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Physiology > Section 6 Exam Review 2 > Flashcards

Section 6 Exam Review 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Cortisol has permissive effects on:

A

glucagon

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2
Q

When does cortisol secretion peak?

A

between early morning and noon

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3
Q

Cross-over effects are sometimes seen between:

A

steroid hormones

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4
Q

True or False? All the hormones secreted by the adrenal gland play a major role in growth and metabolism.

A

F

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5
Q

Pendrin is an anion transporter important in the production of:

A

thyroid hormone

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6
Q

Name an effect of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissue:

A

increased sensitivity to sympathetic stimulation

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7
Q

Iodine accumulation in thyroid cells involves symport with:

A

sodium

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8
Q

Excess secretion of growth hormone during adulthood will cause:

A

acromegaly

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9
Q

Somatostatin is another name for:

A

growth hormone-inhibiting hormone

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10
Q

Mature, less active bones:

A

osteocytes

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11
Q

Functions of PTH:

A

stimulate osteoclast activity, increases the rate of calcium absorption, decreases the rate of calcium excretion, raises the level of calcium ion in the blood

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12
Q

Excess growth hormone prior to puberty:

A

giantism

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13
Q

Calcium reabsorption at the kidneys is promoted by the hormone:

A

calcitriol

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14
Q

Functions of cortisol:

A

suppress the immune system and influence brain function

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15
Q

What are ACTH and MSH called?

A

melanocortins

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16
Q

Effect of hyperthroidism on protein in body?

A

increases protein catabolism

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17
Q

What does growth hormone bind?

A

plasma protein

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18
Q

PTH is:

A

a peptide and dissolved in plasma

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19
Q

Vitamin D is another name for:

A

calcitriol

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20
Q

Vitamin D is formed by:

A

sunlight

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21
Q

True or False? Vitamin D is bound to plasma protein for transport.

A

T

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22
Q

What disease results in hypercortisolism?

A

Cushing’s disease

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23
Q

What disease results in hyperthroidism?

A

Grave’s disease

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24
Q

What disease involves endocrine stimulation by antibodies?

A

Grave’s disease

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25
Q

Some symptoms of this disease mimic diabetes mellitus:

A

Cushing’s disease

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26
Q

This disease is associated with overactive osteoclasts:

A

Paget’s disease

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27
Q

Calcitonin may be the appropriate treatment for this disease:

A

Paget’s disease

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28
Q

This may be an autoimmune disease:

A

Addison’s disease

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29
Q

This disease may result from adrenal tumor:

A

Cushing’s disease

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30
Q

This disease may result from a pituitary tumor:

A

Cushing’s disease

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31
Q

This is associated with Grave’s disease:

A

exophthalmus (abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs)

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32
Q

This can be caused by growth hormone deficiency in childhood:

A

dwarfism

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33
Q

This is caused by growth hormone excess in adulthood:

A

acromegaly

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34
Q

This can lead to mental retardation associated with infantile hypothyroidism:

A

cretinism

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35
Q

This condition results from excess androgens in females:

A

adrenogenital syndrome

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36
Q

Hunchback appearance associated with osteoporosis:

A

kyphosis

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37
Q

Puffy appearance associated with hypothyroidism:

A

myxedema

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38
Q

Easily observable symptom of hypercortisolism:

A

moon face

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39
Q

Caused by elevation of TSH:

A

Goiter

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40
Q

The most importance metabolic effect of ___ is protecting against ___, crucial to surviving significant stress.

A

cortisol, hypoglycemia

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41
Q

What produce and store thyroid hormone?

A

thyroid follicles

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42
Q

____ is a result folicular deficient thyroid hormone secretion in infancy.

A

cretinism

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43
Q

What does calcium phosphate form in bone?

A

crystals of hydroxyapetite

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44
Q

Into what system is CRH released?

A

hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system

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45
Q

Breakdown products of POMC:

A

ACTH, MSH and endorphins

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46
Q

Growth hormone stimulates secretion of what from the liver and other tissues?

A

insulin-like growth factor

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47
Q

True or False? Growth hormone has a positive feedback effect on growth hormone secretion.

