium flies (female black fly)

Question 963

Drancunculus medinensis

Answer 963

Copepods (cyclops)

Question 964

Tsutsugamushi

Answer 964

Leptotrombidium spp.

Question 965

Babesiosis

Answer 965

Ixodes spp

Question 966

Trypanosoma brucei

Answer 966

Tse tse fly

Question 967

Borrelia burgdoferi

Answer 967

Ixodes tick

Question 968

Bartonella bacilliformis

Answer 968

Phlebotomus fly

Question 969

Loa loa

Answer 969

Deerfly (mango fly), Chrysops

Question 970

Bartonella Quintana

Answer 970

Pediculus humanus

Question 971

Trypanosoma cruzi

Answer 971

Panstrongylus megistus (reduviid bug)

Question 972

Schistosoma japonicum

Answer 972

Onchomelania quadrasi

Question 973

Rickettsia pox

Answer 973

Liponyssoides

Question 974

Rickettsia prowazeki

Answer 974

Pediculus humanus

Question 975

Yersinia pestis

Answer 975

Xenopsylla cheopis

Question 976

American trypanosomiasis (chagas disease)

Answer 976

Triatoma, panstrongylus

Question 977

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 977

Dermacentor spp

Question 978

Francisella tularensis

Answer 978

Dermacentor

Question 979

Echinostoma ilocanum

Answer 979

Pila luzonica

Question 980

Borrelia recurrentis

Answer 980

Ornithodoros

Question 981

Boutonneuse fever

Answer 981

Rhipicephalus

Question 982

Disease cause by strep pyogenes

Answer 982

PRAISE 
Pharyngitis
Rheumatic fever
Acute post strep glomerulonephritis  
Impetigo (contagiosa)
Scarlet fever - spares the face
Erysipelas

Question 983

Transmission of L.monocytogenes

Answer 983

Ingestion of contaminated raw milk products and cabbages (coleslaw)

Question 984

Produces serpentine colonies

Answer 984

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 985

Optochin, bile and quellung positive

Answer 985

Strep pneumoniae

Question 986

Long, thin aerobic spirochete that have hook on one or bothe ends, giving them an “ice tongs” appearance

Answer 986

Leptospira

Question 987

Clostridium species that is not motile

Answer 987

Clostridium perfringens

Question 988

Vector of yersinia pestis

Answer 988

Xenopsylla cheopis

Question 989

Between chlamydia and rickettsia, which has fond to columnar epithelium

Answer 989

Chlamydia

Question 990

Obligate aerobes

Answer 990

NN BBB LMP
neisseria and nocardia
Bacillus cereus, bordetella, brucella
Legionella
Mycobacteria
Pseudomonas

Question 991

Poly microbial

Answer 991

Brain abscess

Question 992

Cat-scratch disease
Bacillary angiomatosis
Inoculation lymphoreticulosis
Parinauds occuloglandular syndrome

Answer 992

Bartonella henselae

Question 993

Produce medussa head colonies

Answer 993

Bacillus anthracis

Question 994

Vector of Borrelia burgdorferi

Answer 994

Ixodid nymph tick

Question 995

Causes left-sided valve infection in addicts

Answer 995

P. aeruginosa

Candida albicans

Question 996

Number one cause of bacterial bronchitis and and pneumonia in teenagers and young adults

Answer 996

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Question 997

Hematologic hallmark of gardnerella vaginalis infection

Answer 997

Clue cells

Question 998

Characteristic fried egg appearance

Answer 998

Mycoplasma

Question 999

Yersinia pestis is a gram-neg bacteria that exhibits striking bipolar staining with special stains. What are those?

Answer 999

Giemsa or Wayson’s stain

Question 1000

Lucio’s phenomenon

Answer 1000

mycobacterium leprae

Question 1001

Causes UTI having alkaline urine due to urease

Answer 1001

Proteus mirabilis

Question 1002

Transmission of coxiella burnetti

Answer 1002

Inhalation of aerosols

Question 1003

T or F: strep viridans is part of normal oral flora (found in the nasopharynx and gingival crevices) and GIT.

