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* * * 1. NCE: MEDT, ANPH, PATH 1&2 > Pediatrics > Flashcards

Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Systemic disease with superficial cutaneous lesions

A

chickenpox

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2
Q

Chickenpox is also known as ____

A

varicella zoster

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3
Q

Chickenpox begin as red ___ that progress to ___ and then finally become ___ that form crusts

A

macules; papules; vesicles

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4
Q

T or F. Chickenpox can be seen all over the body and sometimes internally

A

T

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5
Q

3 chickenpox symptoms

A
  1. fever2. malaise3. anorexia
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6
Q

Causative organism of chickenpox

A

varicella-zoster virus (VZV) or herpes virus 3

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7
Q

Chickenpox is transmitted by direct or indirect ____

A

droplet nuclei

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8
Q

4 complications of chickenpox

A
  1. secondary bacterial infection2. viral pneumonia3. conjunctival ulcers4. Reye’s Syndrome
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9
Q

Chickenpox is treated palliatively to alleviate ____

A

pruritus

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10
Q

3 treatment options for chickenpox

A
  1. cool bicarbonate soda baths 2. followed by a cornstarch dusting3. calamine lotion
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11
Q

Acute communicable disease causing necrosis of the mucous membrane in the respiratory tract

A

diphtheria

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12
Q

Causative bacteria of diphtheria

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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13
Q
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae enters the ___ and is transmitted by ___ droplets
A

nasopharynx; airbone respiratory droplets

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14
Q

As the bacteria invade the nasopharynx, they multiply and produce a ___ that travels in the blood throughout the body

A

exotoxin

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15
Q

Diphtheria cause grayish patches of thick mucuous membrane to appear along the respiratory tract known as ___

A

pseudomembrane

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16
Q

Pseudomembrane can interfere with the ___, impairing swallowing and speech

A

airway

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17
Q

Main symptom of diphtheria is ___ adhering to the throat

A

membrane

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18
Q

Diphtheria ___ is given as soon as possible

A

antitoxin

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19
Q

In diphtheria, ___ and ___ is indicated to kill the organism

A

penicillin and erythromycin

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20
Q

Acute communicable viral disease causing inflammation and swelling of one or both parotid glands

A

mumps

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21
Q

Mumps are also called ___

A

epidemic parotitis

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22
Q

In mumps, airborne virus is spread by ___ from the ___

A

droplet nuclei; respiratory tract

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23
Q

3 secondary complications of mumps

A
  1. orchitis (may lead to sterility)2. meningitis3. encephalitis
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24
Q

Males with mumps may have ___ tenderness and swelling and may need ___ supprot

A

testicular; scrotal

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25
Q

Over the counter drug to treat mumps

A

acetaminophen

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26
Q

Highly contagious bacterial infection of the respiratory tract

A

pertussis

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27
Q

Pertussis is also known as ___

A

whooping cough

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28
Q
  • 3 stages of pertussis
A
  1. catarrhal 2. paroxysmal3. convalescent
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29
Q

Pertussis stage: highly contagious stage; seems like a cold

A

catarrhal

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30
Q

Pertussis stage: cough becomes violent

A

paroxysmal

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31
Q

In the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, the cough ends in a high pitched ____ followed by a vomiting of thick ____

A

inspiratory whoop; mucus

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32
Q

Pertussis stage: cough gradually diminishes

A

convalescent period

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33
Q

This pertussis bacillus reproduces in the respiratory tract

A

Bordetella pertussis

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34
Q

Bordetella pertussis bacteria releases toxin that leads to ___ of the mucosa with a thick ___

A

necrosis; exudate

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35
Q

Pertussis is transmitted by ___ via direct or interrect contact with ___ secretions of the patient

A

droplet nuclei; nasopharyngeal

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36
Q

Antibiotic to treat pertussis

A

erythromycin

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37
Q

3 complications of severe pertussis

A
  1. bronchopneumonia2. convulsions3. hemorrhages
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38
Q

Acute highly contagious viral disease in children who have not been vaccinated

A

measles

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39
Q

Measles is also known as ___

A

rubella

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40
Q

The causative agent of measles is the measles virus, specifically a ____ of the genus ____

A

paramyxovirus; Morbillivirus

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41
Q

Measles is caused by ___ spread by ___ contact with secretions from nose or throat

A

airbone; direct

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42
Q

4 possible complications of measles

A
  1. pneumonia2. otitis media3. conjunctivitis4. encephalitis
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43
Q

Uncomplicated measles lasts __ to __ days

A

7-10

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44
Q

T or F. If secondary infection occurs with measles, antibiotics are used to treat it

A

T

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45
Q

Highly contagious viral disease that resembles measles clinically

A

rubella

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46
Q

Rubella is different from measles in that it has a ___ course and ___ complications

A

shorter course; fewer complications

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47
Q

Rubella is also known as ____ or ____

A

German measles; three day measles

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48
Q

In measles, the child has a ___-colored slightly elevated rash appearing first on the face and head and progresses downward on the body

