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* * * 1. NCE: MEDT, ANPH, PATH 1&2 > GI | The Digestive System > Flashcards

GI | The Digestive System Flashcards

1
Q

append/o, appendic/p

A

appendix

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2
Q

faci/o

A

face

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3
Q

glycongen/o

A

glycogen

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4
Q

mandibul/o

A

mandible; lower jaw

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5
Q

herni/o

A

hernia

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6
Q

prote/o

A

protein

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7
Q

chlorhydr/o

A

hydrochloric acid

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8
Q

cheil/o

A

lip

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9
Q

-chezia

A

defecation; elimination of wastes

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10
Q

-emesis

A

vomiting

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11
Q

-iasis

A

abnormal condition

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12
Q

-orexia

A

appetite

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13
Q

-prandial

A

meal

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14
Q

-pepsia

A

digestion

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15
Q

-phagia

A

swallowing; eating

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16
Q

-ptysis

A

spitting

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17
Q

-tresia

A

opening

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18
Q

-phasia

A

speech

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19
Q

As an exocrine gland, the pancreas produces ___

A

enzymes

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20
Q

Enzymes that digest starch

A

amylase

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21
Q

Enzymes that digest fat

A

lipase

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22
Q

Enzymes that digest proteins

A

protease

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23
Q

As an endocrine gland, the pancreas secretes ___; hormone needed to help release sugar from the blood and acts as a carrier to bring glucose into cells of the body to be used for energy

A

insulin

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24
Q

Small building blocks of proteins (like links in a chain), released when proteins are digested

A

amino acids

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25
Q

Carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the duodenum also called the choledochus

A

common bile duct

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26
Q

Substances produced when fats are digested

A

fatty acids

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27
Q

Substance produced by the stomach; necessary for digestion of food

A

hydrochloric acid

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28
Q

Pancreatic enzyme necessary to digest fats

A

lipase

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29
Q

Lower esophageal sphincter is also called the ___

A

cardiac sphincter

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30
Q

an/o

A

anus

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31
Q

append/o, appendic/o

A

appendix

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32
Q

bucc/o

A

cheek

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33
Q

cec/o

A

cecum

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34
Q

celi/o

A

belly, abdomen

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35
Q

cheil/o

A

lip

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36
Q

cholecyst/o

A

gallbladder

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37
Q

choledoch/o

A

common bile duct

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38
Q

col/o, colon/o

A

colon

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39
Q

dent/i

A

tooth

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40
Q

duoden/o

A

duodenum

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41
Q

enter/o

A

intestines, usually small intestine

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42
Q

Any surgical connection between two parts, such as vessels, ducts or bowel segments

A

anastomosis

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43
Q

Part of the double fold of peritoneum that stretches around the organ in the abdomen holding organs in place

A

mesentery

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44
Q

esophag/o

A

esophagus

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45
Q

faci/o

A

face

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46
Q

gastr/o

A

stomach

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47
Q

gingiv/o

A

gums

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48
Q

gloss/o

A

tongue

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49
Q

hepat/o

A

liver

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50
Q

ile/o

A

ileum

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51
Q

jejun/o

A

jejunum

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52
Q

labi/o

A

lip

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53
Q

lapar/o

A

abdomen

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54
Q

lingu/o

A

tongue

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55
Q

mandibul/o

A

lower jaw, mandible

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56
Q

odont/o

A

tooth

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57
Q

ileum vs ilium

A

ileum: third part of the small intestineilium: uppermost and largest part of the pelvis

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58
Q

or/o

A

mouth

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59
Q

palat/o

A

palate

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60
Q

pancreat/o

A

pancreas

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61
Q

peritone/o

A

peritoneum

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62
Q

pharyng/o

A

throat

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63
Q

proct/o

A

anus and rectum

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64
Q

pylor/o

A

pyloric sphincter

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65
Q

rect/o

A

rectum

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66
Q

sialaden/o

A

salivary gland

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67
Q

sigmoid/o

A

sigmoid colon

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68
Q

stomat/o

A

mouth

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69
Q

uvul/o

A

uvula

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70
Q

amyl/o

A

starch

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71
Q

bil/i

A

gall, bile

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72
Q

bilirubin/o

A

bilirubin (bile pigment)

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73
Q

chol/e

A

gall, bile

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74
Q

chlorhydr/o

A

hydrochloric acid

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75
Q

gluc/o

A

sugar

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76
Q

glyc/o

A

sugar

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77
Q

glycogen/o

A

glycogen, animal starch

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78
Q

lip/o

A

fat, lipid

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79
Q

lith/o

A

stone

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80
Q

prote/o

A

protein

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81
Q

py/o

A

pus

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82
Q

sial/o

A

saliva, salivary

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83
Q

steat/o

A

fat

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84
Q

-ase

A

enzyme

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85
Q

-chezia

A

defecation, elimination of wastes

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86
Q

-iasis

A

abnormal condition

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87
Q

-prandial

A

meal

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88
Q

What is the function of the digestive system?

