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* * * 1. NCE: MEDT, ANPH, PATH 1&2 > Brain | Neurology > Flashcards

Brain | Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Functions: relay station “triage center” for sensory impulses; control of awareness and consciousness

A

thalamus

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2
Q

Functions: body temperature, sleep, appetite, emotions, control of the pituitary gland

A

hypothalamus

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3
Q

Functions: coordination of voluntary movements and balance

A

cerebellum

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4
Q

Functions: connection of nerves (to the eyes and face)

A

pons

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5
Q

Functions: nerve fibres cross over, left to right and right to left; contains centers to regulate heart, blood vessels, and respiratory system

A

medulla oblongota

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6
Q

Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells

A

acetylcholine

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7
Q

Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord (sensory nerve)

A

afferent nerve

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8
Q

Middle layer of the three membranes (meninges) that surround the brain and spinal cord

A

arachnoid membrane

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9
Q

Nerves that control involuntary body functions of muscles, glands, and internal organs

A

autonomic nervous system

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10
Q

Posterior portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord; includes the pons and medulla oblongata

A

brainstem

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11
Q

Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord

A

cauda equina

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12
Q

Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus

A

cell body

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13
Q

The brain and the spinal cord

A

central nervous system (CNS)

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14
Q

Posterior part of the brain that coordinates muscle movements and maintains balance

A

cerebellum

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15
Q

Outer region of the cerebrum, containing sheets of nerve cells; gray matter of the brain

A

cerebral cortex

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16
Q

Circulates throughout the brain and spinal cord

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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17
Q

Largest part of the brain; responsible for voluntary muscular activity, vision, speech, taste, hearing, thought and memory

A

cerebrum

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18
Q

12 pairs of nerves that carry messages to and from the brain with regard to the head and neck (except the vagus nerve)

A

cranial nerves

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19
Q

Microscopic branching fiber of a nerve cell that is the first part to receive the nervous impulse

A

dendrite

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20
Q

Thick, outermost layer of the meninges surrounding and protecting the brain and spinal cord

A

dura mater

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21
Q

Carries messages away from the brain and spinal cord; moter nerve

A

efferent nerve

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22
Q

Glial cell that lines membranes within the brain and spinal cord and helps form CSF

A

ependymal cell

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23
Q

Collection of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system

A

ganglion

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24
Q

Supportive and connective nerve cell that doesn’t carry nervous impulses. Ex: astrocytes, microglial cells, ependymal cells, and oligodendrocytes

A

glial cell (neuroglial cell)

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25
Q

T or F. Glial cells can reproduce themselves, as opposed to neurons

A

t

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26
Q

Sheet of nerve cells producing a rounded ridge on the surface of the cerebral cortex; convolution

A

gyrus

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27
Q

Portion of the brain beneath the thalamus; controls sleep, appetite, body temperature and secretions from the pituitary gland

A

hypothalamus

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28
Q

Part of the brain just above the spinal cord, controls breathing, heartbeat, and the size of blood vessels; nerve fibers cross over here

A

medulla oblongata

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29
Q

3 protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord

A

meninges

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30
Q

Phagocytic glial cell that removes waste products from the central nervous system

A

microglial cell

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31
Q

Carries messages away from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and organs; efferent nerve

A

motor nerve

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32
Q

Covering of white fatty tissue that surrounds and insulates the axon of a nerve cell; speeds impulse conduction along axons

A

myelin sheath

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33
Q

Macroscopic cord-like collection of fibers (axons and dendrites) that carry electrical impulses

A

nerve

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34
Q

Nerve cell that carries impulses throughout the body; parenchyma of the nervous system

A

neuron

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35
Q

Chemical messenger released at the end of a nerve cell; stimulates or inhibits another cell, which can be a nerve, muscle or gland cell

A

neurotransmitter

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36
Q

Examples: acetycholine, norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin

A

neurotransmitter

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37
Q

Glial cell that forms the myelin sheath covering axons

A

oligodendroglical cell; oligodendrocyte

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38
Q

Involuntary, autonomic nerves that regulate normal body functions such as heart rate, breathing, and muscles of the GI tract

A

parasympathetic nerves

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39
Q

Essential, distinguishing tissue of any organ or system.