A

rose-

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49
Q

3 complications of rubella

A
  1. transient arthritis2. myocarditis3. hemorrhagic manifestations
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50
Q

Rubella is of great danger to ___ children of ___ women who have the disease

A

unborn; pregnant

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51
Q

The rubella virus is spread by ___ contact with nasal/oral secretions and can be prevented by ____

A

direct; immunizations

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52
Q

Acute potentially deadly, systemic infection characterized by painful involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles

A

tetanus

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53
Q

Two main symptoms of tetanus

A
  1. lockjaw2. fever > 101 degrees Fahrenheit
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54
Q
  • Tetanus is caused by ___ that enters the skin by a puncture
A

Bacillus clostridium tetani

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55
Q

Bacillus clostridium tetani is found in ____ and ____

A

contaminated soil; animal excreta

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56
Q

Medical management of tetanus is chiefly supported with ___ and ___ to relieve spasms and seizures

A

sedatives; muscle relaxants

57
Q

Unimmunized patients can be given ____ (TIG) within 72 hours of injury for temporary immunity

A

tetanus immune globulin (TIG)

58
Q

There is a tetanus booster every __ years

59
Q

The mortality rate for tetanus is __%

60
Q

Sudden and unpredicted death of an infant

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)

61
Q

SIDS occurs in infants under the age of __ year

62
Q

Causative theories/risk factors for SIDS include young mothers, exposure to ___, sleeping in the ___, prematurity and sleep apnea

A

smoking; prone position

63
Q

T or F. SIDS is not predictable or preventable

64
Q

Acute severe inflammation and obstruction of the respiratory tract

65
Q

Croup is usually preceded by an ____

A

upper respiratory tract infection (URTI)

66
Q

Symptoms of croup include hoarseness, fever, harsh high pitched cough, ___ during inspiration, ___ with grunting noise and wheezing

A

stridor; dyspnea

67
Q

Croup is a viral disease involving the ___, ___ and ___

A

larynx; trachea; bronchi

68
Q

Clinical manifestion of croup is caused by ___ and ___ of vocal cords, creating varying degrees of obstruction

A

edema; spasm

69
Q

Croup is treated with ___ agents, cool ___ of air and ___ therapy

A

antipyretic; humidification; bacterial antibiotic

70
Q

Severe cases of croup can cause hospitalization for ___ and ___ therapy

A

endotracheal intubation; oxygen therapy

71
Q

In croup, x-ray of the airway may show a characteristic ____ sign

72
Q

Inflammation of the epiglottis in children 3-7 years old

A

epiglottitis

73
Q

Main symptoms of epiglottitis include respiratory distress caused by ____ obstruction, rapid ___ and drooling

A

laryngeal; dyspnea

74
Q

Common cause of epiglottitis is ____ bacteria

A

haemophilus influenza type B (Hib) bacteria

75
Q

Epiglottitis caused by heat damage from ingesting very hot liquids or food

A

thermal epiglottitis

76
Q

Airway is established in epiglottitis by ___ or ____

A

tracheostomy; endotracheal intubation

77
Q

Antibiotics given parenterally in epiglottitis

A

ampicillin

78
Q

Inflammation of the tonsils; sudden onsent

A

acute tonsillitis

79
Q

Type of streptococci causing tonsillitis

A

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci

80
Q

Chronic tonsillitis may require this surgery

A

tonsillectomy

81
Q

Adenoid hyperplasia is an abnormal enlargement of the ____ tissue located above the ____ of the mouth causing a partial breathing blockage

A

lymphoid; soft palate

82
Q

Children most at risk for adenoid hyperplasia have these two characteristics

A
  1. mouth breathing2. snoring
83
Q

Conditions that may necessitate an adenoidectomy include obstruction, recurrent ___, ___ hearing loss and obstructive ___

A

otitis media; conductive hearing loss; obstructive sleep apnea

84
Q

Chronic irreversible obstructive disease caused by increased reactivity of the tracheobronchial tree to various stimuli

85
Q

2 major processes of asthma

A
  1. constriction of bronchioles2. inflammation of airway
86
Q

T or F. Heredity is a strong factor associated with astma

87
Q

Asthma is the result of hypersensitive ____ tubes

A

bronchial tubes

88
Q

3 triggers for asthma

A
  1. allergic or extrinsic2. non-allergic or intrinsic3. pollutants
89
Q

Treated with cromolyn sodium, albuterol, theophylline or aerosol corticosteroids

90
Q

Inflammation of the bronchioles; common disease in infancy

A

bronchiolitis

91
Q

Bronchiolitis is usually caused by viruses like the common parainfluenza and adenovirus, but mostly the ___ virus

A

respiratory syncytial virus

92
Q

Rule out ___ before diagnosing bronchiolitis

93
Q

Treated with albuterol, racemic, epinephrine, or hypertonic saline via nebulizer

A

bronchiolitis

94
Q

Worst cases of bronchiolitis need to be intubated and mechanically ____ until infection goes away

