Microbio - all! Flashcards by zarieh Novela

Osteoperiostitis of the alveoli of the teeth

Secondary to gingivitis

Magitot’s disease

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Blue pus

By pseudomonas aeruginosa

Charrin’s disease

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Durand’s disease is caused by

Chlamydia trachomatis

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Erythrasma is caused by

Corynebacterium minutissimum

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Tuberculous pericarditis

Cirrhosis of the liver

Hutinel’s disease

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Hutinel’s disease is caused by

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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Lymphocytic choriomeningitis

Armstrong’s disease

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Tyzzer’s disease is caused by

Bacillus pilliformis

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Chromoblastomycosis

Cauliflower like lesion

Chromomycosis

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Inflammation of tunica intima of cerebral arteries

Heubner’s disease

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Self limited diarrhea

Un pasteurized milk and untreated well water

Brainered diarrhea

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Phycomycosis, mucormycosis

Zygomycosis

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Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Red-violet lesions
Tendency to become malignant

Lewandowsky lutz disease

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Maduramycosis

Madura foot

Mycetoma

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Infectious ecematoid dermatitis

Engman’s disease

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Fourth disease

Duke’s disease

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Echinococcus multilocularis larvae infection

Hydatid disease, alveolar

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Sepsis of cirrhotic patient

Oyster ingestion

Vibrio vulnificus

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Chromomycosis is caused by …

Phialophora verrucosa, fonsecaea pedrosoi and

Clasposporium carrioni

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Prion disease
Mad cow disease
Degenerative brain disorder

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

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Rapidly progressive septicemia

Puncture wound from Fish spine

Fish-slime disease

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Diamond skin disease is caused by…

Strep pyogenes

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Lethargic encephalitis

Economo’s disease

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Endartritis obliterans

Friedlander’s disease

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Vesicles on penis or vagina

Durand's disease

Brown-symmers disease is an acute encephalitis. What are the viral pathogens that causes this?

``` Rabies Rubella Mumps Measles Influenza ```

Echinococcus granulosus infection

Hydatid disease, unilocular

Acute miliary TB of larynx and pharynx

Isambert's disease

Duke's disease is caused by...

Coxsackie and echovirus

Erysipelothrix insidiosa | Meat and fish handlers

Erysepeloid

Osteochondritic separation of epiphyses due to syphilis

Wegner's disease

Transmission of armstrong's disease

Food or dust contaminated by rodents

Rheumatic endocarditis | Delayed sequel for pharyngeal infection by group B strep

Boulilauds disease

Engman's disease is caused by

Staph

Mycetoma is caused by

Allescheria boydii or actinomycetales

Polymorphous skin eruption | Etiology unknown

Habermann's disease

Congenital syphilis | By treponema pallidum

Duboi's disease

Superficial bacterial skin infection

Erythrasma

Syphylitic disease of the bursa | By treponema pallidum

Verneuil's disease

Liver and intestine necrosis | Contact with rodents or dogs

Tyzzer's disease

Armstrongs's disease is caused by

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus LCM of arena virus

Swine erysipelas | Acute febrile vascular disease

Diamond-skin disease

Economo's disease is caused by

Neurotropic virus

Diseases caused by coxsackie B3 and B5

Devil's eye Myocarditis and pericarditis Pleurodynia (Bornholm's disease)

Rimantadine and amantadine action

Prevents viral un coating in influenza A

CMV infection recurrence in immunocompromised patients, especially AIDS patient.

CMV retinitis

Re activation to zoster from...

Dorsal root ganglia

Incubation period of chickenpox

10-21 days

Glycoprotein the breaks down neuraminic acid, an important component of mucin

Prion disease

Kuru Gerstmann-straussler disease Prion (13-3-3 protein)

Positive sense RNA virus

``` PCCRaFT Picornavirus Calicivirus Coronavirus Reovirus Flavivirus Togavirus ```

Most common viral encephalitis in the Philippines

Japanese encephalitis

Negative sense RNA viruses

``` "Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication" Arenavirus Bunyavirus Paramyxovirus Orthomyxovirus Filovirus Rhabdovirus ```

Diagnosis for parvovirus

PCR

Primary infection of HSV 1

Gingivostomatitis - painful group of vesicles on the lips and mouth, which ulcerate and has usually without leaving a scar. Often accompanied by fever and viral symptoms

Family of hepa D virus

Deltavirus

Type of RNA virus which are like mRNA, they are immediately translated by the host's ribosome into protein

Positive sense RNA virus

Diagnostic preparation in isolating HSV

Tzanck smear, cowdry A

Coxsackie A or B: | In mice, it causes paralysis and death with multiple organ damage

Coxsackie B

Diseases caused by poliovirus

Mild flu-like illness Nonparalytic poliomyelitis: Aseptic meningitis Paralytic poliomyelitis

Hepatitis that is chronic, cirrhosis, carcinoma and carrier

Hepatitis C

Protein found in paramyxovirus that results in multinucleated giant cells (called syncytial cells)

F protein

Non defective parvovirus strain

B19 virus

Reoviruses

Respiratory, Enteric, Orphan

Transfusion hepatitis

Hepatitis C

Kluver-bucy syndrome

Herpes encephalitis

Polio virus initially replicated in the tonsils and Peyer's patches, spreading to the blood, and across cns barrier to the (anterior,posterior) horn of the spinal cord.

Anterior horn cells

Intact virus of hepatitis B

Dane particle

Hepatitis that may cause hepatocellular carcinoma

Hepatitis B and C

All RNA virus are SIngle stranded, except...

Rotavirus | Reovirus

Disease caused by parvovirus which ensues when the virus stops the production of RBCs in the bone marrow

Transient aplastic anemia crisis

Transmission of poliovirus

Fecal-oral transmission

Rhinovirus is acid-labile or acid-stable?

Acid-labile

Also known as break bone fever

Dengue fever

Treatment for CMV infection

Ganciclovir

Caliciviruses

Norwalk virus | Hepatitis E

Type of RNA virus that is transcribed in reverse fashion into DNA

Retrovirus

Most common cause of common cold

Rhinovirus

Papovavirus Polyomavirus that causes mild and ASYMPTOMATIC infection in children. Also seen from immunosuppressive kidney transplant patients and HPV.

BK polyomavirus

RNA virus has this enzyme for synthesis.

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Building block of capsid

Capsomer

Herpesvirus that cause infectious mononucleosis

EBV

RNA viruses that cause gastroenteritis

Rotavirus (reovirus) | Calicivirus

Causes adult acute t-cell leukemia and tropical spastic paraparesis (partial paralysis of lower limb)

Human T lymphotrophic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)

Retrovirus has this required enzyme for synthesis

Reverse transcriptase

Virus that cause common cold and has prominent halo and spikes

Coronavirus

TORCHES can cross blood-placental barrier

``` Toxoplasmosis Rubella CMV Herpes, HIV Syphilis ```

Most frequent cause of viral (aseptic) meningitis

Mumps virus Coxsackie Echovirus

Intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in yellow fever virus infection

Councilman bodies - acidophilic inclusion

Most important antigen of EBV

Viral capsid antigen (VCA)

Diseases caused by HSV 1

Gingivostomatitis Encephalitis Keratoconjunctivitis Herpes labialis

Largest virus

Poxvirus

Poxvirus that is Completely eradicated worldwide

Variola virus

Type of RNA virus which should be transcribed first into positive sense RNA virus.

Negative sense RNA virus

Bronchiolitis

RSV

Infectious RNA | Hamstring Myalgia

Poliovirus

Influenza B and C infects...

Human only

HPV genes implicated in carcinogenesis

E6, E7 genes

Non paralytic polio

Aseptic meningitis

Australian antigen

Hepatitis B

True or false : genetic material of viruses may be both DNA and RNA.

False. Never both

Intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in poliovirus infection

Cowdry B

Aka slow virus

Lentivirus

Only occurs in inflenza A because of trading of RNA segments between animals and human strains. It is a reassortment, a major changes of the HA and NA resulting in devastating influenza pandemics.

Antigenic shift

Difference between Orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus

Combined HA and NA Glycoprotein (wherein in Orthomyxovirus they are separate) Has fusion protein (F protein)

Treatment for poliovirus

Pleconaril - inhibits penetration Salk vaccine - formalin-killed poliovirus injected subQ Sabin vaccine (OPV) - attenuated polio virus is ingested

Small mutations resulting in minor changes in the antigenicity of NA or HA. This results in epidemics go the common flu.

Antigenic drift

HSV 8 transmission

Sexually transmitted especially in homosexual men

Influenza A infects..

Human and animals

physical separation of the viral nucleic acid from the outer structural components of the virion so that it can function.

Uncoating

Disease caused by b19 virus of parvovirus with characteristic "slapped cheek" rash.

Erythema infectiosum

Diseases caused by poxvirus

Smallpox | Molluscum contagiosum - small white bumps with central dimple (like wart). Often found in genital region.

Gamma group herpesvirus

EBV, HSV-8

Catarrhal

Measles virus

Recurrence of VZV leads to what disease?

Shingles - painful eruption of vesicles isolated in a single dermatome. The vesicles dry up and form crusts which disappears in about 3wks.

All DNA virus have linear DNA, except...

Papovavirus | Hepadnavirus

Entire infectious unit

Virion

Steps of viral replication

1. Adsorption and penetration 2. Uncoating 3. Synthesis and assembly of viral products 4. Release of virions from host cell (by lysis or by budding)

Most common viral cause of infant pneumonia

RSV

T or F: acute viral hepatitis never becomes chronic in hepatitis A

True

All RNA virus are enveloped, except...

PCR Picornavirus Calicivirus Reovirus

Characteristic appearance of the vesicle rash in chickenpox

Dew drop lesion on the top of a rose petal

Herpesvirus causes this type of infection where in the virus migrates up to the nerves to sensory ganglia and reside there. It will be activated in peripheral skin

Latency

Focal micro glial nodules in rabies

Babes nodules

Arenaviruses

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCM) | Lassa virus

Arthropod borne viruses (arbovirus)

Togavirus Flavivirus Bunyavirus

Dengue fever is a biphasic fever. What is its vector

Aedes mosquitoes

T or F: IFN does not protect virus-infected cell and not itself the antiviral agent

True

Forscheimer spots

Rubella virus

All DNA virus have icosahedral capsid, except...

Pox virus

Family of hepa G virus

Flavivirus

Enteric hepatitis C

Hepatitis E

Family of hepa C virus

Flavivirus

Type I or viral IFN

IFN alpha and beta

Most common poliomyelitis

Abortive poliomyelitis

Rhinovirus replicates better in what temperature

33 degrees centigrade

Steps in viral pathogenesis

1. Viral entry 2. Primary viral replication 3. Viral spread 4. Cellular injury 5. Host immune responses 6. Viral clearance 7. Viral shedding

Papovavirus Polyomavirus that causes Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) characterized by degenerative cns white matter disease

JC polyomavirus

Varicella is highly contagious. It causes what disease?

Chickenpox

DNA virus which is circular and ds. The complete strand not covalently closed circle and other strand is missing approximately 25% of its length

Hepadnavirus

Virulence factor / glycoproteins of Orthomyxovirus

Hemagglutinin (HA) | Neuraminidase (NA)

type II or immune interferon

IFN Gamma

Papovavirus that causes warts

HPV

HPV type that causes verucca vulgaris and condylomata accuminata (hallmark: koilocytes)

HPV type 6,11

causes the epidemic keratoconjunctivitis.

Adenovirus type 8

Diseases caused by coxsackie A

Herpangina - fever, sore throat and small red-based vesicles over the back of the patient's throat Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

Family of hepa B virus

Hepadnavirus

Most common viral cause of infant diarrhea

Rotavirus

Chemical treatment for genital warts

Podophyllin

Retroviruses

Oncovirus | Lentivirus

Diagnostic tests for EBV

Paul-bundle test Heterophil antibody test (positive by 2wks of illness) Monospot test

Infectious particles composed solely of protein with no detectable nucleic acid.

Prion

Diseases caused by bunyavirus

Encephalitis Korean hemorrhagic fever Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome Muerto canyon virus

Xanthochromic CSF is a finding in ...

Herpes encephalitis

HSV 6 transmission

Transmitted by saliva

Envelope is acquired from

Budding

Creutzfieldt-Jakob syndrome Heidenheim dementia 90% die in 1year Corneal transplant

Prion (13-3-3 protein)

Beta group herpesvirus

CMV, HSV-6

HSV 2 latency in ...

Lumbar or sacral sensory ganglia

Alpha group herpes virus

HSV-1 HSV-2 VZV

HPV type that causes common warts | e.g. Verucca plantaris, skin warts

HPV type 1, 2, 4 and 7

Appears during early acute phase and disappears before HBcAg is gone

Hep B 37 Ag (HBeAg)

Influenza a treatment

Amantadine and rimantidine

Picornaviruses

Enterovirus: poliovirus, coxsackie A&B, echovirus, hepatitis A Rhinovirus

Hydrophobia and foaming of mouth in rabies is due to

Laryngospasm

Vaccine for poxvirus

Vaccinia virus - an avirulent pox virus

Small infectious agents that cause diseases of plants.

Viroids

Do not give aspirin in children for fever,. You give what?