A

prepare food for intake by body cells

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89
Q

During digestion, nutrients must be broken down by ___ and ___ means into molecules that are small enough to be absorbed into the circulation.

A

mechanical and chemical

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90
Q

Within cells, the nutrients are used for what two purposes?

A
  1. energy2. rebuilding vital cell components
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91
Q

Where does digestion take place?

A

the digestive tract, also called alimentary canal or GI tract

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92
Q

Also contributing to the digestive process are several accessory organs that release _____ into the small intestine.

A

secretions

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93
Q

Food is moved through the digestive tract by _____,wavelike contractions of the organ walls.

A

peristalsis

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94
Q

T or F. Peristalsis also moves undigested waste material out ofthe body.

A

true

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95
Q

Digestion begins in the ____ where food is chewed into small bits by the teeth.

A

the mouth

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96
Q

In the process of chewing, the ____ and the ____ help to break up the food and mix it with saliva.

A

the tongue and the palate (roof of mouth)

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97
Q

Secretion that moistens the food and begins the digestion of starch.

A

saliva

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98
Q

T or F. The moistened food is then passed into the pharynx (throat) and through the esophagus into the stomach.

A

true.

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99
Q

Food is further broken down by churning of the stomach as it is mixed with the enzyme ____ and with the acid ____.

A

pepsin, hydrochloric acid (HCl)

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100
Q

What do pepsin and HCl break down?

A

proteins

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101
Q

The partially digested food passes through this lower portion of the stomach

A

pylorus

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102
Q

The first part of the small intestine

A

the duodenum

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103
Q

The remaining sections of the small intestine and where digestion is completed.

A

the jejunum and ileum

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104
Q

The substances active in digestion in the small intestineinclude ____ from the intestine itself and secretions from the ____ of digestion.

A

enzymes, accessory organs

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105
Q

The digested nutrients, as well as water, minerals, and vitamins, are absorbed into the circulation, aided by small projections in the lining of the small intestine called ____

A

villi

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106
Q

List the accessory organs.

A
  1. liver2. gallbladder3. common bile duct4. pancreas5. diaphragm6. spleen
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107
Q

Large gland that processes blood brought to it by a special circulatory pathway called the_______.

A

liver, hepatic portal system

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108
Q

The liver’s role in digestion is the secretion of ___, which breaks down fats.

A

bile

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109
Q

Bile is stored inthe _____ until needed. The common hepatic duct from the liver and the cystic duct from the gallbladdermerge to form the common bile duct, which empties into the duodenum. The pancreas produces amixture of digestive enzymes that is delivered into the duodenum through the pancreatic duct.

A

gallbladder

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110
Q

The ____ from the liver and the ____ from the gallbladder merge to form the common bile duct

A

common hepatic duct and the cystic duct

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111
Q

The common bile duct empties into the _____.

A

duodenum

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112
Q

The pancreas produces amixture of ____ that is delivered into the duodenum through the _____.

A

digestive enzymes, pancreatic duct.

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113
Q

Undigested food, water, and digestive juices pass into the ______.

A

large intestine

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114
Q

The large intestines begin in the _____ of the abdomen with a small pouch, the ____, to which the appendix is attached.

A

lower right region, cecum

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115
Q

T or F. After the cecum, the large intestine continues as the colon, a name that is often used to mean the large intestinebecause the colon constitutes such a large portion of that organ.

A

True

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116
Q

The colon travels upward along the right side of the abdomen as the _______, crosses below the stomach as the ______, then continues down the left side of the abdomen as the ______.

A

ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

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117
Q

As food is pushed through the colon, water is reabsorbed and ____ is formed.

A

stool or feces

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118
Q

Waste material passes into the S-shaped _____

A

sigmoid colon

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119
Q

Waste is stored in the ___ until eliminated through the ___

A

rectum, anus

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120
Q

The duct that carries bile into the duodenum

A

common bile duct

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121
Q

The first portion of the small intestine

A

duodenum

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122
Q

A special pathway of the circulation that brings blood directly from the abdominalorgans to the liver for processing