A

F. negative

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48
Q

4 factors that affect normal body growth:

A

growth hormone and other hormones, adequate diet, absence of stress, genetic

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49
Q

4 physiological functions of calcium:

A

signalling molecule, helps hold cells together at tight junction, cofactor in coagulation cascade, excitability of neurons

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50
Q

2 endocrine cell types that make up the thyroid gland:

A

c cells and follicle cells

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51
Q

C cells secrete ___, while follicle cells secrete ___-.

A

calcitonin, thyroid hormones

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52
Q

What would damage to the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex result in?

A

decreased ability to convert lipids to glucose

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53
Q

A rise in cortisol would lead to:

A

Inc liver glucose and glycogen synthesis, higher fatty acids levels in blood, immune suppression

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54
Q

Premature closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by:

A

elevated levels of sex hormones

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55
Q

What effect will late start to puberty have on a boy?

A

probably be taller than if started sooner

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56
Q

Example of the permissive effect:

A

cortisol is required for glucagon to have its full effects, can’t adequately perform its role in glucose regulation and death results

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57
Q

How does cortisol suppress the immune system?

A

it prevents cytokine release and antibody production by WBC’s and decreases WBC mobility and migration (antibiotics-inflammatory and antibiotics-rejection drug for transplants)

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58
Q

True or False? Cortisol strengthens the skeleton.

A

F. weakens

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59
Q

How is the adrenal cortex affected during cortisol therapy?

A

it atrophies

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60
Q

Difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia:

A

increase in cells size vs. increase in cell number

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61
Q

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia are both regulated by:

A

growth hormone, thyroid hormone, and insulin

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62
Q

3 causes of hypercoticolism:

A

adrenal tumor (primary), pituitary tumor (secondary), and iatrogenic

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63
Q

How does cortisol help protect against hypoglycemia?

A

via its catabolic effects

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64
Q

effects of cortisol:

A

gluconeogenesis, muscle protein breakdown, increased lipolysis, immune suppression, negative calcium balance, alteration of cerebral functions, and bone loss

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65
Q

Give an example of the permissive effect in children.

A

thyroid hormone is needed for full expression of growth hormone

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66
Q

List the trophic hormones:

A

FLAT

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67
Q

True or False? Endocrine cells are found in the posterior pituitary gland.

A

F. Anterior

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68
Q

Are the trophic producing cells part of the anterior or posterior pituitary gland?

A

anterior

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69
Q

Which releasing hormones have effects on more than one target?

A

TRH (TSH and prolactin) and GnRH (FSH and LH)

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70
Q

The renal actions of ADH are mediated by these receptors:

A

V(2) receptors, increase cAMP

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71
Q

How does ADH effect urea levels in the kidney?

A

increase urea reabsorption

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72
Q

Vascular effect of ADH are mediated by this receptor:

A

V(1) receptor (PIP(2) system)

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73
Q

How does ADH affect capillary and venue pressures?

A

decreases both

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74
Q

The osmoreptors in the kidney have ___ connections to the ________ nucleus.

A

neural, suproptic

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75
Q

Where are the stretch receptors located that sense high pressure?

A

carotid sinus and aortic arch

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76
Q

Where are the receptors located that sense low pressure?

A

cardiopulmonary, atria and thoracic veins

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77
Q

Which is sensed earlier, changes in plasma volume or osmolarity?

A

osmolarity

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78
Q

Lack of ADH leads to this disease:

A

diabetes insipidus

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79
Q

Excess ADH leads to this disease:

A

SIADH: Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH secretion

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80
Q

ACTH is aka:

A

endorphins

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81
Q

What is reticular activating substance involved in?

A

slep/wake cycle

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82
Q

What is the thalamus involved in?

A

pain

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83
Q

Functions of ACTH on the adrenal gland:

A

stimulate growth and function of gland

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84
Q

What hormone has inhibitory action on Tyrotropin?

A

Somatostatin

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85
Q

Which is involved in estrogen and progesterone synthesis, LH or FSH?

A

LH

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86
Q

Which is involved in follicular ovulation, LH or FSH?

A

LH

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87
Q

Which is involved in follicular growth, LH or FSH?