A

parenchyma

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40
Q

The parenchyma of the nervous system includes the ___ and ___ that carry nervous impulses

A

neurons and nerves

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41
Q

Parenchymal cells of the liver

A

hepatocytes

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42
Q

Parenchymal tissue of the kidney

A

nephrons

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43
Q

Nerves outside the brain and spinal cord: cranial, spinal, and autonomic nerves

A

peripheral nervous system

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44
Q

Thin, delicate inner membrane of the meninges

A

pia mater

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45
Q

Large, interlacing network of nerves. ex: lumbosacral, cervical and brachial

A

plexus plural:plexuses

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46
Q

Part of the brain anterior to the cerebellum and between the medulla and the rest of the midbrain; bridge connecting various parts of the brain

A

pons

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47
Q

Organ that receives a nervous stimulus and passes it onto afferent nerves. ex: skin, ears, eyes and taste buds

A

receptor

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48
Q

Nerve extending from the base of the spine down the thigh, lower leg, and foot

A

sciatic nerve

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49
Q

Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from a receptor; afferent nerve

A

sensory nerve

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50
Q

31 pairs of nerves arising from the spinal cord

A

spinal nerves

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51
Q

Agent of change (light, sound, touch) in the internal or external environment that evokes a response

A

stimulus

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52
Q

Connective and supporting tissue of an organ (glial cells in the brain)

A

stroma

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53
Q

Depression or groove in the surface of the cerebral cortex; fissure

A

sulcus plural:sulci

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54
Q

Autonomic nerves that influence bodily functions involuntarily in times of stress

A

sympathetic nerves

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55
Q

Main relay center of the brain; conducts impulses between the spinal cord and the cerebrum; incoming sensory messages are relayed through this to appropriate centers in the cerebrum

A

thalamus

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56
Q

Tenth cranial nerve; branches reach to the larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, aorta, esophagus, and stomach

A

vagus nerve

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57
Q

Unlike the other cranial nerves, the vagus leaves the head and wanders into the ___ and ___ cavities

A

abdominal and thoracic

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58
Q

Canals in the brain that contain CSF. Also found in the heart

A

ventricles of the brain

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59
Q

cerebell/o

A

cerebellum

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60
Q

cerebr/o

A

cerebrum

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61
Q

dur/o

A

dura mater

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62
Q

encephal/o

A

brain

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63
Q

gli/o

A

glial cells

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64
Q

lept/o

A

thin, slender

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65
Q

mening/o, meningi/o

A

membranes, meninges

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66
Q

my/o

A

muscle

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67
Q

myel/o

A

spinal cord or bone marrow

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68
Q

neur/o

A

nerve

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69
Q

pont/o

A

pons

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70
Q

radicul/o

A

nerve root (of spinal nerves)

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71
Q

thalam/o

A

thalamus

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72
Q

thec/o

A

sheath (refers to meninges)

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73
Q

vag/o

A

vagus nerve

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74
Q

alges/o, -algesia

A

excessive sensitivity to pain

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75
Q

myelo vs myo

A

myelo = spinal cord or bone marrowmy/o = muslce

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76
Q

pyelo vs pyo

A

pyelo = renal pelvis of kidneypyo = pus

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77
Q

Diseases of peripheral nerves

A

neuropathies

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78
Q

-algia

A

pain

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79
Q

caus/o

A

burning

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80
Q

comat/o

A

deep sleep (coma)