A

hepatic portal system

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123
Q

The last portion of the small intestine

A

ileum

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124
Q

The middle portion of the small intestine

A

The middle portion of the small intestine

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125
Q

or/o

A

mouth

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126
Q

stoma, stomat/o

A

mouth

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127
Q

gnath/o

A

jaw

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128
Q

labi/o

A

lip

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129
Q

bucc/o

A

cheek

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130
Q

dent/o, dent/i, odont/o

A

tooth, teeth

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131
Q

gingiv/o

A

gum

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132
Q

lingu/o

A

tongue

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133
Q

gloss/o

A

tongue

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134
Q

sial/o

A

saliva, s gland, s duct

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135
Q

palat/o

A

palate

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136
Q

esophag/o

A

esophagus

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137
Q

gastr/o

A

stomach

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138
Q

pylor/o

A

pylorus

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139
Q

enter/o

A

intestine

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140
Q

duoden/o

A

duodenum

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141
Q

jejun/o

A

jejunum

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142
Q

ile/o

A

ileum

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143
Q

cec/o

A

cecum

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144
Q

col/o, colon/o

A

colon

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145
Q

sigmoid/o

A

sigmoid colon

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146
Q

rect/o

A

rectum

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147
Q

proct/o

A

rectum

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148
Q

an/o

A

anus

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149
Q

hepat/o

A

liver

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150
Q

bili

A

bile

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151
Q

chol/e, chol/o

A

bile, gall

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152
Q

cholecyst/o

A

gallbladder

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153
Q

cholangi/o

A

bile duct

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154
Q

choledoch/o

A

common bile duct

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155
Q

pancreat/o

A

pancreas

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156
Q

GERD

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease

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157
Q

IBS

A

inflammatory bowel syndrome

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158
Q

TPN

A

total parenteral nutrition

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159
Q

What are the five functions of the digestive system

A
  1. Ingestion2. Propulsion3. Digestion4. Absorption5. Defecation
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160
Q

the serous membrane lining the cavity of the abdomen and covering the abdominal organs.

A

peritoneum

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161
Q

treatment options for dental caries

A

fillings, root canals, tooth extraction

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162
Q

most common cause of gingivitis

A

plaque

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163
Q

cause of periodontitis

A

unchecked gingivitis

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164
Q

4 causes of malocclusion

A
  1. inheritance2. early loss of primary teeth3. thumb or finger sucking4. airway problems
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165
Q

4 causes of TMJ syndrome

A
  1. bruxism (grinding)2. malocclusion3. poorly fitting dentures4. arthritis
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166
Q

3 last resort surgical treatments options for TMJ syndrome

A
  1. TMJ arthroscopy2. joint restructuring3. joint replacement
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167
Q

definitive treatment for tooth abscess

A

root canal following antibiotic therapy

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168
Q

2 types of mouth ulcers

A
  1. aphthous2. traumatic
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169
Q

mouth ulcers; source not established

A

aphthous ulcers

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170
Q

mouth ulcers; usually caused by mechanical trauma, viral and bacterial infection, stress, illness

A

traumatic ulcers

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171
Q

virus typically the cause of cold sores

A

herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) though there can be cross- contamination from HSV-2

172
Q

organism that causes thrush

A

candida: most commonly Candida albicans

173
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease most often seen today in association with this disease

A

HIV/AIDS: anaerobic opportunistic bacteria

174
Q

another term for necrotizing periodontal disease

A

Vincent’s angina

175
Q

oral leukoplakia causes ____

A

hyperkeratosis

176
Q

what normally causes oral leukoplakia

A

chronic irritation

177
Q

mild cases of GERD is described as ____

A

heartburn

178
Q

4 treatment options for GERD

A
  1. elevate the head of the bed2. light evening meal 4 hours before bedtime3. antacids4. drugs
179
Q

surgical treatment for GERD; used conservatively

A

anti-reflux surgery

180
Q

patients have this underlying condition in esophageal varices

A

portal hypertension

181
Q

2/3 of patients with esophageal varices have this condition

A

cirrhosis of the liver

182
Q

2 treatment options for esophageal varices

A
  1. sclerotherapy and/or ligation if bleeding2. emergency portal decompression
183
Q

most common cause of esophagitis

A

reflux

184
Q

replacement of normal stratified squamous epithelium of the distal esophagus with abnormal columnar epithelium

A

Barrett’s esophagus

185
Q

__% patients with chronic GERD develop Barrett’s esophagus and have a ___x higher risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus and proximal stomach

A

15%; 30x

186
Q

most common type of peptic ulcer

A

duodenal ulcers

187
Q

most common cause of peptic ulcers

A

helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria

188
Q

second most common cause of peptic ulcers

A

NSAID use

189
Q

surgical treatment for peptic ulcers is required when in cases of ____ and ____

A

perforation and hemorrhage

190
Q

which form of gastritis is more common

A

acute form

191
Q

main cause of gastritis

A

H. pylori

192
Q

significant diagnostic indicator of acute appendicitis

A

maximal tenderness at McBurney’s point

193
Q

in appendicitis, what can rebound tenderness on examination indicate

A

peritoneal irritation

194
Q

defect in the diaphragm permitting a segment of the stomach to slide into the thoracic cavity