Answer 1003

True

Question 1004

Treatment for gardnerella vaginalis

Answer 1004

Metronidazole

Question 1005

Most common cause of duodenal ulcers and chronic gastritis. And second leading cause of gastric ulcers

Answer 1005

Helicobacter pylori

Question 1006

Job’s syndrome (hyper-IgE syndrome)
Recurrent cellulitis
Spreads from central localized infection.

Answer 1006

Staph aureus cellulitis

Question 1007

Group B, beta-hemolytic strep

Answer 1007

Strep agalactiae

Question 1008

Lyme disease

Answer 1008

Borrelia burgdorferi

Question 1009

Causes bacterial vaginitis

Answer 1009

Gardnerella vaginalis

Question 1010

T or F: strep agalactiae is part of normal flora of vagina of pregnant women

Answer 1010

True. About 25% of pregnant

Question 1011

Endemic typhus

Answer 1011

Rickettsia typhi

Question 1012

Are corynebacterium and listeria catalase positive

Answer 1012

Yes

Question 1013

Pseudoappendicits syndrome.

Answer 1013

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

Question 1014

Yaws

Answer 1014

Treponema pertenue

Question 1015

Rusty colored sputum in pneumonia

Answer 1015

Strep pneumoniae

Question 1016

Mycobacterium tuberculosis produces ____ in culture

Answer 1016

Niacin

Question 1017

Produces black eschar

Answer 1017

Bacillus anthracis

Question 1018

Corkscrew-shaped spirochete

Answer 1018

Borrelia

Question 1019

Toxins of staph aureus

Answer 1019

Exfoliatin
Enterotoxin
TSST-1

Question 1020

“The great pretender”

Answer 1020

Treponema pallidum

Question 1021

Non fermenters
Hot tub folliculitis (diffuse folliculitis)
Echtyma gangrenosum 
Cellulits ff penetrating trauma 
HAP

Answer 1021

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 1022

Muscle spasm
Trismus
Risus sardonicus
Respiratory muscle paralysis

Answer 1022

Tetanus

Question 1023

Lactose fermenter enteric

Answer 1023

E.coli and klebsiella pneumoniae

Question 1024

Diagnostic test for diphtheria

Answer 1024

Elek’s test

Question 1025

T or F: salmonella typhi is zoonotic

Answer 1025

False. S.typhi is not zoonotic and only carried by humans

Question 1026

Growth medium of mycobacterium leprae

Answer 1026

Footpads of mice or in armadillo

Question 1027

Predictive model for diagnosis of group A strep

Answer 1027

Centor criteria

Question 1028

Indole negative

Ferments lactose

Answer 1028

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Question 1029

Red diaper syndrome

Answer 1029

Serratia mercescens

Question 1030

Causes spontaneous myonecrosis and spontaneous non traumatic gangrene

Answer 1030

Clostridium septicum

Question 1031

Some people recovering from typhoid fever become chronic carriers, harboring salmonella typhi in their ____ and excreting bacteria constantly.

Answer 1031

Gall bladder

Question 1032

Swarming enteric

Answer 1032

Proteus mirabilis

Question 1033

Friedlander’s pneumoniae

Answer 1033

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Question 1034

Disease that presents with the abrupt onset of a watery diarrhea (classically described as looking like RICE WATER) with loss of up to 1liter of fluid per hr in severe cases.