A

FSH

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88
Q

Effect of growth hormone on progesterone levels:

A

increases

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89
Q

Effect of progesterone on somatotrophs:

A

decreases the size and number of

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90
Q

Effect of progesterone on mammotrophs:

A

increases the size and number of

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91
Q

Prolactin inhibiting factor is aka:

A

GAP: GnRH Associated Peptide

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92
Q

True or False? Prolactin is involved in the up regulation of menstrual functions.

A

F. suppressed menstrual functions

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93
Q

The positive feedback loop involving oxytocin is continued as a result of

A

cervical stretch when baby pushes against cervix as a result of uterine contractions

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94
Q

How is ADH controlled?

A

osmoreceptors and volumes/ pressure receptors

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95
Q

Thyroxine is involved in the growth and development of what body systems/

A

CNS and skeletal system

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96
Q

True or False? Thyroxine is involved in temperature regulation.

A

T

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97
Q

True or False? Both Grave’s disease and Hashimoto’s disease are autoimmune diseases.

A

T

98
Q

Are thyrotrophs found in the anterior or posterior pituitary gland/

A

anterior

99
Q

What does T4 and T3 negatively feedback to in the thyroid axis control?

A

Thyrotroph

100
Q

7 steps in the biosynthesis of thyroid hormones:

A

transport, Peroxidation (TPO), iodination (TPO), coupling, (TPO), reabsorption, proteolysis, secretion

101
Q

How many steps in the biodynthsis of thyroid hormones is TPO involved in?

A

3; peroxidation, iodination, coupling

102
Q

Functions of thyroid hormones:

A

transport, growth, metabolism, sympathetic nervous system, temperature regulation

103
Q

How do thyroid hormones function in transported[orthodontic?

A

TBG (thyroxine binding gobulin) and Albumin

104
Q

These can lead to the enlargement of the thyroid gland:

A

thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins

105
Q

True or False? T3 and T4 have a strong negative feedback to the hypothalamus in hypothyroidism.

A

F. Strong negative feedback to hypothalamus in Grave’s disease

106
Q

Pendrin:

A

transports iodine into colloid

107
Q

Does iodine get oxidized or reduced in the colloid?

A

oxidized, i- to i zero

108
Q

Are a or b cells at the center of the islet?

A

beta

109
Q

Insulin secretion:

A

plasma glucose increases, transported in via GLUT2 channels, oxidized to ATP, ATP closes K+ channel, cell depolarizes, voltage-sensitive calcium channel opens, calcium triggers the release of insulin

110
Q

Pathway in which PKA increases the secretion of insulin:

A

adenylate cyclase/ glucagon receptor, ATP, to cAMP, to PKA

111
Q

What type of adrenergic receptor is in the beta cell?

A

alpha-2-adrenergic receptor

112
Q

What enzyme is used to make ADP + P from ATP in the beta cells?

A

Glucokinase

113
Q

All weak androgens and glucocorticoids are synthesized from either:

A

pregnenolone or progesterone

114
Q

The formation of mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and weak androgens all start with the conversion of cholesterol to ___, via this enzyme:

A

pregnenolone, CSCC

115
Q

Name 2 weak androgens:

A

DHEA and androstenedione

116
Q

Aldosynthase converts what to what?

A

corticosterone to aldosterone

117
Q

Which hormone is involved in long-loop negative feedback?

A

cortisol, on CRH and ACTH

118
Q

2 factors that alter CRH release:

A

circadian rhythm and stress

119
Q

True or False? Cortisol leads to protein anabolism.

A

F. catabolism (immune system suppression, gluconeogenesis, and lipolysis as well)

120
Q

Extrahepatitc actions of glucocorticoids:

A

Break down protein from muscle and break down fat

121
Q

Hepatic actions of glucocorticoids:

A

Synthesize glucose and glycogen

122
Q

True or False? Glucocorticoids decreases sensitivity to insulin.

A

T

123
Q

True or False? Glucocorticoids lead to an increase in liver glycogen storage.

A

T

124
Q

How do glucocorticoids increase gluconeogenesis in the liver?