A

hiatal hernia

195
Q

2 causes of hiatal hernia

A
  1. congenital defect in the diaphragm2. weakness in the diaphragm due to obesity, old age, trauma, or intraabdominal pressure
196
Q

6 types of hernia

A
  1. hiatal2. abdominal3. femoral4. umbilical5. inguinal6. incisional
197
Q

what can result from a trapped or strangulated (incarcerated) hernia

A

gangrene

198
Q

types of hernias are based on ____

A

location

199
Q

surgical treatment option for hernias in an otherwise healthy child or adult

A

herniorrhaphy

200
Q

crohn’s disease can cause these 4 things on the intestines

A
  1. deep ulcerations2. bowel obstruction3. adhesions4. abscesses
201
Q

x-rays can reveal ____ as a diagnostic indicator for crohns

A

skip lesions

202
Q

chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the mucosa and submucosa of the rectum and colon

A

ulcerative colitis

203
Q

treatment for severe cases of ulcerative colitis

A
  1. proctocolectomy with either ileostomy or ileoanal anastamosis
204
Q

4 causes of gastroenteritis

A
  1. traveler’s diarrhea2. intestinal influenza3. food or chemical poisoning4. allergic reactions to food and drug
205
Q

ingestion of disease-causing bacteria or parasites from contaminated food or water

A

traveler’s diarrhea

206
Q

causes of intestinal obstruction

A

mechanical obstructions

207
Q

t or f. mechanical intestinal obstructions may require surgical removal of the lesion or blockage

A

t

208
Q

another term for diverticulosis

A

diverticular disease

209
Q

term for the defects in the muscular wall of the large bowel that result from diverticulosis

A

outpouches

210
Q

part of the large intestine where diverticulosis is most common

A

sigmoid colon

211
Q

cause of diverticulosis

A

diet inadequate in roughage

212
Q

cause of diverticulitis

A

trapped fecal matter in the out pouches associated with diverticular disease

213
Q

when is surgical removal of the diseased portion performed for diverticulitis

A

Perforation and/or hemorrhage

214
Q

pseudomembraneous enterocolitis causative bacteria:

A

Clostridium difficile: C diff.

215
Q

cause of pseudomembranous enterocolitis

A

broad-spectrum antibiotics

216
Q

2 other treatments for pseudomembraneous enterocolitis

A
  1. discontinue the antibiotic2. isolation
217
Q

virulent strain has been associated with hospital outbreaks of pseudomembraneous enterocilitis

A

BI/NAPI

218
Q

short bowel syndrome occurs when a length of intact or functioning bowel is altered by ___ or ___

A

disease or surgery

219
Q

4 main symptoms of IBS

A
  1. chronic abdominal pain2. discomfort3. bloating4. erratic dysfunction of bowel habits
220
Q

is there a cure for IBS?

A

no

221
Q

Is peritonitis acute or chronic?

A

can be both

222
Q

Is peritonitis local or generalized?

A

can be both

223
Q

cause of primary peritonitis

A

Blood-borne organisms originating in the GI or genital tract

224
Q

cause of secondary peritonitis

A

perforation in the GI tract or intra-abdominal organs

225
Q

Internal hemorrhoids are with the ____ above the ___

A

rectum; junction of the skin and rectal mucosa

226
Q

external hemorrhoids are those lower in the ____ covered by skin

A

anal area

227
Q

5 surgical treatment for hemorrhoids

A
  1. band ligations2. cryosurgery3. photocoagulation4. electrocoagulation5. hemorrhoidectomy
228
Q

replacement of normal liver cells with hard, fibrous scar tissue

A

hobnail liver

229
Q

most common cause of liver cirrhosis

A

chronic alcoholism

230
Q

HAV is transmitted by ____ route from contaminated food, water and stools

A

fecal-oral route

231
Q

recommended before travel into areas where hep A is prevalent

A

vaccination

232
Q

HBV is considered chronic when the Hep B antigen is present in the blood for more than ___ months

A

6

233
Q

Primary method if transmission for HBV is through the _____ and ____ routes (blood and body fluid)

A

percutaneous and perimucosal routes

234
Q

HCV is transmitted through ___ and ____

A

blood; body fluids

235
Q

Patients can recover completely but most develop ___ hep C

A

chronic

236
Q

4 contributing factors to the formation of cholelithiasis

A
  1. aging2. high-calorie and high-cholesterol diet3. being female 4. ocp use
237
Q