Answer 1034

Cholera. It causes death by dehydration

Question 1035

Group A strep, beta-hemolytic

Answer 1035

Strep pyogenes

Question 1036

Flagella of clostridium has this virulence protein

Answer 1036

H-antigen

Question 1037

Treatment for yersinia pestis

Answer 1037

Streptomycin + tetracycline

Question 1038

Most common cause of non-gonoccocal urethritis

Answer 1038

Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 1039

Causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Answer 1039

Rickettsia rickettsii

Question 1040

Diseases caused by Clostridium septicum

Answer 1040

Spontaneous myonecrosis

Spontaneous non traumatic gangrene

Question 1041

Cord factor of mycobacteria

Answer 1041

Trehalose dimycolate

Question 1042

Step agalactiae is hydrolyzed by …

Answer 1042

Hippurate

Question 1043

Pinta

Answer 1043

Treponema carateum

Question 1044

Incubation period of Leptospira interrogans

Answer 1044

5-14 days (2-30days)

Question 1045

Incubation period of yersinia enterocolitica

Answer 1045

Cold enrichment - 4C For 1wk

Question 1046

Whooping cough

Answer 1046

Bordetella pertussis

Question 1047

Spirillum minus

Answer 1047

Rat bite fever

Question 1048

Oroya fever is a profound intravascular hemolytic anemia of a few weeks duration, associated with lesions called VERRUGA PERUANA resembling Kaposi’s sarcoma; also known as Carrión’s disease.

Answer 1048

Bartonella bacilliformis

Question 1049

Index organism for fecal contamination of water

Answer 1049

E.coli

Question 1050

Most common bacteria in surface water worldwide

Answer 1050

Vibrios

Question 1051

Borrelia burgdorferi can invade the brain, cranial nerves and even motor/sensory nerves. What is the most common CN palsy?

Answer 1051

Bell’s palsy

Question 1052

Patient that is a worker in the meat-packing industry, a veterinarian, a farmer or a traveler who consumes dairy (cow or goat) products in Mexico ore elsewhere. Possible disease?

Answer 1052

Tularemia

Question 1053

Causes tularemia

Answer 1053

Francisella tularensis

Question 1054

Neurotoxin of Cl.botulinum inhibits the release of _____ from peripheral nerves. Toxin is not secreted, rather It is released upon the death of bacteria.

Answer 1054

Acetylcholine

Question 1055

Diagnostic test of step.pyogene that indicates presence of pyrrolidonyl arrylamidase

Answer 1055

PYR test

Question 1056

Most common cause of bloody diarrhea in 1-4yrs old

Answer 1056

Shigella dysenteriae

Question 1057

It is seen in secondary syphilis. In paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, an antibody associated with syphilis and viral infections.

Answer 1057

Donath-Landsteiner antibody

Question 1058

Most common cause if UTI in sexually active women (second to e.coli)

Answer 1058

Staph saprophyticus

Question 1059

Enzymes of serratia mercescens

Answer 1059

Gelatinase
DNAse
Lipase

Question 1060

Most common type of salmonella infection

Answer 1060

Inflammatory diarrhea

Question 1061

Erysipelas - fiery red swelling of face

Answer 1061

Strep pyogenes

Question 1062

3rd most common cause of meningitis in children

Answer 1062

Listeria monocytogenes

Question 1063

Cause of dental carries

Answer 1063

Strep viridans

Question 1064

Culture of h.influenzae

Answer 1064

Chocolate agar

Question 1065

Diseases caused by brucella

Answer 1065

BUM
Brucellosis (causes undulant fever) 
Bang's disease
Undulant fever
Mediterranean fever

Question 1066

Family vibrionaceae

Answer 1066

Vibrio cholera
Vibrio panhaemolyticus
Campylobacter jejuni
Helicobacter pylori

Question 1067

Trench fever

Answer 1067

Bartonella quintana

Question 1068

Recurrent form of epidemic typhus

Answer 1068

Brill-zinser disease

Question 1069

Can live in 6.5% NaCl and 40% bile

Answer 1069

Group D strep

Question 1070

Rapidly spreading, diffuse process
Associated with lymphangitis and fever
Milroy’s disease

Answer 1070

Strep cellulitis

Question 1071

Most common cause of diarrhea

Answer 1071

Yersinia enterocolitica

Question 1072

Between chlamydia and rickettsia, which requires an arthropod vector?