A

increase activity and amount of enzymes

125
Q

True or False? Glucocorticoids lead to an increase in glucose sensitivity in adipose tissue.

A

F. decrease

126
Q

True or False? epinephrine/ norepinephrine increase glycogenolysis and lipolysis.

A

T

127
Q

Do epinephrine and norepinephrine both inhibit insulin release?

A

yes

128
Q

What is the rate limiting step in the formation of pregnenelone?

A

cholesterol side chain cleavage (CSCC)

129
Q

Main component of zona fasciculata and zona reticulata

A

cortisol, then corticosterone

130
Q

Which group controls secretion, the renin-angiotensin system “RAS”?

A

mineralocorticoids

131
Q

True or False? Aldosterone is involved in K+ excretion.

A

T, Na channel on luminal side, na/K ATPase on basal

132
Q

What type of feedback control is there in the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis?

A

negative feedback

133
Q

What hormone is involved in tissue integrity?

A

cortisol

134
Q

Effect of cortisol on CNS:

A

decrease sensory acuity and promote sense of well being

135
Q

Effect of cortisol on cardiovascular system:

A

decrease vascular permeability, helps maintain catecholamine effect on vasoconstriction and contractility

136
Q

Effect of cortisol on kidney:

A

to concentrate urine

137
Q

Effect of cortisol on GI tract:

A

increase acid secretion, inhibit calcium reabsorption

138
Q

Effect of cortisol on bone:

A

increase resorption

139
Q

Effect of excess cortisol on connective tissue:

A

decreases collagen synthesis

140
Q

Excess glucocorticoids:

A

obesity, “moon face” (pie face), loss of bone mass, striations, muscle weakness

141
Q

What causes Addison’s disease?

A

lack of both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

142
Q

Symptoms of Addison’s disease:

A

life threatening, loss appetite, malaise, lethargy

143
Q

What is the adrenal medulla innervated by?

A

splanchnic nerves

144
Q

Embryologic origin of the medulla:

A

neuroectodermal

145
Q

Function of B-receptors:

A

increase cAMP (epinephrine>norepinephrine)

146
Q

metabolic effects of B-receptors:

A

glycogenolysis, lipolysis, release of glucagon, calorigenisis

147
Q

Cardiovascular effects of B-receptors:

A

increase heart rate and contractility, vascular dilation, u relaxation

148
Q

alpha-receptors functions:

A

alpha-1: PIP(2) turnover, alpha-2: decrease cAMP epinephrine and norepinephrine bind equally well

149
Q

metabolic effects of alpha-receptors:

A

decreased insulin secretion, increased glucagon and glucose release

150
Q

Cardiovascular effects of alpha-receptors:

A

vasoconstriction

151
Q

What is pheochromocytoma?

A

Causes excess secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine, leads to: hypertension, palpitations, late skin, headache, and anxiety

152
Q

What negatively feeds back to the anterior pituitary gland in the growth and development pathway?

A

insulin-like growth factors

153
Q

This food substrate up regulates the release of growth hormone while this one down regulates the release.

A

protein, carbohydrates

154
Q

True or False? Growth hormone up regulates lypogenesis.

A

F. lipolysis

155
Q

4 hormones related to growth:

A

thyroid hormones, glucocorticoids, androgens, and estrogens

156
Q

Causes of retarded growth:

A

nutritional, excess cortisol, thyroxin deficient, precocious puberty, growth hormone responsive dwarfism, or growth hormone insensitive dwarfism

157
Q

What type of growth are IGF’s involved in?

A

whole body growth

158
Q

IGF-1 is aka:

A

Somatomedin-C

159
Q

Function of IGF-1:

A

stimulate differentiation and proliferation

160
Q

True or False? Thyroid hormones are involved in both neural and skeletal development.

A

T

161
Q

True or False? Glucocorticoids are involved in growth, but not growth inhibition.

A

F. Vice versa

162
Q

How do glucocorticoids exert their effects on a target tissue?

A

via direct action

163
Q

This hormone has synergistic actions with growth hormone at target tissue:

A

androgens

164
Q

Adrogens stimulate:

A

release of growth hormone, epiphyseal plate maturation, and muscle growth

165
Q

True or False? Estrogens promote somatic cell growth.