3 treatment options for recurring cholelithiasis pain

A
  1. ERCP2. ESWL3. cholecystectomy
238
Q

usual cause of cholecystitis is obstruction of the biliary duct caused by ___

A

gallstones

239
Q

most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones

240
Q

this can result in severe cases of pancreatitis

A

multi-organ failure

241
Q

Kwashiorkor malnutrition is a deficiency of ___ in the presence of adequate ___

A

protein; energy

242
Q

In industrialized societies, Kwashiorkor is usually caused by these 3 factors

A
  1. trauma2. burns3. illness
243
Q

Marasmus malnutrition is a combined ___ and ___ deficiency

A

protein and energy

244
Q

In industrialized societies, Marasmus is usually caused by ____

A

chronic diseases like COPD, CHF, AIDS

245
Q

Main cause of malabsorption syndrome

A

defective mucosal cells in the small intestine

246
Q

3 characteristics of celiac disease

A
  1. malabsorption2. gluten intolerance3. damage to the lining of the intestine
247
Q

Treatment for food poisoning

A

symptom management

248
Q

2 precipitating factors in anorexia

A
  1. family factors2. social factors
249
Q

Condition that can arise in a bulimic patient that can cause sudden death

A

hypokalemia

250
Q

Motion sickness is caused by a disturbance in the ____

A

sense of balance

251
Q

infection resulting in erosion of the tooth surface

A

dental caries

252
Q

4 step process behind dental caries

A

cavity causing bacteria > acid plaque > demineralization > cavity

253
Q

dental caries is also caused by ____ from GERD or bulimia burging

A

stomach acid

254
Q

Inflammation and swelling of the gums

A

gingivitis

255
Q

2 demographics susceptible to gingivitis

A
  1. pregnant women2. diabetics
256
Q

untreated gingivitis leads to the destruction of the gums and bone disease, called ____

A

periodontitis

257
Q

destructive gum and bone disease around one or more of the teeth

A

periodontitis

258
Q

another term for periodontitis

A

periodontal disease

259
Q

3 treatment options for periodontitis

A
  1. SRP scaling2. root planing3. curettage
260
Q

this periodontal surgery may be required if pockets are deep and nonresponsive

A

respective periodontal surgery

261
Q

specific angles of malposition and contact of the maxillary and mandibular teeth

A

malocclusion

262
Q

4 treatment options for malocclusion

A
  1. braces2. tooth extraction3. surgical removal of portions of jaw4. combined crowns or bridges
263
Q

symptom complex related to inflammation, disease or dysfunction of the temporomandibular joint

A

temporomandibular joint syndrome (TMJ)

264
Q

TMJ is also treated with ____ injections of hydrocortisone

A

intraarticular

265
Q

Pus-filled sac that develops in the tissue surrounding the base of the root

A

tooth abscess

266
Q

3 causes of tooth abscess

A
  1. dead pulp w/ invading bacteria2. exposure of nerve due to decayed tooth3. exposure of nerve due to tooth structure loss
267
Q

a surgical procedure to treat tooth abscess if a lesion is long standing, large or doesn’t heal after a period of time

A

apicectomy

268
Q

lesion on the mucous membrane, exposing the underlying sensitive tissue

A

mouth ulcers

269
Q

informal term for mouth ulcers

A

canker sores

270
Q

mouth ulcers are usually caused by ____ trauma

A

mechanical trauma

271
Q

mouth ulcers may be the first sign of these 3 conditions

A
  1. tumor in mouth2. anemia3. leukemia
272
Q

contagious, recurrent viral infection affecting skin and mucous membranes

A

herpes simplex

273
Q

informal term for herpes simplex

A

cold sores

274
Q

rubbing eyes after touching ulcer could form ___, which can produce severe illness

A

herpetic corneal ulcers

275
Q

viral cause of herpes simplex

A

HSV-1 (herpes simplex type 1)

276
Q

herpes simplex tend to recur because the virus can be ___

A

dormant

277
Q

burning, tingling sensation with herpes simplex that occurs in the soon to be affected area

A

prodome

278
Q

t or f. there is no known cure for herpes simplex

A

t

279
Q

Candidiasis of the oral mucosa, involving the mouth, tongue, palate, and gums

A

thrush

280
Q

t or f. thrush rarely becomes systemic or infectious

A

t

281
Q

fungus that causes the most cases of thrush

A

Candida albicans

282
Q

common infection affecting the gums and the anchoring structure of the teeth

A

necrotizing periodontal disease

283
Q

another term for necrotizing periodontal disease

A

Vincent’s angina

284
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease is formerly called ____ or ___

A
  1. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis2. trench mouth
285
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease is caused by _____ bacteria

A

anaerobic opportunistic bacteria

286
Q

hyperkeratosis or epidermal thickening of the buccal mucosa, palate, or lower lip

A

oral leukoplakia

287
Q

oral leukoplakia is considered ____ until proven otherwise

A

precancerous

288
Q

Clinical manifestations of regurgitation of stomach and duodenal contents into the esophagus