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81
Q

estehsi/o, -esthesia

A

feeling, sensation

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82
Q

kines/o, kinesi/o, -kinesia, -kinesis, -kinetic

A

movement

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83
Q

-lepsy

A

seizure

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84
Q

lex/o

A

word, phrase

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85
Q

-paresis

A

weakness

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86
Q

-phasia

A

speech

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87
Q

-plegia

A

paralysis (loss or impairment of the ability to move parts of the body)

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88
Q

-praxia

A

action

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89
Q

-sthenia

A

strenght

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90
Q

syncop/o

A

to cut off, cut short

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91
Q

tax/o

A

order, coordination

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92
Q

Removal of the thymus gland (a lymphocyte-producing gland in the chest); used as treatment for myasthenia gravis

A

thymectomy

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93
Q

X-ray imaging of the arterial blood vessels in the brain after injection of contrast material

A

cerebral angiography

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94
Q

Radioactive glucose injected and then detected in the brain to image the metabolic activity of cells

A

PET (positron emission tomography) scan

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95
Q

Sound waves detect blood flow in the carotid/intracranial arteries

A

Doppler ultrasound studies

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96
Q

Recording of the electrical activity of the brain

A

electroencephalography (EEG)

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97
Q

CSF withdrawn from between two lumbar vertebrae for analysis

A

lumbar puncture (LP)

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98
Q

Use of a specialized instrument to locate and treat targets in the brain

A

stereotactic radiosurgery

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99
Q

computerized xray technique generating multiple images of the brain and spinal cord

A

computed tomography (CT) of the brain

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100
Q

magnetic field and pulses of radiowave energy create images of the brain and spinal cord

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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101
Q

sound waves detect blood flow in the carotid and intracranial arteries

A

doppler ultrasound studies

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102
Q

radioactive glucose is injected and then detected in the brain to image the metabolic activity of cells

A

positron emission tomography (PET) scan

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103
Q

recording of electrical activity of brain

A

electroencephalography (EEG)

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104
Q

CSF withdrawn rom between 2 lumbar vertebrae for analysis

A

lumbar puncture (LP)

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105
Q

use of specialized instrument to locate and treat targets in brain

A

stereotactic radiosurgery

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106
Q

delivers uniform dose of proton radiation to a target and spares surrounding normal tissue

A

proton stereotactic radiosurgery (PSRS)

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107
Q

high energy radiation beam used to treat deep and often inaccessible intracranial brain tumors and abnormal blood vessel masses

A

gamma knife

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108
Q

The ___ system and the endocrine system coordinate and control the body; regulate our responses to the environment and maintain homeostasis

A

nervous

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109
Q

While the endocrine system functions by hormones, the nervous system functions by ____

A

electric impulses

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110
Q

How is the nervous system divided?

A
  1. central nervous system (CNS)2. peripheral nervous system (PNS)
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111
Q

Consists of the brain and spinal cord

A

CNS

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112
Q

Consists of all nervous tissue outside the brain and spinal cord

A

PNS

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113
Q

What is another way the nervous system can be divided?

A
  1. somatic nervous system2. autonomic (or visceral) nervous system
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114
Q

Controls skeletal muscles

A

somatic nervous system

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115
Q

Controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands

A

autonomic or visceral nervous system

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116
Q

Regulates responses to stress and helps to maintain homeostasis.

A

ANS

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117
Q

What are the two types of cells found in the nervous system?

A
  1. neuron2. neuroglia
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118
Q

Nerve cells that make up the conducting tissue of the nervous system.

A

neurons

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119
Q

The connective tissue cells of the nervous system that support and protect nervous tissue

A

neuroglia

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120
Q

the basic functional unit of the nervous system

A

neurons

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121
Q

Each neuron has two types of fibers extending from the cell body: the _____, which carries impulses toward the cell body, and the ____, which carries impulses away from the cell body

A

dendrite, axon

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122
Q

Some axons are covered with ____, a whitish, fatty material that insulates and protects the axon andspeeds electric conduction; these axons are described as _____