Answer 1072

Rickettsia

Question 1073

Weil’s disease

Answer 1073

Leptospira interrogans

Question 1074

Infected lymph node in bubonic plague

Answer 1074

Inguinal nodes (boubon is Greek for groin)

Question 1075

Caused the Black Death or the bubonic plague

Answer 1075

Yersinia pestis

Question 1076

Diagnostic test for cholera

Answer 1076

String test

Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts (TCBS) agar

Question 1077

Cross reacts with rickettsiae species

Answer 1077

Proteus mirabilis

Question 1078

Stain that demonstrates the metachromatic granules of corynebacterium diptheriae

Answer 1078

Methylene blue

Question 1079

Female genital tract abscess

Pancreatitis

Answer 1079

Bacteroides fragilis

Question 1080

Diseases caused by strep agalactiae

Answer 1080

Neonatal meningitis, pneumonia and sepsis

Question 1081

Staph that causes continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

Answer 1081

Coagulase negative staph

Question 1082

Caseous necrosis is due to

Answer 1082

Phosphatides

Question 1083

Epidemic typhus

Answer 1083

Rickettsia prowazeki

Question 1084

Vector of rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 1084

Dermacentor spp.

Question 1085

Culture for mycobacteria

Answer 1085

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

Question 1086

Causes severe croup, acute supraglottic laryngitis and meningitis (3mos -3yrs)

Answer 1086

H.influenza

Question 1087

T or F: mycobacterium leprae grows better in cooler temperature closer to the skin surface.

Answer 1087

True. Leprosy involves the cooler are of the body.

Question 1088

H.influenzae requires two factors for growth (both found in blood)

Answer 1088

Factor V - NAD

Factor X - Hemin

Question 1089

Fevers caused by leptospira interrogans

Answer 1089

FCPCN
Fort Bragg fever
Canefield fever
Pretibial fever
Canicola fever
Nanukayami fever

Question 1090

Incubation period of mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 1090

3-8 wks

Question 1091

Early congenital syphilis occurs within 2 years and is like severe secondary syphilis. What are the manifestations?

Answer 1091

Condylomata latum

Snuffles : runny nose

Question 1092

Rat catcher’s yellow

Answer 1092

Leptospira interrogans

Question 1093

Most common cause of meningitis in adults

Answer 1093

Strep pneumoniae

Question 1094

Drug induced
Adults
Stratum germinativum

Answer 1094

Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

Question 1095

Bacitracin-sensitive

Answer 1095

Strep.pyogene

Question 1096

Curved gram-negative rod with a single polar flagellum

Answer 1096

Vibrio cholerae

Question 1097

Produces bull’s eye target colonies

Answer 1097

Yersinia enterocolitica

Question 1098

Indole positive
Beta hemolytic
Ferments lactose

Answer 1098

E.coli

Question 1099

Major virulence factor of strep pyogenes

Answer 1099

M protein

Question 1100

Nongonoccocal urethritis (20-30%)
Prostitis and epididimytis in men

Answer 1100

Ureaplasma urealyticum

Question 1101

Hansen’s disease

Answer 1101

Leprosy by mycobacterium leprae

Question 1102

Cellulitis on bone renderers and fish mongers

Answer 1102

Erysipelothrix rhusfopathiae

Question 1103

Primary bacterial peritonitis

honeymoon cystitis

Answer 1103

E.coli

Question 1104

Staghorn calculi

Answer 1104

Proteus mirabilis

Question 1105

Wasserman reaction

Answer 1105

Treponema pallidum

Question 1106

Q fever

Answer 1106

Coxiella burnetti

Question 1107

Disease caused by group D strep

Answer 1107

Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Biliary tract infection
Urinary tract infection

Question 1108

Lancet shape

Answer 1108

Strep pneumoniae

Question 1109

Classic test that uses cross reacting OX strains of proteus vulgaris antigens to help confirm diagnosis of a rickettsial infection

Answer 1109

Weil-Felix reaction

Question 1110

Mobiluncus

Answer 1110

Gardnerella vaginalis

Question 1111

Dental plaques

Produce sulfur granules

Answer 1111

Arachnia propionica

Question 1112

Severest form of leprosy where patients cannot mount CMI response to M.leprae.