Acetaminophen

Diseases caused by HSV 2

Genital herpes Neonatal herpes Aseptic meningitis in neonates

Characteristic appearance in roseola

Nagayama spots - in uvopalatoglossal junction

HSV type lesions below the waist

HSV 2

All DNA virus are double stranded, except...

Parvovirus

Paramyxoviruses

Parainfluenza virus RSV Mumps virus Measles virus (rubeola)

Japanese encephalitis vector

Culex mosquitoes

RNA virus

``` PCR TCORPR picornavirus Calicivirus Reovirus Toga virus Corona virus Orthomyxovirus Rhabdovirus Paramyxovirus Retrovirus ```

Mode of transmission of HSV-1

Direct contact of mucus membrane

All DNA virus replicates in nucleus, except...

Pox virus which replicates in cytoplasm

Hepatitis that enteric and for expectant mother

Hepatitis E

Paramyxovirus that has no HA and NA

RSV

Family of hepa E virus

Calicivirus

HSV 1 latency in ...

Trigeminal ganglia

Incubation of Hepatitis A

14-45 days

Mumps virus has only one antigenic type. Therefore, the MMR vaccine is protective. What is the antigen?

"S" soluble antigen

Disease caused by parainfluenza virus characterized by strider and barking cough due to infection and swelling of larynx

Croup

Mononucleosis is a dse of young adults. As with viral infections, the lower the socioeconomic class, the earlier children are indeed and the milder disease. American teenagers living in high socioeconomic class with better sanitation are infected later in life through social contact such as kissing. Thus the reference to kissing's disease. What virus causes this?

EBV

CMV infection recurrence in immunocompromised patients, especially bone marrow transplant patients

CMV pneumonitis

Filovirus that cause mucus membrane bleeding (hemorrhagic fever)

Ebola virus

Disease caused by HSV 8

Kaposi's sarcoma Castleman's disease (lympho proliferative disorder) Primary effusion lymphoma

RNA viruses that cause common cold.

Coronavirus and rhinovirus (picornavirus)

Herpesviruses has this effect, especially HSV 1&2, and VZV. This results in separation of epithelium and causes blisters.

Cytopathic effect - cause cell destruction

Transmission of hepatitis A and E

Fecal-oral route

HPV type that causes genital warts

HPV type 6,11,16,18

Hepatitis that only carries DNA polymerase within the virion

Hepatitis B

RNA virus that contains nonfunctional ribosomes on its surface.

Arenavirus

Treatment fro HSV 1&2 and VZV

Acyclovir

Smallest virus

Picornavirus, parvovirus

Characterized by high fever, black vomitus, jaundice

Yellow fever

Family of hepa A virus

Picornavirus

Hepatitis that is asymptomatic, alone and acute

Hepatitis A

Cannibalism-related prion disease

Kuru "shivering"

Coxsackie A or B: | In mice, it causes paralysis and death with extensive skeletal muscle necrosis

Coxsackie A

Wheel-shape appearance

Rotavirus

DNA virus

``` HHAPPPy , PHP AHP Parvovirus Hepadnavirus Papovavirus Adenovirus Herpes virus Poxvirus ```

Herpes viruses

Herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2 HSV Varicella-zoster virus VZV cytomegalovirus CMV Epstein-Barr virus EBV

Enveloped viruses are heat labile

True

Paramyxovirus that only has HA and F protein

Measles (rubeola)

Disease caused by HSV 6

Roseola infantum (6th disease, exanthem subitum)

All RNA virus have helical capsid symmetry, except...

``` PCRFT, R Picornavirus Calicivirus Reovirus Flavivirus Togavirus Rhabdovirus - bullet-shaped ```

Host cell outcome

1. Death | 2. Transformation - oncogene

RNA virus that cannot replicate without hepa B

Deltavirus

Disassociation of Dane particles leaves..

HBcAg and HBsAg

Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion in rabies virus

Negri bodies

HPV type that causes cervical cancer

HPV type 16,18

Antigen found within nuclei of infected hepatocytes

HBcAg

Mode of transmission of HSV-2

Sexually transmitted

Incubation of hepatitis B

50-180 days

Diseases caused by b19 strain of parvovirus

Erythema infectiosum | Transient aplastic anemia crisis

Disease caused by influenza virus

Flu fever

Transmission of Hepatitis B, C, D

Blood transfusion Needle stick Sexual Across placenta

RNA virus that causes rabies

Rhabdovirus

Major target cell of EBV

B lymphocytes, binding to C3d receptor

HSV type lesions above the waist

HSV 1

Recurrent infection of measles after 2 years

Subacute sclerosing para encephalitis (SSPE)

What are the papovaviruses?

Papillomavirus (HPV) Polyomavirus Vacuolating viruses (SV40)

Bunyavirus that is not arbovirus

Hantavirus

Filoviruses

Ebola virus | Marburg virus

Togavirus that is not arbovirus

Rubivirus

DNA virus that causes childhood URTI such as rhinitis, sore throat, fever and conjunctivitis, and the epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (pink eye)

Adenovirus

Recurrent infection of HSV 1

Herpes labialis (fever blisters,cold sore)

Hematologic hallmark of Monocucleosis

Atypical lymphocytes

Autosomal dominant prion disease | Supranuclear gaze palsy

Gerstmann- straussler disease

Virus particle that is functionally deficient in some aspect for replication

Defective virus

All RNA virus replicates in cytoplasm, except...

Retrovirus | Orthomyxovirus

Segmental viruses

``` BORA bunyavirus Orthomyxovirus Reovirus Arenavirus ```

Intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in herpes encephalitis

Cowdry A

RNA virus that cause rubella (German measles/ 3-day measles)

Rubivirus

Vector of yellow fever virus

Aedes mosquito

Glycoprotein that binds with sialic acid, often found in the surface of RBC.

Vaccine for rubella

MMR vaccine Measles Mumps Rubella

Host-coded proteins that are member of cytokines and which inhibits viral replication.

Interferon (IFN)

Hepatitis that is defective and dependent to hepatitis B

Hepatitis D

Protein coat of viruses

Capsid

Diseases caused by flavivirus

``` Yellow fever Dengue fever Japanese encephalitis St. Louis encephalitis West Nile encephalitis Hepatitis c ```

Orthomyxovirus

Influenza virus (a,b,c)

Togaviruses

Alpha virus: WEE VEE EEE Rubivirus

Neuraminidase inhibitors that can shorten course of influenza A and B infection

Zanamivir (inhaled) | Oseltamivir (oral)

Soluble component of HBcAg and a markers of active disease and highly infectious

HBeAg

HPV type that causes laryngeal warts

HPV type 6,11

Incubation period of poliovirus

7-14 days or 3-35days

Diseases caused by EBV

BHINK Burkitt's lymphoma: B cell lympho affecting children in central Africa Hodgkin's disease : lymphoma characterized by arising in a single node or chain of nodes, spreading in anatomically contagious nodes Infectious mononucleosis Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Kissing's disease

Phase of viral growth cycle where in soon after interaction with a host cell, the infecting virion is disrupted and its measurable infectivity is lost.

Eclipse period

Disease that travels to the cns in a retrograde fashion up to the nerve axon

Rhabdovirus

Parvovirus that requires helper virus to replicate | (+) and (-) strand DNA are carried on separate particles

Defective parvovirus

Complication of influenza virus infection

Secondary bacterial pneumonia in elderly | Reye's syndrome: children who use aspirin and get liver and brain disease

Hematologic hallmark in CMV

Owl's eye inclusion

Diseases caused by mumps virus

Parotitis Orchitis (in post pubertal male Meningitis Encephalitis

T or F: maternal antibody against mumps virus provide protection during 6months of life

True

T or F: Icosahedral viruses tend to be stable, losing little infectivity after several hours at 37 °C.

True

Incubation of mumps virus

18-21 days

The koplik's spot in measles occur after 1-2days of prodrome. It is small red based blue-white centered lesions in the mouth found specifically in..

Opposite the 2nd upper molar

DNA virus that has brick-like appearance

Poxvirus

Sandy appearance

Arenavirus

Hepatitis that is blood-borne, big, bad, body-fluid

Hepatitis B

Typical lesion of staph aureus

Abscess

Tetracycline inhibits what ribosomal unit?

30s

Growth media which is the source of AA and N (beef,yeast extracts) An undefined medium because AA source contains variety of cmpds with the exact composition being unknown Contains all the elements that most bacteria needed for growth and are non selective

Nutrient agar

Selective and differential bacterial media: | Thayer-Martin or New York City agar

Neisseria with area of normal flora

Selective and differential bacterial media: | Buffered charcoal-yeast extract (BCYE) agar

Legionella

Ribosome subunits of fungi, Protozoa, helminths, animals and humans

80s

Exotoxins that binds to MHC II receptors | Non specifically activates large number of T cells

Superantigen exotoxins

Examples of differential media

``` Blood agar Eosin methylene blue EMB MacConkey Mannitol salt agar MSA X-gal plates ```

Staph that causes UTI in sexually active women | 2nd to e.coli

Staph saprophyticus

Tears, saliva, and mucus has natural antimicrobial property | This enzyme cleaves the peptidoglycan backbone by breaking GLYCOSYL BOND

Lysozyme

Strep pneumoniae is encapsulated thus exhibits what reaction

Quellung reaction

Reserve of high energy stored in the form POLYMERIZED METAPHOSPHATE.

Volutin granules

(-) peptidoglycan | (+) sterols

Eukaryotes

Treatment for strep saprophiticus

Quinolones | Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Enriched media in which nutritionally rich whole blood supplements is the basic nutrient.

Blood agar

Disease caused by staph epidermidis

IV catheter infections | Endocarditis on normal prosthetic heart valves

Requires living host cells for growth thus they are the only obligatory intracellular organism among bacteria

Rickettsia and chlamydia

Enterococci is resistant to vancomycin because of different cross-linking sequence in the cell wall of the bacteria

D-ala-lactate

Enzymes of beta hemolytic

Streptolysin o and S (hemolysin)

Processes of DNA transfer on bacteria

Conjugation, transformation, transduction

The energy for flagellar movement provided by ATP

Proton-motive force

Enriched media that contains heat-treated blood (40-45c) which turns brown

Chocolate agar

Differential media for lactose fermentation

Macconkey

Nutrient agar medium composition

Beef extract- 0.3g (mineral and carbo)

A membrane disrupting bacterial exotoxins which contain lecithinase showing a double zone of hemolysis.

Cl. Perfringens alpha toxin

Basis of the selective action of several antibiotics

Differences in ribosomal RNAs and proteins

Inclusion bodies formed when source of N, S, P are depleted and there is excess C

Poly beta hydroxybutyric acid (PHB acid)

Green zone, incomplete hemolysis

Alpha hemolytic

Growth at 4C

Y. Enterocolitica | L. Monocytogenes

Treatment for staph aureus

Prp Vancomycin (if methicillin or nafcillin resistant) Clindamycin Nafcillin or cloxacillin (if beta lactamases resistant)

Backbone of peptidoglycan

Alternating n-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid molecules

Transfer of naked forms of DNA which occurs in same sp of bacteria

Transformation

Enzyme reaction that produces O2 + H + NADP

NADPH oxidase

Capsule of bacillus anthracis is not composed of polysaccharide, it is composed of..

Glutamic acid

Linear pcs of DNA

Exogenates

Murein or mucopeptide Structural support and maintains the characteristic shape Able to withstand media of low osmotic pressure

Peptidoglycan

Transport media that uses broth for strict anaerobes

Thioglycolate

Type minimal media the contains a single selected agent, usually AA or sugar. This allows the culturing of specific lines of auxotrophic recombinants

Supplementary minimal media

Different types of media for growing different types of cell

``` Differential media Enriched media Nutrient media Transport media Selective media ```

Diseases caused by staph aureus (6)

``` Mastitis Blepharitis Cellulitis Osteomyelitis Food poisoning TSS ```

Spore-forming bacteria

Clostridium and bacillus

Flagellum-like structure that provides undulating motion for spirochetes

Axial filament

Normal flora of conjunctiva

Diptheroids, staph epidermidis and non hemolytic strep

Found in the outer layer of gram positive bacteria Antigenic, induce ab that are SPECIES-SPECIFIC mediates the adherence of staph to mucosal cells

Teichoic acid

Toxin of vibrio cholerae Catalyzes ADP-ribosylation of Gs protein ECG activates adenylcyclase that produces high level of cAMP, thus increases water and acid secretion

Choleragen

Most common resident of upper respiratory tract

Alpha hemolytic strep and neisseria

A selective differential agar used to isolate and identify member of enterococcus

Bile esculine agar

Coagulase (-)

Staph epidermidis and staph saprophyticus

Selective and differential bacterial media: | Loeffler's and tellurite medium

Corynebacterium diptheria

``` Growth media used for the growth of only selected microorganisms. An antibiotic (by which the selective microorganisms is resistant) is added to the medium in order to prevent other cells, which do not posses the resistance, from growing. ```

Selective media

Growth media that contains minimum nutrients possible for colony growth. Often used to grow wild type microorganism. Used to select or used against recombinants or exconjugants

Minimal media

Selective and differential bacterial media: | TCBS (alkaline medium)

Vibrio cholerae

Transport media for vibrio cholera

Venkat-ramakrishnan medium

Evasion of immediate host defense: | Listeria

Listeriolysin

Components of anthrax toxin

``` Protective Antigen (PA) that serves as B component Edema factor (EF) that activates adenylcyclase Lethal factor (LF) kills cell ```

Teichoic acid is a polymer of (2)

Glycosyl phosphate and ribitol phosphate

Complete cell wall lysozyme digestion

Protoplast

Membrane disrupting exotoxins

Pore-forming cytolysin

Is cell wall or cell membrane antigenic?