A

F. inhibit somatic cell growth

166
Q

Effect of estrogen on somatomedin C levels:

A

decreases somatomedin C levels

167
Q

Effect of estrogen on growth hormone secretion:

A

increases growth hormone secretions

168
Q

Intracellular functions of Ca:

A

contraction, motility, secretion, nerve function, growth, and differentiation

169
Q

Extracelluar functions of Ca:

A

cell adhesion, aggregation of platelets, membrane integrity, blood coagulation

170
Q

Functions of PO4:

A

cytosolic and blood pH buffer, energy exchange, component of membranes and nucleic acids, activation/inactivation of enzymes by kinases/phosphatases

171
Q

14% of the PO4 in the body is here:

A

sequestered in the intracellular fluid

172
Q

Extracellular fluid levels of Ca2+ and PO4:

A

0.1% Ca2+ and 0.03% of PO4

173
Q

How are Ca and P stored?

A

in mito as crystal: Ca(3)(PO4)2

174
Q

Where is most calcium reabsorbed?

A

duodenum

175
Q

Calcium reabsorption is mediated by:

A

CaBP

176
Q

PO(4) is reabsorbed most here:

A

jejunum, linear with diet

177
Q

Bulk reabsorpion of calcium occurs here and regulated reabsorption occurs here:

A

poximal tubule, distal tubule

178
Q

What % of the filtered load of PO(4) is reabsorbed in the poximal tubule?

A

90%

179
Q

Reabsorption of PO(4) in the poximal tubule is ___ dependent.

A

Na+

180
Q

Where is PTH synthesized?

A

chief cells of parathyroid gland (84 amino acids)

181
Q

Action of PTH on the kidney:

A

increases reabsorption of Ca2+ and decreases PO(4) reabsorption

182
Q

Where does PTH help in the formation of Vitamin D?

A

kidney, promotes formation of 1,25(OH)2

183
Q

C cells are aka:

A

parafollicular cells, 32 amino acids

184
Q

Action of calcitonin on kidney:

A

increase excretion of both Ca and P

185
Q

True or False? Calcitonin has potent pharmacological actions.

A

T

186
Q

The reaction of this converting to this requires sunlight.

A

7-dehyrocholesterol to cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)

187
Q

__ occurs in the liver to make Vitamin D.

A

hydroxylation, not regulated, vitamin D3 levels reflect dietary intake

188
Q

Describe the biological activity and half life of 25(OH)-Vitamin D3:

A

weak biological activity, long half life (15 days)

189
Q

True or False? 25(OH)-Vitamin D3 is the active form of Vitamin D.

A

F. activated in the kidney to 1,25(OH)-Vitamin D3

190
Q

High plasma levels of what will increase the formation of 24, 25(OH)- Vitamin D3?

A

PO(4) or 1,25(OH)2

191
Q

Function of 1,25(OH)2-Vitamin D3:

A

increases calcium and PO(4) absorption in gut

192
Q

Function of 1,25(OH)2-Vitamin D3 in gut is inhibited by:

A

glucocorticoids

193
Q

Osteoblasts secrete:

A

collagen, alkalin phosphatase, and other proteins and amorphous CaPO(4) to form osteoid

194
Q

What is osteoid:

A

cartilage-like material, calcium salts can precipitate

195
Q

Osteoblasts arise from osteoprogenitor cells in:

A

marrow, periosteum, or periodontal ligament

196
Q

There are inactive osteoblasts:

A

surface cells

197
Q

What are surface cells connected to?

A

osteocytes via gap junctions

198
Q

What do surface cells separate?

A

bone fluid from plasma

199
Q

Where do osetocytes reside?

A

bone interior, in lacuna connected via cannuliculi

200
Q

Osteocytes arise from:

A

encapsulated osteoblasts

201
Q

True or False? Osteocytes destroy bone matrix.

A

F. They mobilize Ca and P from immature CaPO(4) crystals by osteolysis without destruction

202
Q

From what cells do osteoclasts arise?

A

monocytes/ macrophages

203
Q

True or False? Osteoclasts are mononucleated.