Answer 1112

Lepromatous leprosy

Question 1113

Group d strep has this thing that helps them bind to heart valves

Answer 1113

Dextran

Question 1114

Rule of six in syphilis

Answer 1114

Sixual transmission
6 axial filaments
6 wks incubation
6 wks for ulcer to heal
6 wks after ulcer heals,vsecondary syphilis develops
6 wks for secondary syphilis to resolve
66% of latent stage patients have resolution
6 years (at least) to develop tertiary syphilis

Question 1115

Human granulocytotrophic ehrlichiosis

Answer 1115

Anaplasma phagocytophila

Question 1116

Stage of syphilis: chancre

Answer 1116

Primary syphilis

Question 1117

Diseases caused by chlamydia trachomatis

Answer 1117

TPL
Trachoma - corneal scarring (scar traction pulls and folds the eyelids inward so that the eyelashes rub against the conjunctiva and cornea
Pebbly conjunctiva
Lymphogranuloma venereum

Question 1118

Virulence factor of yersinia pestis

Answer 1118

V and W antigen

Question 1119

Bacteroides fragilis infection occurs when the organism enters into the ..

Answer 1119

Peritoneal cavity

Question 1120

Leonine facies if a manifestation of …

Answer 1120

Lepromatous leprosy

Question 1121

Group D strep, alpha,beta,gamma-hemolytic

Answer 1121

Enterococci (strep faecalis and faecium)

Non-enterococci ( strep bovis and equinus)

Question 1122

Motility of L.monocytogenes

Answer 1122

Tumbling motility

Actin-jet motility

Question 1123

Comparison of rash from Rocky Mountain spotted fever and epidemic typhus

Answer 1123

In contrast to Rocky Mountain spotted fever, epidemic typhus rash spares the palms, soles and face.

Question 1124

Enteric bacteria

Answer 1124

PEKSS
Proteus mirabilis
E.coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Shigella dysenteriae
Salmonella typhi

Question 1125

Syphilitic reagin

Answer 1125

IgG and igM

Question 1126

Has characteristic gull wing appearance at 42 degrees in culture

Answer 1126

Campylobacter jejuni

Question 1127

Crepitus positive
Gas gangrene
Food poisoning (no fever)

Answer 1127

Clostridium perfringens

Question 1128

Produces golden yellow colonies

Answer 1128

Staph aureus

Question 1129

No lancefield classification

Alpha-hemolytic, encapsulated

Answer 1129

Strep pneumoniae

Question 1130

Culture for corynebacterium diptheriae

Answer 1130

TELL UR InTErn not to LOEF around

1. Potassium tellurite agar
2. Loeffler’s medium

Question 1131

Late congenital syphilis is similarly to tertiary syphilis except that cardiovascular involvement rarely occurs. What are the manifestations?

Answer 1131

8th nerve deafness (vestibulocochlear nerve)
Saber shin (tibia leads to bowing)
Mulberry or Moon’s molar (molars have too many cusps)
Hutchinson’s teeth (incisors are widely spaced with a central notch)
Clutton’s joint (symmetrical arthrosis)

Question 1132

Some rickettsia share antigenic characteristics with …

Answer 1132

Proteus vulgaris

Question 1133

Splenic abscess

Answer 1133

Steptoccocal species

Question 1134

Microaerophilic bacteria

Answer 1134

Helicobacter and campylobacter

Spirochetes

Question 1135

Most common cause of post-influenzal secondary bacterial pneumonia

Answer 1135

Staph aureus

Question 1136

E.coli strain that causes Hemorrhagic uremic syndrome.