Yes

Examples of defined media

Nutrient agar medium Peptone Agar

Bacteria that grow well in tap and distilled water

Psedomonasl

Toxins of staph aureus and its manifestations

Enterotoxin: vomiting, watery and nonbloody diarrhea TSST: asso with tampon use, superantigen Exfoliatin: phage II staph, scalded skin syndrome, superantigen Alpha toxin: skin necrosis

Inhibits enolase

Fluoride ion

Microaerophilic

Campylobacter, helicobacter

Strep pyogenes has what type of capsule

Hyluronic acid capsule

Bacteria that escapes macrophage and grow inside them

``` RuMBLeS Rickettsia mycobacteria Brucella listeria shigella ```

Responsible for toxic effects of endotoxins. Found in LPS in OM.

Lipid A

Spores can be destroyed this steam heating

Autoclaving at 121C for 30 min, psi of 15

Peptone composition

0. 5g protein and N source | 0. 5g NaCl as electrolyte

Site of beta-lactamases

Periplasmic space

Pore forming cytolysin

Alpha toxin by staph aureus

Colonize with further spread

Strep. Pneumoniae Neisseria gonorrheae and meningitidis H. Influenzae

Mediates the adherence and phage typing in staph aureus

Teichoic acid

Examples of nutrient media

Blood agar | Chocolate agar

Acid-fast bacteria

Mycobacterial

Neurotoxin of Cl. Tetani which act on cns, inhibiting the inhibitory transmitter GABA

Tetanospasmin

Transport media that has a non-nutrient soft agar gel containing a reducing agent to prevent oxidation, charcoal to neutralize

Stuart transport medium

Transfer of bacterial genes via phage vectors

Transduction

Homologous recombination requires what protein

Rec A protein

Partial cell wall lysozyme digestion

Spheroplast

Strep pyogene is sensitive to..

Bacitracin

(+) peptidoglycan | (-) sterols

Prokaryotes

Neurotoxin of Cl. Botulinum that acts on peripheral synapses, blocking the release of neurotransmitters

Botulinum toxin

Selective and differential bacterial media: | EMB or MacConkey

Enteric bacteria

Hemolytic activity of strep pneumoniae

Alpha hemolytic

Obligate anaerobes

Actinomyces Bacteroides Clostridium

Enzyme reaction that produces H2O + O2

Catalase

Bacterium that is an obligate parasite

Treponema PALLIDUM

(-) teichoic acid; endotoxins

Gram negative bacteria

Test in lancefield classification

Precipitin test

Selective and differential bacterial media: | Chocolate agar

Haemophilus and neisseria for sterile area

Involved in cross-linking

D-alanine

Superantigen exotoxins examples

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST) by staph aureus | Strep pyogenes exotoxin A (SPE-A)

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is nutrient depletion or toxic products slow down growth until the number of new cells produced balances the cells that die (Living=death)

Stationary phase

Minimal media contains

Carbon source (succinate) Salts (Mg, N, P) Water

(+) teichoic acid; exotoxin

Gram positive

Bacteria reproduce by this process in which one parent cell divides to form 2 progeny cells

Binary fission

Bacteria that has thick peptidoglycan

Gram (+) bacteria

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is a marked decline on the number of viable bacteria.

Death phase

They have chitin, which is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine

Fungi

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis (5)

``` Diptheria toxin Exotoxin A Shigella toxin Shigalike toxin Verotoxin ```

Differential media mannitol fermentation

Mannitol salt agar

Gelatinous layer covering the entire bacterium | Composed of polysaccharide

Capsule

No hemolysis

Gamma hemolytic

Differential media that is used in strep test, contains bovine heart blood that becomes transparent in the presence of hemolytic streptococcus

Blood agar

Evasion of immediate host defense: | Mycoplasma

Ciliastasis

It a liquid or gel designed to support the growth of microorganisms or cells.

Growth medium or culture medium

Staph epidermidis is the normal flora of...

Skin ans mucus membrane

Selective and differential bacterial media: | Regan-Lowe

Bordetella pertussis

Evasion of immediate host defense: | Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Sulfolipids (sulfatides)

A single circular molecule of loosely organized DNA lacking a nuclear membrane and mitotic apparatus

Nucleiod

Obligate aerobes

Pseudomonas | Mycobacteirum

Component of exotoxin that binds to specific cell surface receptors and initiates internalization of the A component. It determines what cell type each toxin damages.

B component

What is the type of sex pili used for bacterial conjugation

Type VII

Treatment for staph epidermidis

Vancomycin

Produce igA protease

N. gonorrheae and meningitidis | H. Influenzae type B

Spores contains their own DNA | What structure Coats the spores?

Dipicolinic acid (calcium chelator)

Toxin of enterotoxic e.coli | Internalize A component to ADP-ribosylates Gs, which activates an adenylcyclase that produces high level of cAMP

Labile toxin

Strep pneumonia does not live in the presence of...

bile and optochin

Oxygen generates 2 toxic molecules

Hydrogen peroxide | Superoxide radicals

(+) sterols | Smallest bacteria

Mycoplasma Mycoplasma genitalium (468 genes)

Bacteria infected by virus

Bacteriophage

Obligate intracellular pathogens

Mycobacterium leprae Chlamydia Mycoplasma

Peptidoglycan synthesis is inhibited by..

Penicillin and cephalosporin

Functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell on half and as the binding site of DNA bacterial ribosomes

Mesosome

Cross linking enzyme on the surface of bacteria which is targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics

Transpeptidase

Growth media that distinguishes one microorganism type to another. This uses biochemical characteristics of the microorganism growing in the presence of specific nutrients or indicators

Differential or indicator media

Selective and differential bacterial media: | Hektoen enteric agar

Salmonella and shigella spa

One of the ways to visualize capsules, where it swells in the presence of homologous antibodies

Quellung reaction

A polysaccharide coating secreted by many bacteria | Adhere to various structures such as on the surface of teeth by strep.mutans

Glycocalyx or slime layer

Examples of transport media

Thioglycolate Stuart transport medium Venkat-ramakrishnan medium

They are determined by its rigid cell walls

Bacterial shape

Strep pyogenes causes what disease.

Pharyngitis

Replicate only within cells Inner core of either DNA or RNA but no cytoplasm Depends on host cells for protein synthesis and energy generation Fast mutation

Virus

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis: | Diptheria toxin

EF-2 inhibitor

Catalase (+) Coagulase (+) forms golden yellow colonies Mannitol (+)

Staph aureus

Component of exotoxin which internalize and inhibits a specific critical intracellular function causing damage to the cell. It is the active toxic portion of toxin

A component

Bacteria that invades the Peyer's patches thru the phagocytic M cells

Shigella

Colonize with toxin elaboration

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Differential media for lac Operon mutants

X-gal plates

Mycobacteria is an acid fast bacteria, resisting decolorization with an acid alcohol after being stained by carbolfuchsin. What component contributes to this property?

Mycolic acid

Exchange of two nearly identical pcs of DNA

Homologous recombination

Occurs when nutrients (c and n) are depleted

Sporulation

Staph aureus is a normal flora of..

Nose

Criteria of transport media (5)

1) temporary storage of specimens 2) maintains specimen's viability without altering their conc 3) contains buffers and salt only 4) lacks C, N and other GF so as to prevent microbial multiplication 5) in isolating anaerobes, must be free from molecular oxygen

Lancet shape diplococci

Strep pneumoniae

Selective and differential bacterial media: | Lowenstein Jensen

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Transfer of DNA directly from one living bacterium to another. Bacterial sex. Major mechanism for transfer of antibiotic resistance.

Conjugation

Most common bacterial resident of large intestine

Bacteroides

Contains gene for toxins and antibiotic resistance

Plasmid

Prokaryotes, especially bacteria doesn't have true nucleus, rather they have..

NUCLEOID

Staph epidermidis is ____ sensitive

Novobiocin

Enzyme reaction that produces ClO + H2O

Myeloperoxidase

Determined group of beta hemolytic strep

C carbo

4 phases of bacterial growth cycle

1) lag phase 2) log phase 3) stationary phase 4) death phase

Functions of capsule

Virulence Identification Adherence Antigen in vaccine

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis: | Shiga toxin

Of shigella dysenteriae type I | A component cleaves 60s ribosomes

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle occurs a vigorous metabolic activity where cells do not divide yet.

Lag phase

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is rapid cell division

Log phase

Major determinant of growth of bacteria

Nutrients

D-ala-D-ala is targeted by what antibiotic?

Vancomycin

Highly resistant structures formed in response to adverse conditions

Spores

Bacteria that grows in amoeba in streams

Legionella

Clear zone, complete hemolysis

Beta hemolytic

Axial filament. Counterclockwise rotation - ? Clockwise rotation -?

Counterclockwise rotation - directed motion | Clockwise rotation - tumbling

Undefined medium (aka basal or complex medium) contains: (3)

1. C source 2. Water 3. Various salts

Invagination of cytoplasmic membrane

Mesosome

A-B toxin that increase cAMP

Labile toxin Anthrax toxin Pertussis toxin Choleragen

Differential media for lactose and sucrose fermentation

EMB

Toxin that inhibits Gi which is the negative regulator of adenylcyclase thru ADP ribosylation thus increasing cAMP

Pertussis toxin

Enzyme reaction that produces H2O2 + O2

Superoxide dismutase

Determined by orientation and degree of attachment of bacteria at the time of cell division

Bacterial arrangement

True or false: pathologic effects of endotoxins are similar irrespective of organism

True

transport enzyme and oxidative phosphorylation

Plasma membrane

Ribosome subunit of bacteria

70s (50s and 30s)

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis: | Verotoxin

Of e.coli serotype O157:H7 Inactivates protein synthesis by removing adenine from the 28s rRNA Causes bloody diarrhea

Most important virulence factor of streps | Provides type specific immunity

M protein

Growth media commonly used to harvest as many different types of microbes as are present in the specimen. Contains nutrients required to support the growth of wide variety of organisms.

Nutrient media

Erythromycin inhibits what ribosomal subunit of bacteria?

Inhibits 50s

Evasion of immediate host defense: | N. gonorrheae

Capsule

Agar composition

1.5g solidifying agent 100ml distilled water pH 7

Breaks down the beta 1->4 bonds between NAM and NAG

Lysozyme

Group a strep

Strep pyogenes

Cytokines that cause fever

TNF, IL-1, IL-6

Facultative anaerobes

Strep | E. coli

Strep pneumoniae produces this enzyme causing mucosal colonization

IgA protease

Single, covalently closed circle or a loop of double stranded DNA

Bacterial chromosome

Defined medium (aka chemically defined medium or synthetic medium) contains:

1. All chemical used are known | 2. No yeast, animal or plant tissue present

Major protein in the cell wall of staph aureus which binds to Fc portion of IgG

Protein A

``` Evasion of immediate host defense: Some gram (-) ```

Membrane activation (MAC) resistance

Entamoeba, trichomonas

Diamond medium

Cryptosporidium

Sheather's sugar flotation

Microsporidia

Ryan's trichrome blue stain

Trichinosis

Bemtonite floccukation test

Schistosoma

Kato's thick smear method

Acanthamoeba

Culbertson's medium

Enterobius, taenia egg

Cellophane tape swab

Onchocerca volvulus

Mazzotti test

Leishmania

Montenegro skin test

Eosinophilia in urine

Hansel's stain

Amoeba

Boeck and Orbohlav's Locke-Egg serum medium

Strongyloides

Baermann's technique Filter paper strip procedure Agar plate method

Trypanosoma cruzi

Machado-Guerreiro test

Trichomonas

Modified thioglycolate medium

Cyclospora

KOH

Egg counting

Stoll's technique

Child + peri orbital cellulitis + sinusitis + ear discharge

H. Influenzae

Meyers-Kouwenaar syndrome is a synonym for

Tropical pulmonary eosiophilia Occult filariasis Weingartner's syndrome

Army barracks + flu like+ maculopapular rash + petechiae

Meningococcemia (n.meningitidis)

Toxin of v.cholerae and LT enterotoxic of E. coli are similar

B subunits of the toxin bind to GM1 receptors on the host cell

Travel + fever + jaundice + bleeding + neurologic signs

Fulminant malaria (p.falciparum)

Diarrhea + beef, poultry + legumes

Clostridium perfringens

Watery diarrhea + shellfish ingestion

Vibrio cholera

Thumbprint sign + epiglottis

H.influenzae

Cellulitis + exposure to fresh water

Aeromonas hydrophila

Outbreaks of respiratory infections every winter

RSV

Diagnosis of infective endocarditis

Duke criteria

Outbreaks of respiratory infections in hospitalized infants

RSV

Diarrhea + fried rice ingestion + china town

Bacillus cereus

Camping + tick bite + flu like + blanching macules

Rocky Mountain spotted fever (rickettsia rickettsii)

Facial or sphenoidal sinus infection + unilateral + retro-orbital headaches

Septic cavernous sinus thrombosis (staph)

Pale, greasy, malodorous stools with malabsorption after drinking untreated stream or lake water

Giardia lamblia

Aseptic meningitis + facial diplegia

Borrelia burgdoferi

Bloody diarrhea + salami + apple juice + raw veggies

EHEC

Un pasteurized milk + cabbage

Listeria monocytogenes

Indolent + culture negative + a febrile + endocarditis

Tropheryma whipplei

HIV + hypoxemia + CXR infiltrates

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Para nasal infection + fever + nuchal rigidity + brainstem signs

Subdural empyema (microaerophilic staph and strep)

Diarrhea+ ingestion of potato + egg salad + mayonnaise

Staph aureus

Major determinant of virulence in h.influenzae

Capsule

Painless genital ulcer

Primary syphilis

Travel to US (Oklahoma/Arkansas/Missouri) + wild rabbits + tabanid fly

Tularemia

Watery diarrhea + salads + cheese

ETEC

Hemorrhagic vesicles surrounded by a rim of erythema with central necrosis or ulceration

Erythema gangrenosum (p.aeruginosa and A.hydrophila)

Ethmoid or maxillary sinus infection + nuchal rigidity + brain stem signs

Septic thrombosis of the superior Sagittal sinus (s.pneumoniae)

"Bull neck" appearance + pseudomembrane

Diphtheria

Quinolones kill bacteria by

Inhibiting DNA gyrase

Most commons presenting sign of liver abscess

Fever

19yr old man develops fever, sore throat, malaise, headache, nausea, and rash on the lower parts of both is arms and legs

Rickettsia rickettsii

Dysentery + mollusks + crustaceans

Vibrio parahemolyticus

Unilateral/ bilateral parotid swelling + pain aggravate when drinking citrus juice

Mumps virus

Confers resistance to malaria

G6PD, hemoglobin C or E

Steeple sign + croup

Parainfluenza virus

Endocarditis + injection drug users + tricuspid valve

Staph aureus

Trauma/post-op incision + red, hot, shiny, swollen + exquisite tenderness

Necrotizing fasciitis (group A strep)

Transplant recipients + diabetes, elderly, Cancer patients + meningismus

Bacterial meningitis ( strep.pneumoniae)

Ingestion of shellfish + flu like + hypotension + bullous lesions + leg pain

Vibrio vulnificus

Travel to Europe + tick bite + flu-like + ecchymoses + petechiae

Babesia

Inflammatory diarrhea + poultry + raw milk

Campylobacter jejuni

Painful genital ulcers

Chancroid

Making more than one type of mRNA for the same piece of DNA (virus)

Shifting the reading frame

Puncture wound of the foot

P. aeruginosa

Necrotizing fasciitis that leaked into the perineal area causing massive swelling of scrotum of penis

Fourneir's gangrene

New properties that a bacterium acquires as a result of expression of the integrated probated genes

Lysogenic conversion

Involved in the initial viral-specific phosphorylation of acyclovir

Thymidine kinase

Chemical treatment for genital warts

Podophyllin

Topical herpes keratitis but no effect on genital lesions

Vidarabine

Inhibits pox protein synthesis | Blocks translation of late mRNA

Methisazone

Efavirine inhibits ..

CYP2C9 and CYP2C19

For treatment-experienced HIV Effective against HIV strains resistant to other drugs Induced CYP3A4 Inhibits CYP2C9 and CYP2C19

Efavirine

Stavudine, zerit, d4T

Didehydro-dideoxythymidine

Injected intravitreally for treatment of CMV retinitis

Fomivirsen

NNRTI

Delavirdine Efavirenz Efavirine Nevirapine

Virazole

Ribavirin

Prodrug of acyclovir?

Valacyclovir. | It has longer duration

Has longer half life than amantadine | Require no dosage adjustment in renal failure

Rimantadine

Ddl, ddc, d4T all cause this adverse effect

All Ds cause peripheral neuropathy

Mode of action of ganciclovir

Inhibits DNA polymerase of cmv and HSV | Chain termination

Dihydroxypropoxymethylguanine (DHPG)

Gancyclovir

Treatment for CMV infection

Ganciclovir

Do not give aspirin in children for fever,. You give what?

Acetaminophen

Major route of elimination of acyclovir

Renal excretion

Highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART) | 1st line standard care

2 NRTI + 1 PI

Prodrug and oral prep of ganciclovir

Valgancyclovir

Host-coded proteins that are member of cytokines and which inhibits viral replication.

Interferon (IFN)

Has activity against HBV | Asso with fanconi's syndrome

Tenofovir

Prophylaxis and treatment for ganciclovir-resistant strains

Foscarnet

Acyclovir triphosphate inhibits DNA synthesis by (2)

Competitive substrate for DNA polymerase | Chain termination

type II or immune interferon

IFN Gamma

Adenine arabinose, ara-A

Vidarabine

Blood levels decreased by antacids, phenytoin and rifampin Increased by azole antifungals and macrolides Teratogenic

Delavirdine

N-methylisatin - B-thiosemicarbozone

Methisazone

Adverse effect of ganciclovir

``` MaLTHuS Mucositis Leukopenia Thrombocytopenia Hepatic dysfunction Seizure ```

Primary adverse effect of azidothymidine

Bm suppression

NRTIs

``` Azidothymidine (zidovudine, AZT) Dideoxyinosine (didanosine, ddI) Dideoxycytidine (zalcitabine, ddC) Didehydro-dideoxythymidine (stavudine, d4T) Ribavirin (Virazole) Emtricitabine Methisazone (N-methylisatin B-thiosemocarbazone) Tenofivir Lamivudine (3TC) ```

Didanosine, videx, ddl

Dideoxyinosine

Does not require phosphorylation Inhibits DNA and RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase Pyrophosphate analog

Foscarnet

NRTI or NNRTI: Competitive inhibition of HIV-1 reverse transcriptase Requires intracytoplasmic activation via phosphorylation Activity against HIV-1 and HIV-2

NRTI

Thiazole-carboxamide moiety is substituted by aminoimidazole-carboxamide

Ribavirin

Another guanosine analog that does not cause chain termination

Penciclovir

Structural difference between nucleoside and nucelotide

Nucleotide has an attached phosphate group | It has an ability to persist in cells for long period of time increasing their potency

NRTI or NNRTI : Binds directly to HIV-1 reverse transcriptase resulting in allosteric inhibition of RNA and DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. Neither competes with nucleoside triphosphate s nor require phosphorylation to be active No activity against HIV-2

NNRTI

NNRTI or NRTI Do not need phosphorylation Binds directly and incompetitively to reverse transcriptase

NNRTI

Neuraminidase inhibitors that can shorten course of influenza A and B infection

Zanamivir (inhaled) | Oseltamivir (oral)

T or F: IFN does not protect virus-infected cell and not itself the antiviral agent

True

Drug of choice for HSV-1 encephalitis

Acyclovir

1st protease inhibitor to be approved for treatment of HIV

Saquinavir

Included in HAART regimen Effective against HBV infection by inhibiting DNA polymerase Safely administered to patients with decompensated liver disease

Lamivudine (3TC)

Antisense oligonucleotide that binds to mRNA of CMV

Fomivirsen

Trisodium phosphonoformate, foscavir

Foscarnet

Treatment for AIDS patients resistant to azidothymidine

Dideoxyinosine

Adverse effects of foscarnet

Nephrotoxicity Hypocalcemia Hallucination Seizures

Blood level of delavirdine is increased by ...

Azole, antifungal and macrolides

Zidovudine, retrovir, AZT

Azidothymidine

Rimantadine and amantadine action

Prevents viral un coating in influenza A

Drug is metabolized to ddCTP to be active

Dideoxycytidine

Blood level of delavirdine is decreased by

Antacids, phenytoin and rifampin

Drug of choice for CMV retinitis

Gancyclovir

Zalcitabine, hivid, ddc

Dideoxycytidine

1st NNRTI to be approved for treating HIV infection

Nevirapine

Treatment for advance AIDS patients

Didehydro-dideoxythymidine

Drug is metabolized into ddATP to be active

Dideoxyinosine

Other name for rimantadine

Flumadine

Confers resistance to NRTIs

Pol genes

Primary adverse effect of dideoxyinosine

Pancreatitis | Peripheral neuropathy

Phsphorylated acyclovir is converted by thymidine kinase into.... which interferes with viral synthesis by acting as competitive substrate for DNA polymerase and chain termination

Acyclovir triphosphate

Drugs that inhibits NA synthesis

``` Acyclovir Ganciclovir Vidarabine Fomivirsen Foscarnet ```

Inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides | For RSV infection in children

Ribavirin

Treatment fro HSV 1&2 and VZV

Acyclovir

Has an adverse effect of nightmare and nausea

Efavirenz

Adverse effect of vidarabine

``` GiPiTCH Gi irritation Paresthesia Tremor Convulsion Hepatic dysfunction ```

NNRTI that penetrates most tissue including CNS and placenta Metabolized by CYP3A4 Effective in preventing HI vertical transmission

Nevirapine

Main adverse effect of Didehydro-dideoxythymidine

Peripheral neuropathy Lactose acidosis Hepatic steatosis

Main adverse effect of dideoxycytidine

Peripheral neuropathy

Nucleoside analog of arabinose, instead of ribose. | Teratogenic.

Vidarabine

Inhibits early replication of influenza A (not B) | Prevents in coating by binding to M2 (matrix protein)

Amantadine

NNRTI that are teratogenic

Delavirdine | Efavirenz

This drug increases the clearance of azidothymidine

Rifampin

Increase plasma levels of azidothymidine by...

Antifungals

Inhibitor of protease encoded by HIV

Saquinavir | Indanivir

Frequent adverse effects of NNRTI

Rash (ulceration, SJS)

Newest NNRTI

Efavirine

Resistant strains of influenza A to amantadine

H3N2 virus | H1N1 strains

Drug of choice for patients with AIDS

Azidothymidine

Other name for amantadine

Alpha-adamantanamine | Symmetrel

Contains propylene glycol Contraindications for pregnancy and young children Adverse effects of renal or hepatic dysfunction

Emtricitabine

Enhance bioavailability by fatty foods Metabolized by cytochrome p450 Teratogenic

Efavirenz

Ultrahigh-temperature sterilization temp and time

140C for 1-3sec

``` Microbial control (reduction and elimination) methods can be classified based upon their level of effectiveness against different types of microbes: Treatment include bacterial endospores, which form a 3-layer coat of protection, and acid-fast Mycobacteria which have a waxy cell wall. ```

Highest level of resistance

residual chemicals that remain active on surfaces for extended periods of time, providing longer-lasting antimicrobial effects.

Chlorhexidine

Alcohols are most effective in concentrations ranging from _____.

50-90%

``` Peroxides can be used as sterilants (___ peroxide vapor), high-level disinfectants (___ solutions) or as antiseptics (___ solutions). ```

sterilants (30% peroxide vapor) high-level disinfectants (25% solutions) antiseptics (3% solutions).

Utilizes steam to penetrate cells, is faster and more effective than dry heat.

Moist heat

Depending on ______ used, chemicals from these groups (SCHHAAPPP) can be used as sterilants, disinfectants, and antiseptics.

Concentration and form (gas, liquid or solid)

Autoclave temperature

121C for 15 min under 15psi

Laundry detergent (benzalkonium chloride) Dish soap Household cleaners (409) Mouthwash. (Cetylpyridinium chloride)

Soap and detergents

Sorbic, benzoic, propionic, lactic, acetic (vinegar), ascorbic

Organic acids

Gas or vapor form of a chemical agent (aldehyde, halogen, H2O2)

Sterilants

Photoreactivation uses visible light (_____nm) to activate repair enzymes (pyrimidine or thymine dimerase or DNA photolyase) that repair the UV damaged DNA.

400-750nm

Liquid form of chemical agent

Disinfectant

aromatic compounds that are toxic to tissues in high concentrations. They are intermediate to low-level disinfectants and antiseptics that damage cellular membranes and alter protein structure. They are bactericidal, fungicidal and virucidal, but CANNOT kill ENDOSPORES.

Phenol and phenol derivatives

Chemical control method that can only eliminate some types of bacteria, fungi and viruses. These agents are generally used to clean materials that contact outer, but not inner, skin surfaces.

Low-level disinfectants

A powerful, penetrating form of radiation that causes breakages in microbial DNA.

Ionizing radiation

Microbes that grow best at cooler temperatures ranging from -5°C to 20°Celsius.

Psychrophiles and psychrotrophs

2% glutaraldehyde solution (cidex) | 37% formaldehyde

Aldehydes

``` Copper,zinc, mercury and silver Gold and silver lining of the teeth Thimerosal (vaccine preservative) Silver nitrate eye drops Zicam Mercury chlorides ```

Heavy metals

Filters pores size used to remove smallest

0.01 um

Microbes that include bacteria growing in hot springs and deserts, prefer warmer temperatures ranging from 40°C to 80°C.