A

GERD

289
Q

GERD is caused by relaxation of the ____ or an increase in ____

A

lower esophageal sphincter (LES); intra-abdominal pressure

290
Q

Dilated submucosal veins that develop in patients with underlying portal HTN; may result in serious upper GI bleeding

A

esophageal varices

291
Q

with rupture in esophageal varices, pt experiences these 3 conditions

A
  1. hematemesis2. melena3. hypovolemic shock
292
Q

esophageal varices are caused by increased pressure within the veins when the ____ to the liver is impeded

A

venous return

293
Q

common complication of esophageal varices

A

liver cirrhosis

294
Q

inflammation and tissue injury of the esophagus

A

esophagitis

295
Q

severe inflammation of the esophagus resulting from ingestion of a caustic chemical

A

corrosive esophagitis

296
Q

esophagitis can be a GI manifestation of an ____ infection

A

HIV

297
Q

treatment for esophageal perforation in esophageal varices

A

emergency endoscopic or surgical repair

298
Q

treatment for esophageal stricture in esophageal varices

A

dilation procedure

299
Q

protective mucous membrane of the stomach or upper intestinal tract breaks down, making the lining prone to ulceration

A

gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers

300
Q

internal surface lesions from gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers can be these 3 things

A
  1. acute or chronic2. clustered or singular3. shallow or deep
301
Q

inflammation of the lining of the stomach

A

gastritis

302
Q

bacterial cause of acute gastritis

A

H. pylori

303
Q

disease that causes of chronic gastritis

A

peptic ulcer disease

304
Q

chronic gastritis can also be caused by a history of chronic disease like ____

A

pernicious anemia

305
Q

inflammation of the appendix

A

acute appendicitis

306
Q

if appendicitis is untreated, necrosis and rupture can result in _____ which is life-threatening

A

peritonitis

307
Q

defect in the diaphragm permitting a segment of the stomach to slide into the thoracic cavity

A

hiatal hernia

308
Q

in hiatal hernia, the ____ malfunctions, allowing the contents of the stomach to regurgitate into the esophagus

A

lower esophageal sphincter muscle (LES)

309
Q

hiatal hernia can cause this condition

A

GERD

310
Q

to treat hiatal hernia, minimize activities that increase ____ such as straining or coughing

A

intra-abdominal pressure

311
Q

an organ protrudes through an abnormal opening in the abdominal wall

A

abdominal hernia

312
Q

abnormal hernia occurs when an _____ develops in a weak area

A

abnormal opening

313
Q

device worn for uncomplicated hernias

A

truss

314
Q

chronic, relapsing inflammatory disorder of the GI tract

A

Crohn’s disease

315
Q

Chron’s disease is also called _____

A

regional enteritis

316
Q

goals of treating Crohn’s involve treating the _____ and maintain remission

A

acute disease flareups

317
Q

chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the mucosa and submucosa of the rectum/colon

A

ulcerative colitis

318
Q

fulminant ulcerative colitis may cause severe complications including ____

A

perforation

319
Q

drug treatment for severe ulcerative colitis

A

anti-TNF (antibodies to tumor necrosis factor)

320
Q

acute inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines

A

gastroenteritis

321
Q

in gastroenteritis, ___ and ___ fail to rid the body of toxins or large numbers of disease-causing bacteria and viruses

A

normal bacteria flora and acid secretions

322
Q

avoid using ____ to treat traveler’s diarrhea as they may delay body’s elimination of organisms

A

anti-diarrheal agents

323
Q

mechanical or functional blockage of the intestines; occurs when contents of intestine can’t move forward because of a blockage of the bowel

A

intestinal obstruction

324
Q

treatment of mechanical intestinal obstruction may required these 3 procedures

A
  1. surgical removal of lesion/blockage2. resection of diseased bowel3. 2nd surgery to take down ostomy and rejoin the bowel
325
Q

treatment of nonmechanical or functional intestinal obstruction doesn’t usually involve surgery; ____ used in cases of fecal impaction

A
  1. manual disimpaction2. enemas
326
Q

progressive condition characterized by defects in the muscular wall of the large bowel

A

diverticulosis or diverticular disease

327
Q

in diverticulosis, these penetrate weak points in the muscular layer of large intestine

A

diverticula

328
Q

treatment of diverticulosis includes diet with adequate fluids and ___ to produce soft, formed stool

A

roughage

329
Q

infection of one or more diverticula; not nearly as common as diverticulosis

A

diverticulitis

330
Q

diverticulitis when one or more diverticula become ____

A

inflamed

331
Q

contributing factors to diverticulitis include lack of ____, inadequate fluid intake, constipation are contributing factors

A

dietary bulk

332
Q

acute inflammation with a plaque like adhesion of necrotic debris and mucus adhered to the damaged superficial mucosa of the small and large intestines