Answer 1136

E.coli O157

Question 1137

Japanese river typhus

Answer 1137

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

Question 1138

Nonmotile enteric

Answer 1138

Klebsiella pneumoniae and shigella dysenteriae

Question 1139

Rat bite fever

Answer 1139

By streptobacillus moniliformis

Question 1140

Syphilis: endarteritis obliterans (inflam of inner lining of artery)

Answer 1140

Syphilitic aortitis

Question 1141

Produces cherry red colonies

Answer 1141

Serratia mercescens

Question 1142

Diagnostic test for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Answer 1142

Cold agglutinins

Question 1143

Puppy feces
Pica in children
Mimics appendicitis

Answer 1143

Yersinia enterocolitica

Question 1144

Tiniest free living organism capable of self-replication

Answer 1144

Mycoplasma

Question 1145

Strep pneumoniae produces this enzyme for mucosal colonization

Answer 1145

IgA protease

Question 1146

Toxin of Cl.tetani which inhibits release inhibitory neurotransmitters (GABA, glycine) resulting in distant muscle contraction (tetany)

Answer 1146

Tetanospasmin

Question 1147

Scrub typhus

Answer 1147

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

Question 1148

Greenish discharge with fishy odor

Answer 1148

Gardnerella vaginalis

Question 1149

Urease positive
Phenylalanine deaminase positive
Indole negative
Does not ferment lactose

Answer 1149

Proteus mirabilis

Question 1150

Purpura fulminans

Answer 1150

N.menigitidis

Question 1151

Most patient with syphilis will develop an acute worsening of their symptoms immediately aft antibiotics. What is this phenomenon?

Answer 1151

Jarisch-Herxheimer phenomenon

Question 1152

Has characteristic rose spots on belly

And a tongue brown and furred

Answer 1152

Typhoid fever /enteric fever (Salmonella typhi)

Question 1153

Painless genital ulcer - chancroid

Answer 1153

Syphilis (treponema pallidum)

Question 1154

How many organisms of v.cholerae are required to be infected?

Answer 1154

100-1000 organisms

Question 1155

Obligate anaerobes

Answer 1155

Clostridium

Bacteroides

Question 1156

Toxin produced by v.cholerae

Answer 1156

Choleragen

Question 1157

Organisms that cause echthyma gangrenosum

Answer 1157

P. aeruginosa

A. Hydrophila

Question 1158

Diarrhea caused by yersinia enterocolitica severe abdominal pain right lower quadrant, thus it often mimics what disease?

Answer 1158

Appendicitis (mesenteric adenitis)

Question 1159

Reservoir of francisella tularensis and how humans get infected

Answer 1159

Rabbits. From bite of ticks and deerflies

Question 1160

Bacitracin-resistant

Answer 1160

Strep agalactiae

Question 1161

Stage of syphilis: tabes dorsalis (spinal cord posterior column and dorsal root)

Answer 1161

Tertiary syphilis

Question 1162

This organism us ubiquitous in natural and man-made water environments. Aerosolized contaminates water is inhaled, resulting in infection. Sources such as air conditioning units and cooling towers.

Answer 1162

Legionella pneumophila

Question 1163

Purpura fulminans + asplenia

Answer 1163

N.menigitidis. + H.influenzae

Question 1164

Painful genital ulcer -chancroid

Answer 1164

H. Ducreyri

Question 1165

Scarlitiniform rash

Answer 1165

Arcanobacterium hemolyticum

Question 1166

At risk patients of salmonella typhi

Answer 1166

Patients who are asplenia or have nonfunctioning spleen (sickle cell anemia)

Question 1167

Optochin-resistant

Answer 1167

Strep viridans

Question 1168

Pemphigus neonatorum

Answer 1168

Leptospira interrogans

Question 1169

Used to diagnose scarlet fever

Answer 1169

Dick test

Question 1170

Diagnostic test for mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 1170

Montoux test

Question 1171

Catalase and coagulase positive

Facultative anaerobe

Answer 1171

Staph aureus

Question 1172

Currant jelly sputum

Answer 1172

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Question 1173

Toxin that e.coli has that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating 60s ribosomal unit