Thermophiles

Category of microbial control methods: | Include the use of sterilants, disinfectants, antiseptics and sanitizers

Chemical control method

process used to disinfect or sterilize gases and heat-sensitive liquids by physically removing microbes. It mechanically traps and removes microbes, but does not kill them and cannot remove some of the toxins they produce. Used to sterilize water, air, blood products, vaccines, drugs, IV fluids, enzymes and media. Surgical masks and respirators filter the air that healthcare workers inhale and exhale.

Filtration

Danger zone that allows microbes to rapidly grow and metabolize.

Temperatures between 20-50C

Main advantage of ionizing radiation

Ability to penetrate and sterilize material thru outer packages ad wrappings

Much lower concentration than sterilants and disinfectants

Antiseptics

Filters pores size used to remove bacterial cells

0.22-0.45 um

Batch (historical) pasteurization temp and time

63C for 30min

process that destroys less than 100 % of microbes on living surfaces. Examples include swabbing skin with iodide prior to surgery and washing your hands with soap.

Antisepsis

Filters pores size used to remove largest viruses and most bacteria

0.22 um

A form of non-ionizing energy with a short wavelength (4-400nm). It kills microbes by damaging their DNA.

UV radiation

Microbes that can be found in geysers and volcanoes, grow best at temperatures above 80°C.

Hyperthermophiles

Example of microbes that can survive several months in refrigerator.

Psychrophiles Staph aureus Clostridium

Filters pores size used to remove multicellular algae, animals and fungi

5 um

Lysol, pine-sol, antibacterial soaps and products that contains triclosan

Phenol and phenol derivatives

Microbicidal/microbistatic: | agents that kill microbes

Microbicidal

used in cured meats (ham, bacon, hot dogs, bologna, salami) to maintain a bright red color. These substances break down during frying and freezing, causing the meat to lose its "pink" appearance. There has been a link between nitrosamines produced from the cooking of processed meat and cancer in humans.

Nitrites and nitrates

Chemical control method that can kill fungal spores (sex cells) and acid-fast bacteria (TB), but cannot kill endospores. These agents are typically used to treat materials that come into contact with mucous membranes.

Intermediate-level disinfectant

can be used to create hypertonic environments, which cause microbial cells to shrink and undergo plasmolysis due to the loss of water. These preservatives are static agents, because they do not kill microbes, they only slow or inhibit their metabolism.

Natural preservatives

Microbes that include most disease-causing forms of bacteria, grow best at temperatures ranging from 20°C to 40°C.

Mesophiles

Non-ionizing radiation example

Uv radiation

any process that removes microbes and other debris or contaminants to "safe levels." Examples include washing plates and cups.

Decontamination

It produces highly reactive free radicals that damage proteins and DNA. It is most toxic to anaerobes, which lack the enzyme catalase needed for its breakdown. It is one of the 3 chemical groups that can be used to kill endospores.

Hydrogen peroxide s

Because dry heat penetrates more slowly than moist heat (steam), dry heat ovens require higher temperatures and longer exposure times in order to effectively sterilize objects. Dry heat temp and time?

1 hour at 171°C or | 2 hours at 160°C

Disadvantage of UV radiation

Unable to penetrate thru substances such as glass, metal and plastic.

Iodide (skin antiseptic, betadine surgical scrub) chlorine gas (sterilant); chlorine bleach (high level disinfectant) bromine fluorine (toothpaste and water disinfectant)

Halogens

Filters pores size used to remove viruses

0.01-0.22 um

A high pressure chamber that utilizes temperatures of121°C for 15 minutes under 15 psi (pressure) to sterilize nonliving surfaces (kills endospores). Used to sterilize heat-resistant materials, such as glassware, surgical dressings, rubber gloves, metallic instruments, liquids, and some heat-resistant papers and plastics.

Autoclave

``` Microbial control (reduction and elimination) methods can be classified based upon their level of effectiveness against different types of microbes: Treatment include protozoans in both cyst and vegetative form, Gram-negative bacteria, which have an outer membrane, porins and drugs pumps, as well as fungi, which have a cell wall made of chitin. ```

Intermediate level resistance

UV damaged DNA forms ____ that block DNA replication and transcription.

pyrimidine (thymine) dimers

Process that destroys 100% of microbes (even endospores) on non-living surfaces.

Sterilization

A mechanical method of microbial control used to remove microbes from the surface of instruments and teeth. It utilizes high frequency sound waves to generate "shock waves" that are conducted through living structures or liquids. The force exerted by these shock waves leads to the rupture of microbial membranes and their removal from surfaces. Used to clean surgical instruments, dental instruments, teeth, pacemakers, hearing aids, test tubes and small electronics.

Ultrasonic vibration

effective physical control agent that can be delivered in both moist (steam sterilization, pasteurization) and dry (bacti-cinerators and ovens) forms.

Heat

T or F: refrigeration and freezing do NOT kill microbes.

True, they merely hold the number of microbes steady (static). Although refrigeration and freezing can slow or halt the growth of most mesophiles, it may allow the slow growth of spoilage bacteria, such as psychrophiles that can grow and metabolize even at freezing temperatures!

Filters pores size used to remove Protozoa and small unicellular algae

1.2 um

Flash pasteurization temp and time

72C for 15sec

chemicals that alter microbial proteins and at high concentrations and in gas form can be sporicidal

Halogens

static agents used to prevent food spoilage.

Preservatives

Chemical antimicrobials range from low-level disinfectants, to intermediate-level disinfectants, to high-level sterilants. Antimicrobial chemicals include:

SCHHAAPPP 1) halogens; 2) phenolics; 3) chlorhexidine; 4) alcohols; 5) peroxides; 6) soaps and detergents; 7) heavy metals; 8) aldehydes; and 9) preservatives.

Non-ionizing/ionizing radiation: | causes breakage in microbial DNA.

Ionizing radiation

can be used as low-level disinfectants or antiseptics. They are NOT sporicidal. They oxidize and inactivate proteins and can be toxic to humans

Heavy metals

Filters pores size used to remove larger viruses and pliable bacteria (mycoplasma, rickettsia, chlamydia, some Spirochetes)

0.025 um

radiation that can be used to regulate the growth of microbes on non-living substances, such as: food, water, on walls and floors, even the air in dental offices and hospital operating rooms.

Non-ionizing radiation (UV radiation)

70% ethanol (disinfectants) 50% isopropanol (antiseptics) Water-free Hand sanitizer such as purell

Alcohols

Heat helps control microbial growth by...

Destroying or denaturing structural and regulatory proteins.

Factors that affect the rate at which microbes are killed include:

ENARA 1) exposure time to agent (the longer the material is exposed to agent, the more microbes will be killed) 2) number of microbes present on surface (the more microbial contamination, the longer it will take to disinfect it) 3) amt of organic debris or contaminants 4) resistance level of microbes (endospores vs non-endospores); 5) activity level of the agent (cidal versus static).

Exposure of human tissue to UV light can result in ...

UVA (wrinkles) UVB (sunburn) UVC (cancer)

added to baked goods, cheeses, pickles, sodas, jams, jellies and dried fruits to reduce the growth of mold and bacteria.

Organic acids

intermediate-level disinfectants or antiseptics that dissolve lipid membranes (surfactants) and denature proteins. They are effective against most fungi and bacterial cells, but CANNOT kill endospore- formers.

Alcohols

Non-ionizing/ionizing radiation: | uses ultraviolet light to form dimers between neighboring thymines in the DNA.

Non-ionizing radiation

Sugar and salts

Natural preservatives

Preferred method for disposing of animal carcasses contaminated with infectious agents.

Incineration

Chemical control method that are able to kill endospore-forming bacteriaand can be used to completely eliminate all microbes on non-living surfaces. These powerful agents are used to sterilize materials such as catheters, implants, and surgical instruments.

High-level disinfectant

Filters pores size used to remove yeasts and larger unicellular algae

3 um

another effective dry heat method, which uses temperatures of 800°C to 6500°C to burn microbial material.

Incineration

Category of microbial control methods: | Include heat, filtration, UV radiation and US vibration

Physical control method

Intermediate level disinfectant ___ in killing mycobacteria and non lipid viruses, but does NOT kill endospores

Varies

Moist heat methods

Steam sterilization (Autoclaving, boiling, pasteurization)

A low-pressure steam method that requires temperatures of 100°C for a minimum of 10 minutes in order to disinfect, but NOT STERILIZE, objects. Exposing materials to this for 30 minutes will kill most non-spore-forming pathogens, but NOT ENDOSPORES. Used to disinfect drinking water, eating utensils, food, hospital bedding and baby bottles.

Boiling

Microbicidal/microbistatic: | agents that temporarily inhibit the reproduction of microbes, but do not kill them.

Microbistatic

T or F:Mechanical agents (filtration) physically remove microbes but do not kill them.

True

low-level disinfectants used in hospitals, dental offices, and veterinary clinics. They can also be used as skin degerming agents in preoperative scrubs or oral rinsed. It disrupts cellular membranes (surfactants) and denatures proteins, but cannot kill endospores.

Chlorhexidine

Antimicrobial agents damage microbes by disrupting the:

1) cell wall; 2) cell membrane; 3) proteins; 4) NA (DNA or RNA).

Used to disinfect drinking water, eating utensils, food, hospital bedding and baby bottles.

Boiling

Filters pores size used to remove largest bacteria

0.45 um

Radiation that is Used to regulate the growth of microbes in food, drugs, vaccines, medical plastics, surgical gloves, bone and skin tissue grafts

Ionizing radiation

An effective sterilizing agent because it can denature structural and regulatory proteins needed for metabolism. Used for water-sensitive materials such as metals, oils, and powders.

Dry heat

It is cationic quaternary ammonium compounds called "quats."

Soap and detergent

prevent the growth of molds in dried fruits, juices, syrups and wines and prevent discoloration of food products.

Sulfur compounds (sulfites)

A low-pressure, moist heat method used to reduce the number of microbes in MILK and JUICE in order to slow the rate of food spoilage. Milk is not sterile after this, as this techniques kills most microbes that cause human disease and food spoilage, but not all.

Pasteurization

UV damaged DNa can be repaired by a process called ____.

Photoreactivation

Ultrahigh-temperature pasteurization temp and time

134C for 1sec

``` Microbial control (reduction and elimination) methods can be classified based upon their level of effectiveness against different types of microbes: Treatment include naked viruses, Gram-positive bacteria, and enveloped viruses. ```

Low level resistance

Used to sterilize heat-resistant materials, such as glassware, surgical dressings, rubber gloves, metallic instruments, liquids, and some heat-resistant papers and plastics.

Autoclave

Main disadvantage of ionizing radiation

Risk of exposure for those who work with this type of radiation.

Chemical agents of control have 4 primary sites of action:

1) cell wall; 2) cell membrane; 3) proteins; 4) NA (DNA or RNA).

weak disinfectants or antiseptics that act as surfactants to disrupt the cellular membranes of some bacteria and fungi. It is unable to kill endospore-forming bacteria.

Soap and detergents (quats)

Boiling temp and time

100C for 10min

highly toxic agents which can be used as sterilants, high-level disinfectants, or tissue preservatives depending upon concentration and form (gas, liquid or solid). It inhibits microbial growth by damaging proteins and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). It can be used to kill endospores and inactivate viruses during vaccine preparation.

Aldehydes

process that destroys less than 100% of microbes on non-living surfaces. Unable to kill endospores which are the most difficult type of microbe to treat. Examples include applying 5% bleach soln to an operating table and boiling eating utensils after use by sick patients

Disinfection

organic acids, sulfur compounds,nitrites, and sugars and salts.

Preservatives

Dry heat methods

Incineration (bacti-cinerator) | Sterilization ovens

High level disinfectant kills endospores.

Some

Hibiclens,hibitane, betasept, peridex

Chlorhexidine

Category of microbial control methods: | Include filtration and US vibration

Mechanical control method

Ionizing radiation

Gamma rays | X-rays

Diagnostic test for Enterobius vermicularis infection

Scotch tape test on the perianal area | Cellophane tape swab

Diagnostic test for Strongyloides

Filter paper strip procedure Agar plate method Baermann's technique

Lemon-shaped egg

Trichuris trichiura

Treatment for Strongyloides stercoralis infection

Albendazole

Pathognomonic sign of taenia solium infection

Migrating intraventricular cyst

Cephalic cone | Halzoun

Fascio hepatica

Filariasis is caused by

Wuchereria bancrofti | Brugia malayi

Lung fluke

Paragonimus westermani

Intermediate host of loa loa

Deer fly

"Mal morado" or "erisipelas de la costa"

Onchocerca volvulus

Fiery serpents that plagued the Israelites by the Red Sea

Dracunculus medinensis

Resemble gastric carcinoma

Anisakis sp.

Brood capsules | Liver cysts

Echinococcus granulosus

Resides in veins surrounding the bladder and deposits egg in urine. Causes urinary bladder carcinoma Terminal spine

Schistosoma haematobium

Sheep liver fluke | Sheep liver rot

Fasciola hepatica

Transmitted by genus mansonia

Brugia malayi

Collarette of spine

Echinostoma ilocanum

Dot sign

Ascaris lumbricoides

T or F: within the normal human host, there is no immune reaction to living worms

True

Test for schistosoma cercariae

Circum oval precipitin test (COPT)

Mode of transmission of fasciolopsis buski

Eating aquatic vegetation carrying the cysts | Bamboo shoots and water chestnuts

Treatment for onchocerciasis

DEC diethylcarbamazine

Whipworm

Trichuris trichiura

Fascio hepatica excysts in..