A

pseudomembranous enterocolitis

333
Q

small bowel fails to absorb nutrients because of inadequate absorptive surface; interferes with digestion and absorption of needed nutrients

A

short-bowel syndrome

334
Q

functional bowel disorder characterized by chronic abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and erratic dysfunction of bowel habits

A

irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

335
Q

IBS incidence increases after ___, which suggests immune or neuro-immune contribution

A

GI infection

336
Q

inflammation of the peritoneum; can be acute or chronic and local or generalized

A

peritonitis

337
Q

varicose dilations of a vein in the anal canal or the anorectal area

A

hemorrhoids

338
Q

in hemorrhoids, veins in the rectal and anal area become ____ as a result of blockage

A

varicose, swollen, tender

339
Q

irreversible chronic degenerative disease; slow deterioration of liver resulting in replacement of normal liver cells with hard, fibrous scar tissue

A

cirrhosis of the liver

340
Q

2 predisposing conditions to liver cirrhosis

A
  1. wilson’s disease2. hemochromatosis
341
Q

highly contagious and causes mild acute liver infection; only hep to cause spiking fevers

A

hep A (HAV)

342
Q

HAV is also called ____ hepatitis

A

infectious hepatiits

343
Q

2 usual results of HAV

A
  1. liver function fully recovered2. lifelong immunity to HAV
344
Q

in HAV, intramuscular administration of ____ is recommended within 2 weeks of exposure

A

globulin

345
Q

more insidious than HAV; aminotransferase levels are higher

A

hep B (HVB)

346
Q

many HBV infections are due to ___ or ___

A

sexual contact; blood exchange from contaminated needles

347
Q

most at risk for HBV due to accidental inoculation

A

healthcare providers

348
Q

drug given to exposed, nonimmune HBV patient

A

hep B immune globulin (HBIG)

349
Q

widesperead epidemic; most common blood-borne infection

A

hep C (HCV)

350
Q

exposure to hep C is traced to these 4 factors

A
  1. blood transfusions
351
Q

t or f. hep C is cureable

A

f. incureable

352
Q

common condition in which there is an abnormal presence of calculi or gallstones that form in the bile

A

cholelithiasis or gallstones

353
Q

cholelithiasis form due to insoluble ___ and ____

A

cholesterol; bile salts

354
Q

3 risk factors for cholelithiasis

A
  1. ileal disease2. alcoholic cirrhosis3. biliary tract infections
355
Q

___ gallstones are left alone

A

asymptomatic

356
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of the gallbladder, associated with obstruction of cystic duct

A

cholecystitis

357
Q

surgical treatment for cholecystitis

A

cholecystectomy

358
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of the pancreas with variable involvement of adjacent and remote organs

A

acute and chronic pancreatitis

359
Q

acute pancreatitis occurs when there is an escape of activated pancreatic enzymes from _____ into surrounding tissues

A

acinar cells

360
Q

disorder of malnutrition caused by primary deprivation of protein-energy (poverty/self-imposed starvation) or secondary to deficiency diseases (cancer/diabetes)

A

malnutrition

361
Q

2 distinct syndromes in protein-energy malnutrition

A
  1. kwashiorkor2. marasmus
362
Q

deficiency of protein in the presence of adequate energy

A

kwashiorkor

363
Q

extreme malnutrition and emaciation caused by combined protein and energy deficiency

A

marasmus

364
Q

group of disorders in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired; pts have impaired digestion and unable to absorb fat or other dietary componenents

A

malabsorption syndrome

365
Q

main cause of malabsorption syndrome is ____ cells in the small intestine

A

defective mucosal cells

366
Q

malabsorption is treated by targeting underlying cause and controlled with a high protein, high calorie diet with these vitamins

A

vitamins A, D, E and K

367
Q

toxic or immunologic reaction to a component of gluten; has multisystem effects that can produce serious health problems

A

celiac disease

368
Q

pts with celiac disease are more prone to develop these 2 conditions later in life

A
  1. abdominal lymphoma2. cancer
369
Q

2 other names for celiac disease

A
  1. gluten enteropathy2. celiac sprue
370
Q

resistant form of celiac diseases is called ____

A

refractory sprue

371
Q

treatment for celiac disease involves a lifelong ____ diet to allow the bowel to heal and reverse malabsorption

A

gluten-free

372
Q

family of drugs to treat refractory sprue

A

corticosteroid drugs

373
Q

illness resulting from eating food containing bacterial toxins and viral, chemical or toxic substances

A

food poisoning

374
Q

t or f. in severe cases, patient becomes disabled and becomes life-threatening

A

t

375
Q

true food poisoning includes poisoning from mushrooms, shellfish, and food contaminated with ____ substances

