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Med School Yr 2 > Progress test slay > Flashcards

Progress test slay Flashcards

1
Q

what is the firstline drug for strokes and AF?

A

wafarin or factor Xa inhibitor

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2
Q

what firstline drug used for psychosis is contraindicated in pts with PD?

A

antipsychotics - lorazepam instead

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3
Q

what CK levels indicate rhambdomyolysis?

A

above 10000

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4
Q

what bacterium is responsible for 20-25% of prosthetic joint infections?

A

staphlococcus

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5
Q

what is the initial management plan for a pt with endocarditis?

A

TOE and blood culture to confirm

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6
Q

what is an adenoma?

A

benign tumour of epithelial tissue (tissues or glands)

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7
Q

what is a carcinoma

A

most common type of cancer that forms in epithelial tissue

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8
Q

what is a harmatoma

A

local malformation of abnormal tissues and cells - benign

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9
Q

what is sarcoidosis

A

a chronic disease of unknown cause characterized by the enlargement of lymph nodes in many parts of the body and the widespread appearance of granulomas derived from the reticuloendothelial system.

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10
Q

what is the firstline drug treatment for females with overactive bladders and urge incontinence?

A

anticholinergics - oxybutiynin

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11
Q

what are the 3 signs of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • hypercalcaemia, elevated PTH, hypercalciuria
  • more common in older female pts
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12
Q

what test is used to test for coeliac disease?

A

anti-tissue transglutiminase

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13
Q

what is the difference between duodenal and gastric ulcers?

A

duodenal - worse at night, relieved by eating, pts gain weight, radiates to back

gastric - worse with eating, pts lose weight

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14
Q

what is the difference between inflammatory and mechanical back pain?

A

inflammatory - improved with activity
mechanical - worsened with activity

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15
Q

what is the firstline treatment for gout?

A

oral steroids or NSAIDS (contracindicated in stage 4 kidney failure)

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16
Q

what medication can be prescribed for terminal restlessness?

A

midalozam

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17
Q

early alzheimers results in changes in which lobe?

A

temporal

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18
Q

what should be prescribed for a tricyclic antidepressant overdose in pts with a prolonged QRS interval?

A

IV sodium bicarbonate

19
Q

what are the 4 main signs of delirium tremens?

A
  • confusion
  • visual hallucinations
  • tachycardia
  • pyrexia

common in alcohol withdrawal pts

20
Q

what are the 3 main symptoms of wernicke’s encephaly

A
  • nystagmus, ataxia, confusion
  • can result in korsakoff’s psychosis if untreated
21
Q

autosomal dominent poly kidney disease in associated with an increased risk of what?

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage - lumbar puncture is next step.

22
Q

what is the only recommended treatment for asystole?

A

epinephrine

23
Q

what is the management of an unprovoked DVT?

A

offer CT of abdomen and pelvis to help identify possible malignancies

24
Q

all pts with mechanical valve replacements require what?

A

treatment with warfarin and aspirin

25
Q

what is the firstline treatment for micro and macroprolactinomas?

A

cabergoline - dopamine antagonist

26
Q

in what situations are i-Gel airway devices preferred over tracheal tubes?

A

cardiac arrests - easier to place

27
Q

what airway device is the only one to seal off the trachea and protect against aspiration?

A

tracheal tube

28
Q

what are the standard national guidelines for elective pts with no issues of gastric emptying?

A

2hrs no clear liquids
6hrs for solids

29
Q

what is the test that has the highest specificity for RA?

A

anti cyclic citrillinated peptide antibody test

30
Q

what is Rinne’s positive?

30
Q

what is Rinne’s negative?

31
Q

the weber’s test shows conductive hearing lost - what does this mean?

A

sound is heard best in bad ear

32
Q

the webers test shows sensorineural hearing loss - what does this mean?

A

sound is heard best in good ear

33
Q

what is the recommended maintenance fluid for someone with an underlying cardiac disease?

A

20-25mL/kg

34
Q

what is the first line initial treatment for sinus tachycardia?

35
Q

what is naproxen?

36
Q

what are used for the immediate management of gout?

37
Q

what is the most common pathogen in leg cellulitis including in pts with diabetes?

A

streptococcus

38
Q

what are the 1st line treatments for superficial thrombophlebitis?

39
Q

what nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion?

A

common peroneal

40
Q

what are the symptoms of acute glaucoma?

A

sudden pain
redness in eye
headache and nausea

41
Q

recurrent episodes of candidiasis indicates the need to test for what?

A

diabetes mellitus

42
Q

what is used to reverse warfarin in emergencies?

A

prothrombin complex concentrate - quicker to administer than FFP

Med School Yr 2 (96 decks)

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