Answer 1173

Verotoxin

Question 1174

Causes brain micro abscess, pyomyositis, hematogenous and contiguous focus osteomyelitis, post op infections, Ritter’s disease, localized bullous impetigo, necrotizing and nodular pneumonia

Answer 1174

Staph aureus

Question 1175

Honey colored crusting

Answer 1175

Staph aureus

Question 1176

Stage of syphilis: condylomata latum

Answer 1176

Secondary syphilis

Question 1177

“Bull neck”

Answer 1177

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Question 1178

3 most common causes of diarrhea in the world

Answer 1178

Campylobacter jejuni
ETEC
Rotavirus

Question 1179

Opthalmia neonatorum
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
PROM

Answer 1179

N. gonorrheae

Question 1180

Proteus mirabilis cross reacts with _____ species

Answer 1180

Rickettsiae species

Question 1181

Yersinia enterocolitica is closely related to yersinia pestis that causes bubonic plague. Their difference is in the mode of transmission.

Answer 1181

Yersinia pestis: bite of a flea

Yersinia enterocolitis: fecal-oral route

Question 1182

Walking pneumoniae

Answer 1182

Chlamydia pneumoniae or mycoplasma pneumoniae

Question 1183

Cat bite fever

Answer 1183

Pasteurella multocida

Question 1184

Subungual hemorrhage

In s.aureus endocarditis

Answer 1184

Osler’s node

Question 1185

Torulosis

Aseptic meningitis

Answer 1185

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 1186

Superficial fungal infection

Answer 1186

Pityriasis versicolor

Tinea nigra

Question 1187

Fungal infection of the body

Answer 1187

Tinea corporis

Question 1188

Unicellular growth form of fungi

Answer 1188

Yeast

Question 1189

Coccidiodes immitis causes what diseases

Answer 1189

San Joaquin fever

Desert rheumatism

Question 1190

Pilot’s wheel

Answer 1190

Paracoccidiodes brasilensis

Question 1191

Can be found in pigeon droppings

Answer 1191

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 1192

Cigar-shape yeast

Answer 1192

Sporothrix schenckii

Question 1193

Essential sterol in fungi

Answer 1193

Ergosterol

Question 1194

Fungal infection of the groin and scrotum

Answer 1194

Tinea cruris

Question 1195

T or F: spores can be transmitted from person to person

Answer 1195

False. Never, it can be acquired thru inhalation as a spore.

Question 1196

Most common cns fungal infection

Answer 1196

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 1197

Subcutaneous-fungal infections gain entrance to the body following…

Answer 1197

Trauma to the skin

Question 1198

Cottage cheese vaginal discharge

Answer 1198

Candida albicans

Question 1199

The key to diagnosis of this fungus is doing a lumbar puncture and analyzing the CSF. An India ink test is positive.

Answer 1199

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 1200

Fungi that can grow as either a yeast or mold, depending on environmental conditions and temperature (usually growing as a yeast at body temperatures).

Answer 1200

Dimorphic fungi

Question 1201

Coccidiodes immitis can be stained by

Answer 1201

India ink

Question 1202

Diseases caused by Candida albicans

Answer 1202

Diaper rush
Oral thrush
Vaginitis

Question 1203

Fungal infection (previously protozoa) common in AIDS

Answer 1203

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Question 1204

Microorg that causes sporotrichosis

Answer 1204

Sporothrix schenckii

Question 1205

Encapsulated yeasts

Answer 1205

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 1206

Madura foot

Answer 1206

Pseudallescheria boydii

Question 1207

Cryptococcus neoformans is found in nature, especially in.

Answer 1207

Pigeon droppings

Question 1208

Antifungal drug that inhibits ergosterol synthesis

Answer 1208

Ketoconazole

Question 1209

Culture for fungi

Answer 1209

Saborauds agar

Question 1210

Broad-based budding yeast

Answer 1210

Blastomyces

Question 1211

Black nasal discharge + sinusitis

Answer 1211

Mucormycosis / rhizopus

Question 1212

Fungal infection of the hair (scalp)

Answer 1212

Tinea capitis

Question 1213

Systemic fungal infection.