Duodenum

Can be acquired thru ingestion of undercooked meat where in the encysted larvae of nematode live in striated muscle

Trichinella spiralis

Pinworms mature in..

Cecum and ascending intestine

Box-like segments of tapeworm

Proglottids

Treatment for filariasis

Ivermectin | Diethylcarbamazine DEC

Causes neurocysticercosis

Taenia solium

Treatment for toxocarca canis infection

Diethylcarbamazine

May cause periorbital edema

Trichinella spiralis

Bipolar plugs

Trichuris trichiura

Transmission of fasciola hepatica

Eating watercress contaminated with metacercariae

African eye worm

Loa loa

Differentiate in dermal nodule

Onchocerca volvulus

Hanging groin

Onchocerca volvulus

Form of larva that can penetrate the skin (n.americanus and s.stercoralis)

Filariform larva

Infective stage of loa loa

Micro filariae

Beef tapeworm

Taenia saginata

Cat/dog hookworm

Ancyclostoma braziliensis

Barber's pole

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

Blood and tissue nematodes spread by ..

Bite of arthropod

Vector of filariasis

Culex, aedes poicilus, and anopheles flavirostis mimimus mosquito

Guinea worm

Dracunculus medinensis

Treatment for Cestodes and Trematodes infection

Praziquantel

Black river blindness

Onchocerca volvulus

Infective stage of hymenolepis nana

Eggs are directly infectious to humans

In trichuris trichiura, there is no auto infection, why is that?

Since the eggs must incubate in moist soil for 3-6weeks before they become infective.

Treatment for fasciola hepatica

Bithionol

Blood and tissue nematodes

Onchocerca volvulus | Wuchereria bancrofti and brugia malayi

Treatment of fasciolopsis buski

Praziquantel

4 suckers and circle of hooks

Taenia solium

Acquired when ingested undercooked crabs/crayfish Ova with operculum Hemoptysis

Paragonimus westermani

Dog roundworms

Toxocarca canis

Positive uterine rosette | Spirometra

Diphyllobothrium latum

The thickened skin may appear dry, scaly and thick (LEOPARD SKIN)

Onchocerca volvulus

Infective stage of filariasis in man

Microfilariae

Intestinal nematodes that are acquired when their larvae penetrate the skin, usually of the foot

``` Necator americanus (hookworm) Strongyloides stercoralis ```

Intermediate host of Trematodes

Snail

Vector of onchocerca volvulus

Black fly or buffalo gnat | Simulium flies

Nematode that causes loeffler's syndrome -pneumonitis

Ascaris lumbricoides

Intermediate hosts of diphyllobothrium latum

Crustaceans and fish

Adult worms of blood and tissue nematodes lives in

Lymphatic tissue

Reaction to proteins released by dying onchocerca, including fevers, rashes, ocular damage, joint and muscle pain, and lymphangitis as well as hypotension, pyrexia, respiratory distress, and prostration. Drug reaction to DEC diethylcarbamazine

Mazzoti reaction

Acquired thru ingestion of raw seafoods

Anisakis sp.

The most anterior segment of tapeworm, which has suckers or sometimes hook

Scolex

Garrison fluke

Echinostoma ilocanum

Length of pork tapeworm

2-8meters

Dog tapeworm

Echinococcus granulosus

___proglottids that contains the fertilized eggs

Gravid proglottids

Pudoc worm

Capillaria philippinensis

Visceral larva migrans

Toxocarca canis

Scariest worm

Ascaris lumbricoides

Causes hydatid disease, an extra-intestinal tapeworm infection

Echinococcus granulosus

Eating raw fish containing cysts | Causes cardiac beriberi / cardiac failure

Heterophyses heterophyses

Most common sequela of neurocysticercosis

Seizure

Rat tapeworm

Hymenolepis diminuta

Treatment for loa loa infection

Ivermectin | Diethylcarbamazine

Flatworms

Platyhelminthes

T or F: flatworms does not have digestive tract

True

Schistosoma that resides in intestinal tract and deposits eggs in feces. Small lateral spine.

Schistosoma japonicum

Diagnostic test in echinococcus granulosus infection

Casoni's skin test

"Craw-craw or "sowda"

Onchocerca volvulus

Cutaneous larva migrans aka creeping eruption (intensely pruritic, migratory skin infection)

Ancyclostoma braziliensis

Nurse cells

Trichinella spiralis

Infective stage of dracunculus medinensis to man

Microfilariae in Copepods

Intermediate host of Echinostoma ilocanum

Pila luzonica

Cochin china diarrhea

Strongyloides stercoralis

Schistosoma that resides in intestinal tract and deposits eggs in feces. Prominent lateral spine

Schistosoma mansoni

Intestinal nematode that is acquired by ingestion of encysted larvae in muscle (pork meat)

Trichinella spiralis

Produces large eosinophilic exudates

Ascaris lumbricoides

Pin worm / seat worm

Enterobius vermicularis

New world hookworm

Necator americanus

Mature schistosomal larva that infects human

Cercariae

Largest intestinal nematode

Ascaris lumbricoides

Cutting plates

Necator americanus | Fasciolopsis buski

Blood fluke

Schistosoma

Occurs when humans take the role of pigs and ingest eggs rather than the encysted larvae

Cysticercosis

Endemic in Philippines

Hymenolepis nana | Echinostoma ilocanum

Flukes

Trematodes

Rat lungworms

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

A group of Platyhelminthes that is hermaphroditic (has male and female sex organs)

Cestodes

T or F: all flukes have a water snail species as an intermediate host

True

Fish tapeworm

Diphyllobothrium latum

For egg counting

Stoll's technique

Has indirect and direct cycle and | Autoinfection where filariform larvae develop and penetrate intestinal wall

Strongyloides stercoralis

The larvae of diphyllobothrium latum is called..

Plerocercoid / sparganum

Topical pulmonary eosinophilia

Filariasis

Tapeworms

Cestodes

Disease caused by clonorchis sinensis

Cholangicarcinoma

Max length of diphyllobothrium latum

45 meters

Diagnostic test for trichinosis

Bentonite floccukation test

No filariform larvae stage, no tissue invasion, no lung involvement and the eosinophilic count is not elevated

Trichuris trichiura | Enterobius vermicularis

Schistosoma with Non-operculated ovum

Schistosoma japonicum

Ova with operculum | Has elongated sucking grooves

Diphyllobothrium latum

Giant intestinal fluke

Fasciolopsis buski

Anisakis sp. transmission

Acquired thru ingestion of raw seafoods

___proglottids that has the male and female sex organs

Mature proglottids

Has rostellar hooks

Taenia solium

Causes borborygmi (rumbling and gurgling noise in intestine) and diarrhea

Capillaria philippinensis

Roundworms

Nematodes

Causes radiculomyeloencephalitis

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

Manifests: Katayama reaction (fever) as a result of the grown adults laying their eggs. Swimmer's itch as a result of penetration of cercaria on the swimmer's skin. Claystem/pipe stem fibrosis

Schistosoma japonicum

Causes vitamin b12 deficiency to megaloblastic anemia

Diphyllobothrium latum

The life cycle of trichuris trichiura is

Slow

Pork tapeworm

Taenia solium

Diagnostic test for toxocarca canis

Casoni skin test

Tramway sign in X-ray

Ascaris lumbricoides

Causes calabar swelling or fugitive swelling | Crawling across the conjunctiva

Loa loa

A group of Platyhelminthes that live and mate within digestive tract

Cestodes

Fluke that is Endemic in Philippines

Echinostoma ilocanum

Schistosomes

S. haematobium S. japonicum S. mansoni

Tapeworm that is Endemic in Philippines

Hymenolepis nana

Rectal prolapse

Trichuris trichiura

Nematodes that has larval form that migrates through the tissue and into the lung at some stage of their life cycle. The larvae grow in the lung, are coughed up and swallowed into the intestine, where they grow into adult worms.

Ascaris lumbricoides Necator americanus Strongyloides stercoralis

Diagnostic test for schistosoma

Kato's thick-smear method

Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator americanus have very similar life cycle, they differ only in the path that each larvae form takes to reach the lung:

Necator americanus: foot to lung | Ascaris lumbricoides: intestine to lung

Filariasis, a wuchereria bancrofti and brugia malayi infection, causes what manifestations?

Elephantiasis | Elephantoid fever

Treatment for echinococcus granulosus

Albendazole

Causes Pruritus ani (perianal itching)

Enterobius vermicularis