A

poisonous and toxic

376
Q

other causes of food poisoning include eating food that has undergone these 2 processes

A
  1. putrefaction2. decomposition
377
Q

eating disorder linked to a psychological disturbance in which hunger is denied by self-imposed starvation resulting from distorted body image; compulsion to be thin

A

anorexia nervosa

378
Q

behavioral disorder characterized by recurring episodes of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting or purging

A

bulimia

379
Q

personality traits that are characteristic in patients with bulimia

A

perfectionist trait

380
Q

anorexia is associated with these 2 mental illnesses

A
  1. depression2. anxiety
381
Q

bulimia is associated with these 2 mental illnesses

A
  1. depression2. compulsion
382
Q

loss of equilibrium experienced during motion; nausea and vomiting when riding transportation

A

motion sickness

383
Q

in motion sickness, fluid in the ____ of the ears become dislocated because of motion

A

semicircular canals

384
Q

treatment for motion sickness involves sitting in a vehicle in position that has the least amount of ___ and where the patient can see the ____

A

motion; horizon

385
Q

-ectasis, -ectasia

A

dilation, dilatation, widening

386
Q

-emesis

A

vomiting

387
Q

-pepsia

A

digestion

388
Q

-phagia

A

eating, swallowing

389
Q

-plasty

A

surgical repair

390
Q

dysphagia vs dysplasia vs dysphasia

A

difficulty in swallowing vs abnormal formation vs abnormal speech

391
Q

-ptysis

A

spitting

392
Q

-rrhage, -rrhagia

A

bursting forth of blood

393
Q

-rrhaphy

A

suture

394
Q

-rrhea

A

flow, discharge

395
Q

-spasm

A

involuntary contraction of muscles

396
Q

-stasis

A

stopping, controlling

397
Q

-stenosis

A

narrowing, tightening

398
Q

Stenosis is also called

A

stricture

399
Q

-tresia

A

opening

400
Q

bucc/o

A

cheek

401
Q

Tests for the presence of enzymes and bilirubin in blood

A

liver function tests (LFTs)

402
Q

Tests for the levels of amylase and lipase enzymes in the blood

A

amylase and lipase tests

403
Q

Test for microorganisms present in feces

A

stool culture

404
Q

Test to detect occult (hidden) blood in feces

A

stool guaiac test or Hemoccult test

405
Q

X-ray images of the colon and rectum obtained after injection of barium into the rectum

A

lower gastrointestinal series (barium enema)

406
Q

X-ray images of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine obtained after administering barium by mouth

A

upper GI series

407
Q

X-ray examination of the biliary system performed after injection of contrast into the bile ducts

A

cholangiography

408
Q

Surgery consisting of removal of the distal half of stomach, gallbladder, common bile duct, pancreas/duodenum, and reconstruction

A

whipple procedure for pancreatic cancer

409
Q

Telescoping of the intestines

A

intussusception

410
Q

Substance that x-rays cannot penetrate

A

contrast medium

411
Q

Series of X-ray images taken in multiple views (especially cross section) using a circular array of x-ray beams

A

computed tomography (CT)

412
Q

Sound waves beamed into the abdomen produce an image of abdominal viscera; also useful for examination of other fluid filled structures

A

abdominal ultrasonography

413
Q

Use of an endoscope combined with ultrasound to examine the organs of the GI tract

A

endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)

414
Q

Magnetic waves produce images of organs and tissues in all three planes of the body

A

MRI magnetic resonance imaging

415
Q

T or F. MRI does not use X-rays

A

T

416
Q

Detects subtle differences in tissue composition, water content, and blood vessel density which shows sites of trauma, infection or cancer

A

MRI

417
Q

Radioactive imaging procedure that tracks the production and flow of bile from the liver and gallbladder to the intestine

A

HIDA scan

418
Q

Expand HIDA

A

hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid

419
Q

Another name for HIDA

A

cholescintigraphy

420
Q

Reducing the size of the stomach and diverting food to the jejunum used for severe obesity

A

gastric bypass or bariatric surgery

421
Q

Visual examination of the GI tract using an endoscope; ex: colonoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, etc

A

gastrointestinal endoscopy

422
Q

Combines CT scanning and computer technology to examine the entire length of the colon by x-ray imaging in just minutes

A

virtual colonoscopy or CT colonography

423
Q

Visual (endoscopic) examination of the abdomen with a laparoscope inserted through small incisions in the abdomen

A

laparoscopy

424
Q

Removal of liver tissue for microscopic examination

A

liver biopsy

425
Q

Insertion of a tube through the nose into the stomach

A

nasogastric intubation

426
Q

Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen

A

paracentesis (abdominocentesis)

* * * 1. NCE: MEDT, ANPH, PATH 1&2 (28 decks)

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