A

F. multinucleated

204
Q

How do osteoclasts resorb bone?

A

secretion of acid hydrolases, acidification of resorbing surfaces

205
Q

How are osteoblast and osteoclast activity coupled?

A

various paracrine factors scubas PGE(2), secreted cytokines, and factors from osteoid degradation

206
Q

True or False? Calcitonin and Vitamin D both lead to the absorption of Ca and P from the plasma.

A

F. Calcitonin does, vitamin d leads to release of Ca and P into the plasma

207
Q

Where are PTH receptors found?

A

osteoblasts and osteocytes

208
Q

What signals for the formation of new osteoclasts?

A

paracrine release of factors from osteoblasts.

209
Q

How are osteoblasts activated?

A

release of factors (from degraded osteoid?)

210
Q

Where are calcitonin receptors found?

A

osteoclasts

211
Q

How does decreased activity of active osteoclasts affect osteoblasts via coupling?

A

decreases osteoblastic activity leading to decreased bone turnover

212
Q

Are Vitamin D receptors found on osteoblasts, osteocytes, or osteoclasts?

A

osteoblasts and osteocytes

213
Q

True or False? Vitamin D directly activates osteoclasts.

A

F. indirectly, like PTH

214
Q

Actions of Vitamin D:

A

direct: permissive action, indirect: positive systemic Ca2+ and PO(4) balance

215
Q

Do glucocorticoids decrease bone formation and degradation via direct or indirect actions?

A

both

216
Q

What does prolonged exposure of glucocorticoids lead to?

A

osteoporosis

217
Q

What sex steroids help maintain bone mass?

A

testosterone and estradiol

218
Q

PTH acts to reabsorb Ca here and P here:

A

Distal tubule, poximal tubule (with Na)

219
Q

Body locations on which PTH acts:

A

Kidney, bone, and intestines

220
Q

Osteocytes around encapsulated ____.

A

osteoblasts

221
Q

True or False? PTH and Vitamin D have receptors on the same cells types.

A

T

222
Q

Aromatase is involved in the conversion of:

A

androgens to estrogens

223
Q

True or False? PTH and Vitamin D have receptors on the same cells types.

A

T

224
Q

All amino acid derived hormones are derived from:

A

tyrosine

225
Q

Primary source of calcitonin:

A

thyroid

226
Q

Primary source of melatonin:

A

pineal gland

227
Q

Primary source of melatonin:

A

pineal gland

228
Q

A hormone that controls the secretion of another hormone:

A

trophic hormone

229
Q

Primary pathologies arise in the _____ endocrine gland in a reflex.

A

last

230
Q

What is a secondary pathology?

A

a problem with one of the tissues producing trophic hormones

231
Q

What type of hormone triggers an increase in the activity of G proteins in the membrane?

A

peptide hormones

232
Q

What happens to a hormone after it exerts its effects?

A

inactivated or remove from blood

233
Q

Difference between hormones and cytokines:

A

hormones are made in advance and stored

234
Q

In a simple endocrine reflex, the endocrine cell is the:

A

sensor and the integrating center

235
Q

Which produce a faster response, hormones acting through signal transduction pathways or those that produce genomic effects?

A

signal transduction pathways

236
Q

2 ways hormones affect their target:

A

2nd messenger systems activated by peptide hormones modify existing proteins or activate gene transcription to make new proteins. Steroid hormones activate gene transcription to make new proteins and some steroid have nongenomic responses

237
Q

Example of synergistic hormones:

A

epinephrine potentiates the effects folicular glucagon in elevating blood glucose levels

238
Q

Example of permissive effect involving reproductive hormones:

A

reproductive hormones, along with adequate thyroid hormone have a permissive effect on the reproductive system birth control both are required for normal development

239
Q

Example of antagonistic hormones:

A

glucagon and insulin

240
Q

Benefit to portal system:

A

ensures direct delivery of hormone to target cell, hormone not diluted by passing through generation circulation, smaller amounts necessary

241
Q

True or False? The hypophyseal portal system is the only endocrine portal systems.

A

T

242
Q

The hormones from the posterior pituitary gland are secreted as:

A

neurohormones

Physiology (55 decks)

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