``` Smallest tapeworm (15-55mm) Dwarf tapeworm ```

Hymenolepis nana

Egg hen shape ova

Fasciolopsis buski

Infective stage of onchocerca volvulus in man

Micro filariae

Vector of schistosoma japonicum

Onchomelania quadrasi

Intestinal nematodes that are acquired thru ingestion of eggs

``` Ascaris lumbricoides Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) ```

Principal host of Strongyloides stercoralis

Man

It causes anaphylactic shock when the hydatid cyst bursts

Echinococcus granulosus

Chinese liver fluke

Clonorchis sinensis

Toxoplasma is one of the transplacentally acquired TORCHES organisms that can cross bpb. Pregnant women should avoid cats.

Just a note

Has axonemes

Giardia lamblia

Plasmodium grows in (liver,Rbc) while reproduce in (liver,Rbc)

Plasmodium grows in liver while reproduce in RBC

Treatment for toxoplasma gondii infection

Pyrimethamine + trisulfapyrimidine

Flagellated trophozoite

Giardia lamblia | Trichomonas vaginalis

Manifestation in visceral leishmaniasis

Massive Splenomegaly

Trophozoite of this organism asexually bud and divide into 4 merozoites that stick together, forming a cross or x-shaped TETRAD ( MALTESE CROSS)

Babesia sp.

Intestinal Protozoa that causes bloody diarrhea

Entamoeba hystolitica

Treatment for pneumocystis jiroveci

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Campers frequently develop this protozoan infection after drinking from clear untreated mountain stream

Giardia lamblia

Balantidium coli causes

Diarrhea

Infective stage of plasmodium in man

Sporozoites

Stain of pneumocystis jiroveci

Silver stain

Strawberry cervix

Trichomonas vaginalis

Quartan malaria

P.malaria

Infective stage of plasmodium in mosquito

Gametocyte

Blood mucoid stools (+) tenesmus : Painful spasm of the anal sphincter along with an urgent desire to defecate without the significant production of feces

Amebiasis

Treatment for chagas disease

Nitrofurfurylidine derivative - nifurtimox

Giardia lamblia infection often manifests malodorous stool packed with fats.

Since giardia lamblia does NOT invade the intestinal walls, there is NO blood in the stool

Commonly infects recto-sigmoid large intestine

Amebiasis

Sausage- shaped gametocyte

P.falciparum

Ziemann's stipling

P.malariae

Villous atrophy - malabsorption | Lactose intolerance

Giardia lamblia

Positive kerandel's sign (excruciating pain after minor soft-tissue injury, e.g. in palms and ulnar region.)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Manifestation on acute chagas disease

Chagoma - erythematous induration area

Vector of leishmania donovani

Phlebotomus sandfly

Swiss cheese appearance on degeneration

Entamoeba hystolitica

Vivax and ovale burst loose every..

48 hrs (tertian malaria)

Diagnostic test for giardia lamblia

String test

Aestivoautumnal, malignant tertian or sub tertian malaria | Bursts loose irregularly

P.falciparum

Swimming in freshwater

Naegleria fowleri

Hypnozoite can only be found in what species of plasmodium

P.vivax and ovale

Infective stage of entamoeba hystolitica to man

Cyst

Cryptosporidium parvum, when ingested as a round oocyst contains ___sporozoites

4 sporozoites

Vector of trypanosoma cruzi

Panstrongylus megistus / reduviid bug / kissing bug | Feces

Trichomonas that is commensal

Trichomonas tenax

Falling leaf motility

Gardia lamblia

Diagnostic test of chagas disease

Machado-Guerreiro Test

T or F: males can have trichomoniasis

True. Usually asymptomatic

Malaria life cycle

1. Pe-erythrocytic cycle - from anopheles, sporozoites is injected to human bloodstream to liver. SPOROZOITE becomes TROPOZOITE, then undergoes nuclear division forming SCHIZONTS then cytoplasmic membrane division forming MEROZOITE resulting to liver cell bursting. 2. Exo-erythrocytic cycle - reinfects liver and repeat cycle 3. Erythrocytic cycle - enters Rbc (instead of liver cells)

Infective stage of leishmania donovani in man

Promastigote (flagellated motile form)

Manifestation in chronic chagas disease

Mega esophagus and mega colon | Chagasic cardiopathy

Infective stage of trypanosoma cruzi in man

Metacyclic trypomastigote

Motility of gardia lamblia

Falling leaf motility

Most common site of gardia lamblia infection.

Upper part of small intestine

Hemoflagellate ( lives in the bld stream) kinetoplast (mass of mito DNA lying close to the nucleus) Undulating membrane

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense | Trypanosoma cruzi

Treatment for Balantidium coli infection

Iodoquinol

Merozoite invades all ages of RBC

P. Falciparum

Algid malaria

P.flaciparum

Flask-shaped ulcer

Entamoeba hystolitica

Fungal infection (previously protozoa) common in AIDS

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Positive Romanas sign (edema lower eyelid with conjunctivitis Positive intracellular amastigote stage

Trypanosoma cruzi

Treatment for malaria

Chloroquine (vivax, ovale, malariae) Primaquine (vivax, ovale) Mefloquine (chloroquine-resistant)

Causes tartar teeth

Trichomonas tenax

East African sleeping sickness

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Vector of malaria

Anopheles mosquito

TETRAD of babesia sp,

Maltese cross

Vector of trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Tse tse fly

Following ingestion cyst converts back into the motile form, called the...

trophozoite

When exposed to new environments (such as temperature changes, transit down the intestinal tract, or chemical agents), the protozoa can secrete a protective coat and shrink into a round armored form, called

Cyst

Culture for trichomonas

Modified thioglycolate medium

The largest pathogenic Protozoa found in the intestine

Balantidium coli

Slow granulomatous infection and Meningitis in immunocompromised persons

Acanthamoeba

Transmission of toxoplasma Gondi

Ingestion of infected raw meats or food contaminated with cat feces

Treatment for trichomoniasis

Metronidazole

Protozoa ingests solid pieces of food thru a small mouth called

Cytostome

Acid fast oocysts

Cryptosporidium parvum

Diagnostic test for entamoeba and trichomonas

Diamond medium

P.malaria bursts loose every

72 hrs (quartan malaria)

Glycogen vacuoles

Iodomoeba butschlii

Diagnostic test for microsporidium

Ryan's trichrome blue stain

Trophozoite and cyst, which is infective?

Cysts

Plasmodium merozoite invades senescent RBC

P.malariae

Vector of babesia sp.

Ixodes sp.

Infective stage of toxoplasma gondii

Trophozoite

Culture for amoeba

Boeck and Drbohlav's Locke-Egg serum medium

The only ciliated protozoan that causes human disease - diarrhea

Balantidium coli

Diagnostic test for leishmania

Montenegro skin test

Obligate intracellular parasite (Protozoa)

Toxoplasma gondii

Culture for acanthamoeba

Culbertson's medium

P.vivax and ovale has a dormant form called

Hypnozoite

Malaria is a febrile disease caused by 4 different Protozoa:

Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium ovale Plasmodium malariae

This sensitive diagnostic test is conducted where 40 lab-grown reduviid bugs are allowed to feed on the patient, and 1 month later the bug's intestinal contents are examined for the parasite.

Xenodiagnosis

Shepherds crook

Chliomastix mesnili

Kala-agar (black sickness)

Leishmania donovani

American trypanosoma

Trypanosoma cruzi

Common site of infection in amebiasis

Recto-sigmoid large intestine

Positive ingested Rbc

Entamoeba hystolitica

Dum dum fever

Leishmania donovani

Chagas disease

Trypanosoma cruzi

Blood-borne flagellates

Leishmania | Trypanosoma

Flagellated protozoan

Trichomonas vaginalis

Diagnostic test for cyclospora

KOH

Benign tertian malaria

P. vivax (and ovale)

Free living meningitis-causing amoeba that lives in freshwater and moist soil.

Naegleria fowleri | Acanthamoeba

Buffalo-skin or Dyak skin ulcers

Entamoeba hystolitica

Most common site of cryptosporidiosis

Jejunum

Incubation period of plasmodium

2-4 weeks

Causes dysentery, amoebic colitis and liver abscess (anchovy paste)

Entamoeba hystolitica

Treatment for acute amebic colitis (by Entamoeba hystolitica)

Metronidazole

Diagnostic test for cryptosporidium

Sheather's sugar flotation

Causes paraventricular calcification and encephalomyelitis

Toxoplasma gondii

Parasites found more commonly in AIDS

Pneumocystis jiroveci (MC) Toxoplasma gondi Cryptosporidium

Winter button sign (posterior lymphadenopathy)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Quotidian fever

P.vivax

Plasmodium merozoite invades only reticulocyte

P.vivax and ovale

Clinical form of leishmaniasis caused by L.donovani.

Visceral leishmaniasis

Rapidly progressing meningoencephalitis in immunocompetent persons

Naegleria fowleri

Onchocerca volvulus

Simulium flies (female black fly)

Drancunculus medinensis

Copepods (cyclops)

Tsutsugamushi

Leptotrombidium spp.

Babesiosis

Ixodes spp

Trypanosoma brucei

Tse tse fly

Borrelia burgdoferi

Ixodes tick

Bartonella bacilliformis

Phlebotomus fly

Loa loa

Deerfly (mango fly), Chrysops

Bartonella Quintana

Pediculus humanus

Trypanosoma cruzi

Panstrongylus megistus (reduviid bug)

Schistosoma japonicum

Onchomelania quadrasi

Rickettsia pox

Liponyssoides

Rickettsia prowazeki

Pediculus humanus

Yersinia pestis

Xenopsylla cheopis

American trypanosomiasis (chagas disease)

Triatoma, panstrongylus

Rickettsia rickettsii

Dermacentor spp

Francisella tularensis

Dermacentor

Echinostoma ilocanum

Pila luzonica

Borrelia recurrentis

Ornithodoros

Boutonneuse fever

Rhipicephalus

Disease cause by strep pyogenes

``` PRAISE Pharyngitis Rheumatic fever Acute post strep glomerulonephritis Impetigo (contagiosa) Scarlet fever - spares the face Erysipelas ```

Transmission of L.monocytogenes

Ingestion of contaminated raw milk products and cabbages (coleslaw)

Produces serpentine colonies

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Optochin, bile and quellung positive

Strep pneumoniae

Long, thin aerobic spirochete that have hook on one or bothe ends, giving them an "ice tongs" appearance

Leptospira

Clostridium species that is not motile

Clostridium perfringens

Vector of yersinia pestis

Xenopsylla cheopis

Between chlamydia and rickettsia, which has fond to columnar epithelium

Chlamydia

Obligate aerobes

``` NN BBB LMP neisseria and nocardia Bacillus cereus, bordetella, brucella Legionella Mycobacteria Pseudomonas ```

Poly microbial

Brain abscess

Cat-scratch disease Bacillary angiomatosis Inoculation lymphoreticulosis Parinauds occuloglandular syndrome

Bartonella henselae

Produce medussa head colonies

Bacillus anthracis

Vector of Borrelia burgdorferi

Ixodid nymph tick

Causes left-sided valve infection in addicts

P. aeruginosa | Candida albicans

Number one cause of bacterial bronchitis and and pneumonia in teenagers and young adults

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Hematologic hallmark of gardnerella vaginalis infection

Clue cells

Characteristic fried egg appearance

Mycoplasma

Yersinia pestis is a gram-neg bacteria that exhibits striking bipolar staining with special stains. What are those?

Giemsa or Wayson's stain

Lucio's phenomenon

mycobacterium leprae

Causes UTI having alkaline urine due to urease

Proteus mirabilis

Transmission of coxiella burnetti

Inhalation of aerosols

T or F: strep viridans is part of normal oral flora (found in the nasopharynx and gingival crevices) and GIT.

True

Treatment for gardnerella vaginalis

Metronidazole

Most common cause of duodenal ulcers and chronic gastritis. And second leading cause of gastric ulcers

Helicobacter pylori

Job's syndrome (hyper-IgE syndrome) Recurrent cellulitis Spreads from central localized infection.

Staph aureus cellulitis

Group B, beta-hemolytic strep

Strep agalactiae

Lyme disease

Borrelia burgdorferi

Causes bacterial vaginitis

Gardnerella vaginalis

T or F: strep agalactiae is part of normal flora of vagina of pregnant women

True. About 25% of pregnant

Endemic typhus

Rickettsia typhi

Are corynebacterium and listeria catalase positive

Yes

Pseudoappendicits syndrome.

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

Yaws

Treponema pertenue

Rusty colored sputum in pneumonia

Strep pneumoniae

Mycobacterium tuberculosis produces ____ in culture

Niacin

Produces black eschar

Bacillus anthracis

Corkscrew-shaped spirochete

Borrelia

Toxins of staph aureus

Exfoliatin Enterotoxin TSST-1

"The great pretender"

Treponema pallidum

``` Non fermenters Hot tub folliculitis (diffuse folliculitis) Echtyma gangrenosum Cellulits ff penetrating trauma HAP ```

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Muscle spasm Trismus Risus sardonicus Respiratory muscle paralysis

Tetanus

Lactose fermenter enteric

E.coli and klebsiella pneumoniae

Diagnostic test for diphtheria

Elek's test

T or F: salmonella typhi is zoonotic

False. S.typhi is not zoonotic and only carried by humans

Growth medium of mycobacterium leprae

Footpads of mice or in armadillo

Predictive model for diagnosis of group A strep

Centor criteria

Indole negative | Ferments lactose

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Red diaper syndrome

Serratia mercescens

Causes spontaneous myonecrosis and spontaneous non traumatic gangrene

Clostridium septicum

Some people recovering from typhoid fever become chronic carriers, harboring salmonella typhi in their ____ and excreting bacteria constantly.

Gall bladder

Swarming enteric

Proteus mirabilis

Friedlander's pneumoniae

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Disease that presents with the abrupt onset of a watery diarrhea (classically described as looking like RICE WATER) with loss of up to 1liter of fluid per hr in severe cases.

Cholera. It causes death by dehydration

Group A strep, beta-hemolytic

Strep pyogenes

Flagella of clostridium has this virulence protein

H-antigen

Treatment for yersinia pestis

Streptomycin + tetracycline

Most common cause of non-gonoccocal urethritis

Chlamydia trachomatis

Causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Rickettsia rickettsii

Diseases caused by Clostridium septicum

Spontaneous myonecrosis | Spontaneous non traumatic gangrene

Cord factor of mycobacteria

Trehalose dimycolate

Step agalactiae is hydrolyzed by ...

Hippurate

Pinta

Treponema carateum

Incubation period of Leptospira interrogans

5-14 days (2-30days)

Incubation period of yersinia enterocolitica

Cold enrichment - 4C For 1wk

Whooping cough

Bordetella pertussis

Spirillum minus

Rat bite fever

Oroya fever is a profound intravascular hemolytic anemia of a few weeks duration, associated with lesions called VERRUGA PERUANA resembling Kaposi's sarcoma; also known as Carrión's disease.

Bartonella bacilliformis

Index organism for fecal contamination of water

E.coli

Most common bacteria in surface water worldwide

Vibrios

Borrelia burgdorferi can invade the brain, cranial nerves and even motor/sensory nerves. What is the most common CN palsy?

Bell's palsy

Patient that is a worker in the meat-packing industry, a veterinarian, a farmer or a traveler who consumes dairy (cow or goat) products in Mexico ore elsewhere. Possible disease?

Tularemia

Causes tularemia

Francisella tularensis

Neurotoxin of Cl.botulinum inhibits the release of _____ from peripheral nerves. Toxin is not secreted, rather It is released upon the death of bacteria.

Acetylcholine

Diagnostic test of step.pyogene that indicates presence of pyrrolidonyl arrylamidase

PYR test

Most common cause of bloody diarrhea in 1-4yrs old

Shigella dysenteriae

It is seen in secondary syphilis. In paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, an antibody associated with syphilis and viral infections.

Donath-Landsteiner antibody

Most common cause if UTI in sexually active women (second to e.coli)

Staph saprophyticus

Enzymes of serratia mercescens

Gelatinase DNAse Lipase

Most common type of salmonella infection

Inflammatory diarrhea

Erysipelas - fiery red swelling of face

Strep pyogenes

3rd most common cause of meningitis in children

Listeria monocytogenes

Cause of dental carries

Strep viridans

Culture of h.influenzae

Chocolate agar

Diseases caused by brucella

``` BUM Brucellosis (causes undulant fever) Bang's disease Undulant fever Mediterranean fever ```

Family vibrionaceae

Vibrio cholera Vibrio panhaemolyticus Campylobacter jejuni Helicobacter pylori

Trench fever

Bartonella quintana

Recurrent form of epidemic typhus

Brill-zinser disease

Can live in 6.5% NaCl and 40% bile

Group D strep

Rapidly spreading, diffuse process Associated with lymphangitis and fever Milroy's disease

Strep cellulitis

Most common cause of diarrhea

Yersinia enterocolitica

Between chlamydia and rickettsia, which requires an arthropod vector?

Rickettsia

Weil's disease

Leptospira interrogans

Infected lymph node in bubonic plague

Inguinal nodes (boubon is Greek for groin)

Caused the Black Death or the bubonic plague

Yersinia pestis

Diagnostic test for cholera

String test | Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts (TCBS) agar

Cross reacts with rickettsiae species

Proteus mirabilis

Stain that demonstrates the metachromatic granules of corynebacterium diptheriae

Methylene blue

Female genital tract abscess | Pancreatitis

Bacteroides fragilis

Diseases caused by strep agalactiae

Neonatal meningitis, pneumonia and sepsis

Staph that causes continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

Coagulase negative staph

Caseous necrosis is due to

Phosphatides

Epidemic typhus

Rickettsia prowazeki

Vector of rickettsia rickettsii

Dermacentor spp.

Culture for mycobacteria

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

Causes severe croup, acute supraglottic laryngitis and meningitis (3mos -3yrs)

H.influenza

T or F: mycobacterium leprae grows better in cooler temperature closer to the skin surface.

True. Leprosy involves the cooler are of the body.

H.influenzae requires two factors for growth (both found in blood)

Factor V - NAD | Factor X - Hemin

Fevers caused by leptospira interrogans

``` FCPCN Fort Bragg fever Canefield fever Pretibial fever Canicola fever Nanukayami fever ```

Incubation period of mycobacterium tuberculosis

3-8 wks

Early congenital syphilis occurs within 2 years and is like severe secondary syphilis. What are the manifestations?