A

ventilated

95
Q

Intermittent distress in the newborn or during early infancy of unclear etiology

A

infantile colic

96
Q

Theories for causes of infantile colic include improper ___ techniques, over-eating, and ____ excessive

A

feeding techniques; swallowing

97
Q

Causative factor to infantile colic is sensitivity to ____

A

cow’s milk

98
Q

Probiotics or simethicone can provide relief

A

infantile colic

99
Q

Infants usually outgrow infantile colic at about __ months

100
Q

Roundworms, pinworms, hookworms and tapeworms that are in the GI tract

A

Helminth (worm) infestation

101
Q

Most common cause of helminth infestation; transmitted directly or indirectly from human to human

A

E. vermicularis or pinworm

102
Q

Treatment given to patients and entire family

A

complete course of anthelmintic agents

103
Q

Treatment options for helminth infestation include frequent showering, frequen handwashing, and laundering clothing/linens in hot water with ____

104
Q

Abnormal reduction in the concentration of RBC or in the hemoglobin content of circulating blood cells

105
Q

The most common cause of anemia in children

A

iron deficiency

106
Q

Other causes of anemia include chronic blood loss, decreased ___ formation, ___ deficiency disorder, hemolytic disease, inhibition or loss of ___, sickle cell disease

A

decreased blood formation, nutritional deficiency disorder, loss of bone marrow

107
Q

Type of anemia treated with iron-rich foods and oral preparations of ferrous sulfate

A

iron deficiency anemia

108
Q

When blood loss is the cause of the anemia, blood volume is restored by ____

A

transfusion

109
Q

Replacement therapy is used for anemia with ____

A

deficiency states

110
Q

___ are treated when anemia is caused by excessive blood cell destruction

A

specific hemolytic blood disorders

111
Q

Cancer of blood forming tissues; most common childhood malignancy

112
Q
  • 2 types of leukmia
A
  1. acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL)2. acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
113
Q

What percentage of leukemia cases is ALL?

114
Q

Leukemia is caused by an abnormal increase in the number of ____ or ____

A

immature WBC; undifferentiated blastocytes

115
Q

Predisposing factors for leukemia include congenital disorders like ___ and ___

A

Down Syndrome; radiation exposure

116
Q

Peak age for leukemia is __ to __ years old

117
Q

____ eradicated leukemic cells

A

systemic chemotherapy

118
Q

Chemotherapy is administered _____ to treat leukemia or as prophylaxis against ____ invasion

A

intrathecally; central nervous system invasion

119
Q

Possible treatment with poor prognosis or relapsed ALL or children with AML

A

bone marrow transplant

120
Q

___ carries a poorer prognosis than ___ when treated wsolely with chemotherapy

121
Q

Incompatibility of fetal and maternal blood resulting in excessive rates of RBC destruction

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

122
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is also called ___

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn

123
Q

Cause of erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Rh factor incompatibility

124
Q

Rh is the ___ in RBC of the Rh ___ individual

A

antigen; positive

125
Q

Mother has become sensitized to the Rh factor through ____

A

prior pregnancy

126
Q

Treatment for erythroblastosis fetalis when fetus shows signs of distress

A

intrauterine transfusions

127
Q

When necessary, delivery of infant with erythroblastosis fetalis is planned __ to __ weeks before term

A

2 to 4 weeks

128
Q

Environmentally caused blood toxicity resulting from ingestion or inspiration of lead dust or particles

A

lead poisoning

129
Q

T or F. Any lead in the blood is abnormal

130
Q

Treatment of lead poisoning include eliminating source, ___ removal of lead in blood, ___ to help control nausea and vomiting

A

chelating; antiemetic

131
Q

Combination of brain disease and fatty invasion of the inner organs especially the liver

A

Reye’s syndrome

132
Q

Reye’s syndrome typically follows infection with ___ or ___ viruses or chickenpox

A

influenza A or B viruses

133
Q

Reye’s syndrome is also linked to the use of ___ during infections

134
Q

Early recognition and treatment of Reye’s syndrome cuts mortality rate from __% to __%

A

90% to 20%

135
Q

Successful management of Reye’s syndrome include controlling cerebral ____, monitoring blood ____, managing ___, and providing mechanical ____ if needed

A

edema; chemistries; seizures; ventilation

136
Q

Describes the birth defects and other associated problems in infants born to alcoholic mothers who consume alcohol during the gestational period

A

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

137
Q

FAS occurs when alcohol enters the ____ as a result of chronic, excessive use of alcohol during gestation

A

fetal blood

138
Q

Much of treatment of FAS is supportive because ____ cannot be reversed

A

neurologic damage

139
Q

____ needs of mother and infant must be addressed in FAS

A

psychological

* * * 1. NCE: MEDT, ANPH, PATH 1&2 (28 decks)

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