Answer 1213

Blastomycosis

Coccidiodomycosis

Question 1214

Infection from plant part trauma

Answer 1214

Sporothrix schenckii

Question 1215

Category of cutaneous fungal infection where fungi live in the dead, horny layer of skin, hair and nails.

Answer 1215

Dermathophytic cells

Question 1216

Primary manifestation of superficial fungal infections

Answer 1216

Pigment change of the skin

Question 1217

Stain for pneumocystis jiroveci

Answer 1217

Silver stain

Question 1218

When examined under microscope, the pus draining from the abscess of actinomyces infection reveals yellow granules called..

Answer 1218

Sulfur granules

Question 1219

Subcutaneous fungal infection

Answer 1219

Sporotrichosis

Chromoblastomycosis

Question 1220

Produces pseudohyphae

Answer 1220

Candida albicans

Question 1221

Treatment for pneumocystis jiroveci

Answer 1221

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Question 1222

Non budding spherioles

Answer 1222

Coccidiodes immitis

Question 1223

Fungus ball in the brain abscess

Answer 1223

Aspergillus fumigatus

Question 1224

Eucaryotic cells that lack chlorophyll so they cannot generate thru photosynthesis. They do require aerobic environment.

Answer 1224

Fungi

Question 1225

First line drugs for treatment of dermatophytoses

Answer 1225

Topical imidazole

Question 1226

Reproducing bodies of molds.

Answer 1226

Spore

Question 1227

Arthroconidia

Answer 1227

Coccidiodes immitis

Question 1228

Fungus that has no ergosterol

Answer 1228

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Question 1229

The fungi-like bacteria

Answer 1229

Actinomyces

Nocardia

Question 1230

Broad hyphae invading blood vessels walls

Answer 1230

Mucormycosis / rhizopus

Question 1231

Pityriasis versicolor is caused by..

Answer 1231

Malassezia furfur

Question 1232

Multicellular colonies composed of clumps of intertwined branching hyphae

Answer 1232

Molds

Question 1233

Fungi that live in and utilize organic matter (soil, rotten vegetation) as an energy source.

Answer 1233

Saprophytes

Question 1234

Antifungal drug that destroys cm (ergosterol)

Answer 1234

Amphiteracin B and nystatin

Question 1235

Causes oral thrush

Answer 1235

Candida albicans

Question 1236

Rarest systemic fungal infection

Answer 1236

Blastomyces

Question 1237

Fungal infection of the foot

Answer 1237

Tinea pedis

Question 1238

Most common in chronic sinusitis

Answer 1238

Aspergillus fumigatus

Question 1239

Fungal infection of the nails

Answer 1239

Tinea unguium (onchomycosis)

Question 1240

Treatment for tinea capitis and tinea unguium

Answer 1240

Oral griseofulvin

Question 1241

Rose gardener’s disease

Answer 1241

Sporotrichosis. (Sporothrix schenckii)

Question 1242

Treatment for actinomyces and nocardia

Answer 1242

SNAP
Sulfamethoxazole for Nocardia
Actinomyces is Pen G

Question 1243

Causes desert rheumatism and San Joaquin fever

Answer 1243

Coccidioides immitis

Question 1244

Fungi can look like spaghetti (hyphae) and meat balls (spherical yeast)

Answer 1244

Malassezia furfur

Question 1245

T or F: Cryptococcus neoformans is associated with AIDS.

Answer 1245

True

Question 1246

Dichotomous branching hyphae

Answer 1246

Aspergillus fumigatus

Question 1247

Lumpy jaw

Answer 1247

Actinomyces Israeli

Question 1248

Dermatophytic cells secreted an enzyme called…

Answer 1248

Keratinase

Question 1249

Treatment for Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 1249

Amphotericin B

Fluconazole (or flucytosine)

Question 1250

Lipophylic yeast

Answer 1250

Malassezia furfur