Condylomata latum | Snuffles : runny nose

Rat catcher's yellow

Leptospira interrogans

Most common cause of meningitis in adults

Strep pneumoniae

Drug induced Adults Stratum germinativum

Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

Bacitracin-sensitive

Strep.pyogene

Curved gram-negative rod with a single polar flagellum

Vibrio cholerae

Produces bull's eye target colonies

Yersinia enterocolitica

Indole positive Beta hemolytic Ferments lactose

E.coli

Major virulence factor of strep pyogenes

M protein

``` Nongonoccocal urethritis (20-30%) Prostitis and epididimytis in men ```

Ureaplasma urealyticum

Hansen's disease

Leprosy by mycobacterium leprae

Cellulitis on bone renderers and fish mongers

Erysipelothrix rhusfopathiae

Primary bacterial peritonitis | honeymoon cystitis

E.coli

Staghorn calculi

Proteus mirabilis

Wasserman reaction

Treponema pallidum

Q fever

Coxiella burnetti

Disease caused by group D strep

Subacute bacterial endocarditis Biliary tract infection Urinary tract infection

Lancet shape

Strep pneumoniae

Classic test that uses cross reacting OX strains of proteus vulgaris antigens to help confirm diagnosis of a rickettsial infection

Weil-Felix reaction

Mobiluncus

Gardnerella vaginalis

Dental plaques | Produce sulfur granules

Arachnia propionica

Severest form of leprosy where patients cannot mount CMI response to M.leprae.

Lepromatous leprosy

Group d strep has this thing that helps them bind to heart valves

Dextran

Rule of six in syphilis

Sixual transmission 6 axial filaments 6 wks incubation 6 wks for ulcer to heal 6 wks after ulcer heals,vsecondary syphilis develops 6 wks for secondary syphilis to resolve 66% of latent stage patients have resolution 6 years (at least) to develop tertiary syphilis

Human granulocytotrophic ehrlichiosis

Anaplasma phagocytophila

Stage of syphilis: chancre

Primary syphilis

Diseases caused by chlamydia trachomatis

TPL Trachoma - corneal scarring (scar traction pulls and folds the eyelids inward so that the eyelashes rub against the conjunctiva and cornea Pebbly conjunctiva Lymphogranuloma venereum

Virulence factor of yersinia pestis

V and W antigen

Bacteroides fragilis infection occurs when the organism enters into the ..

Peritoneal cavity

Leonine facies if a manifestation of ...

Lepromatous leprosy

Group D strep, alpha,beta,gamma-hemolytic

Enterococci (strep faecalis and faecium) | Non-enterococci ( strep bovis and equinus)

Motility of L.monocytogenes

Tumbling motility | Actin-jet motility

Comparison of rash from Rocky Mountain spotted fever and epidemic typhus

In contrast to Rocky Mountain spotted fever, epidemic typhus rash spares the palms, soles and face.

Enteric bacteria

``` PEKSS Proteus mirabilis E.coli Klebsiella pneumoniae Shigella dysenteriae Salmonella typhi ```

Syphilitic reagin

IgG and igM

Has characteristic gull wing appearance at 42 degrees in culture

Campylobacter jejuni

Crepitus positive Gas gangrene Food poisoning (no fever)

Clostridium perfringens

Produces golden yellow colonies

Staph aureus

No lancefield classification | Alpha-hemolytic, encapsulated

Strep pneumoniae

Culture for corynebacterium diptheriae

TELL UR InTErn not to LOEF around 1. Potassium tellurite agar 2. Loeffler's medium

Late congenital syphilis is similarly to tertiary syphilis except that cardiovascular involvement rarely occurs. What are the manifestations?

8th nerve deafness (vestibulocochlear nerve) Saber shin (tibia leads to bowing) Mulberry or Moon's molar (molars have too many cusps) Hutchinson's teeth (incisors are widely spaced with a central notch) Clutton's joint (symmetrical arthrosis)

Some rickettsia share antigenic characteristics with ...

Proteus vulgaris

Splenic abscess

Steptoccocal species

Microaerophilic bacteria

Helicobacter and campylobacter | Spirochetes

Most common cause of post-influenzal secondary bacterial pneumonia

Staph aureus

E.coli strain that causes Hemorrhagic uremic syndrome.

E.coli O157

Japanese river typhus

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

Nonmotile enteric

Klebsiella pneumoniae and shigella dysenteriae

Rat bite fever

By streptobacillus moniliformis

Syphilis: endarteritis obliterans (inflam of inner lining of artery)

Syphilitic aortitis

Produces cherry red colonies

Serratia mercescens

Diagnostic test for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Cold agglutinins

Puppy feces Pica in children Mimics appendicitis

Yersinia enterocolitica

Tiniest free living organism capable of self-replication

Mycoplasma

Strep pneumoniae produces this enzyme for mucosal colonization

IgA protease

Toxin of Cl.tetani which inhibits release inhibitory neurotransmitters (GABA, glycine) resulting in distant muscle contraction (tetany)

Tetanospasmin

Scrub typhus

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

Greenish discharge with fishy odor

Gardnerella vaginalis

Urease positive Phenylalanine deaminase positive Indole negative Does not ferment lactose

Proteus mirabilis

Purpura fulminans

N.menigitidis

Most patient with syphilis will develop an acute worsening of their symptoms immediately aft antibiotics. What is this phenomenon?

Jarisch-Herxheimer phenomenon

Has characteristic rose spots on belly | And a tongue brown and furred

Typhoid fever /enteric fever (Salmonella typhi)

Painless genital ulcer - chancroid

Syphilis (treponema pallidum)

How many organisms of v.cholerae are required to be infected?

100-1000 organisms

Obligate anaerobes

Clostridium | Bacteroides

Toxin produced by v.cholerae

Choleragen

Organisms that cause echthyma gangrenosum

P. aeruginosa | A. Hydrophila

Diarrhea caused by yersinia enterocolitica severe abdominal pain right lower quadrant, thus it often mimics what disease?

Appendicitis (mesenteric adenitis)

Reservoir of francisella tularensis and how humans get infected

Rabbits. From bite of ticks and deerflies

Bacitracin-resistant

Strep agalactiae

Stage of syphilis: tabes dorsalis (spinal cord posterior column and dorsal root)

Tertiary syphilis

This organism us ubiquitous in natural and man-made water environments. Aerosolized contaminates water is inhaled, resulting in infection. Sources such as air conditioning units and cooling towers.

Legionella pneumophila

Purpura fulminans + asplenia

N.menigitidis. + H.influenzae

Painful genital ulcer -chancroid

H. Ducreyri

Scarlitiniform rash

Arcanobacterium hemolyticum

At risk patients of salmonella typhi

Patients who are asplenia or have nonfunctioning spleen (sickle cell anemia)

Optochin-resistant

Strep viridans

Pemphigus neonatorum

Leptospira interrogans

Used to diagnose scarlet fever

Dick test

Diagnostic test for mycobacterium tuberculosis

Montoux test

Catalase and coagulase positive | Facultative anaerobe

Staph aureus

Currant jelly sputum

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Toxin that e.coli has that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating 60s ribosomal unit

Verotoxin

Causes brain micro abscess, pyomyositis, hematogenous and contiguous focus osteomyelitis, post op infections, Ritter's disease, localized bullous impetigo, necrotizing and nodular pneumonia

Staph aureus

Honey colored crusting

Staph aureus

Stage of syphilis: condylomata latum

Secondary syphilis

"Bull neck"

Corynebacterium diptheriae

3 most common causes of diarrhea in the world

Campylobacter jejuni ETEC Rotavirus

Opthalmia neonatorum Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome PROM

N. gonorrheae

Proteus mirabilis cross reacts with _____ species

Rickettsiae species

Yersinia enterocolitica is closely related to yersinia pestis that causes bubonic plague. Their difference is in the mode of transmission.

Yersinia pestis: bite of a flea | Yersinia enterocolitis: fecal-oral route

Walking pneumoniae

Chlamydia pneumoniae or mycoplasma pneumoniae

Cat bite fever

Pasteurella multocida

Subungual hemorrhage | In s.aureus endocarditis

Osler's node

Torulosis | Aseptic meningitis

Cryptococcus neoformans

Superficial fungal infection

Pityriasis versicolor | Tinea nigra

Fungal infection of the body

Tinea corporis

Unicellular growth form of fungi

Yeast

Coccidiodes immitis causes what diseases

San Joaquin fever | Desert rheumatism

Pilot's wheel

Paracoccidiodes brasilensis

Can be found in pigeon droppings

Cryptococcus neoformans

Cigar-shape yeast

Sporothrix schenckii

Essential sterol in fungi

Ergosterol

Fungal infection of the groin and scrotum

Tinea cruris

T or F: spores can be transmitted from person to person

False. Never, it can be acquired thru inhalation as a spore.

Most common cns fungal infection

Cryptococcus neoformans

Subcutaneous-fungal infections gain entrance to the body following...

Trauma to the skin

Cottage cheese vaginal discharge

Candida albicans

The key to diagnosis of this fungus is doing a lumbar puncture and analyzing the CSF. An India ink test is positive.

Cryptococcus neoformans

Fungi that can grow as either a yeast or mold, depending on environmental conditions and temperature (usually growing as a yeast at body temperatures).

Dimorphic fungi

Coccidiodes immitis can be stained by

India ink

Diseases caused by Candida albicans

Diaper rush Oral thrush Vaginitis

Fungal infection (previously protozoa) common in AIDS

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Microorg that causes sporotrichosis

Sporothrix schenckii

Encapsulated yeasts

Cryptococcus neoformans

Madura foot

Pseudallescheria boydii

Cryptococcus neoformans is found in nature, especially in.

Pigeon droppings

Antifungal drug that inhibits ergosterol synthesis

Ketoconazole

Culture for fungi

Saborauds agar

Broad-based budding yeast

Blastomyces

Black nasal discharge + sinusitis

Mucormycosis / rhizopus

Fungal infection of the hair (scalp)

Tinea capitis

Systemic fungal infection.

Blastomycosis | Coccidiodomycosis

Infection from plant part trauma

Sporothrix schenckii

Category of cutaneous fungal infection where fungi live in the dead, horny layer of skin, hair and nails.

Dermathophytic cells

Primary manifestation of superficial fungal infections

Pigment change of the skin

Stain for pneumocystis jiroveci

Silver stain

When examined under microscope, the pus draining from the abscess of actinomyces infection reveals yellow granules called..

Sulfur granules

Subcutaneous fungal infection

Sporotrichosis | Chromoblastomycosis

Produces pseudohyphae

Candida albicans

Treatment for pneumocystis jiroveci

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Non budding spherioles

Coccidiodes immitis

Fungus ball in the brain abscess

Aspergillus fumigatus

Eucaryotic cells that lack chlorophyll so they cannot generate thru photosynthesis. They do require aerobic environment.

Fungi

First line drugs for treatment of dermatophytoses

Topical imidazole

Reproducing bodies of molds.

Spore

Arthroconidia

Coccidiodes immitis

Fungus that has no ergosterol

Pneumocystis jiroveci

The fungi-like bacteria

Actinomyces | Nocardia

Broad hyphae invading blood vessels walls

Mucormycosis / rhizopus

Pityriasis versicolor is caused by..

Malassezia furfur

Multicellular colonies composed of clumps of intertwined branching hyphae

Molds

Fungi that live in and utilize organic matter (soil, rotten vegetation) as an energy source.

Saprophytes

Antifungal drug that destroys cm (ergosterol)

Amphiteracin B and nystatin

Causes oral thrush

Candida albicans

Rarest systemic fungal infection

Blastomyces

Fungal infection of the foot

Tinea pedis

Most common in chronic sinusitis

Aspergillus fumigatus

Fungal infection of the nails

Tinea unguium (onchomycosis)

Treatment for tinea capitis and tinea unguium

Oral griseofulvin

Rose gardener's disease

Sporotrichosis. (Sporothrix schenckii)

Treatment for actinomyces and nocardia

SNAP Sulfamethoxazole for Nocardia Actinomyces is Pen G

Causes desert rheumatism and San Joaquin fever

Coccidioides immitis

Fungi can look like spaghetti (hyphae) and meat balls (spherical yeast)

Malassezia furfur

T or F: Cryptococcus neoformans is associated with AIDS.

True

Dichotomous branching hyphae

Aspergillus fumigatus

Lumpy jaw

Actinomyces Israeli

Dermatophytic cells secreted an enzyme called...

Keratinase

Treatment for Cryptococcus neoformans

Amphotericin B | Fluconazole (or flucytosine)

Lipophylic yeast

Malassezia furfur