A

myelin, myelinated

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123
Q

Myelinated axons make up the _____ of the nervous system

A

white matter

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124
Q

Unmyelinated tissue makes up the ______ of the nervous system

A

grey matter

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125
Q

Each neuron is part of a ____ system that carries information through the nervous system

A

relay

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126
Q

A neuron that transmits impulses toward the CNS is a _____ neuron

A

sensory

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127
Q

A neuron that transmits impulses away from the CNSis a _____ neuron

A

motor

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128
Q

The point of contact between two nerve cells is the ____ where energy is passed from one cell to another by means of a _____

A

synapse, chemical neurotransmitter

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129
Q

Which cranial nerves have the sensory function of taste?

A

facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus

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130
Q

smell SF, no MF

A

I olfactory

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131
Q

vision SF, no MF

A

II optic

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132
Q

no SF, eye movement MF (3)

A

III oculomotor, IV trochlear and VI abducens

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133
Q

facial sensation SF, chewing MF

A

V trigeminal

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134
Q

taste SF, facial expression MF

A

VII facial

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135
Q

hearing and balance SF, hair in cochlea MF

A

VIII vestibulocochlear

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136
Q

taste SF, swallowing MF

A

IX glossopharyngeal

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137
Q

taste SF, internal organ MF

A

X vagus

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138
Q

no SF, head/neck movement MF

A

XI spinal accessory

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139
Q

no sf, tongue movement MF

A

XII hypoglossal

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140
Q

Individual neuron fibers are held together in bundles like wires in a cable. If this bundle is part of the PNS,it is called a ____

A

nerve

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141
Q

A collection of cell bodies along the pathway of a nerve is a —–

A

ganglion

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142
Q

A few nerves (sensory nerves) contain only sensory neurons, and a few (motor nerves) contain only motor neurons, but most contain both types of fibers and are described as ——

A

mixed nerves

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143
Q

The largest part of the brain

A

cerebrum

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144
Q

Composed largely of white matter with a thinouter layer of gray matter

A

cerebrum

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145
Q

Outer layer of gray matter

A

cerebral cortex

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146
Q

It is within the cortex that the higher brain functions of —-, ——-, and —— occur

A

memory, reasoning and abstract thought

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147
Q

The cerebrum is divided into two hemispheres by a deep groove, the ——

A

longitudinal fissure

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148
Q

Each —— is further divided into lobes with specialized functions.

A

hemisphere

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149
Q

The diencephalon contains the —–, —- and —–

A
  1. thalamus2. hypothalamus3. pituitary gland
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150
Q

Receives sensory information and directs it to the proper portion of the cortex

A

thalamus

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151
Q

Controls the pituitary and forms a link between the endocrine and nervous systems

A

hypothalamus

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152
Q

The brainstem consists of the —–, —–, and —–

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

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153
Q

Contains reflex centers for improved vision and hearing

A

midbrain

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154
Q

Forms a bulge on the anterior surface of the brainstem and contains fibers that connect different regions of the brain

A

pons

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155
Q

Connects the brain with the spinal cord; all impulses passing to and from the brain travel through this region; has vital centers for control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure

A

medulla

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156
Q

under the cerebrum and dorsal to the pons and medulla; also divided into two hemispheres

A

cerebellum

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157
Q

Controls voluntary muscle movements and to maintainposture, coordination, and balance.

A

cerebellum

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158
Q

Within the brain are —- ventricles (cavities) in which —– (CSF) is produced

A

four, cerebrospinal fluid

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159
Q

CSF circulates around the brain and spinal cord, acting as a ____ for these tissues.

A

protective cushion

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160
Q

Covering the brain and the spinal cord are three protective layers, together called the _____.

A

meninges

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161
Q

The outermost and toughest of the three meninges is the _____

A

dura mater.

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162
Q

The middle layer is the _____.

A

arachnoid

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163
Q

The thin, vascular inner layer, attached directly to the tissue of the brain and spinal cord, is the _____.

A

pia mater

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164
Q

Cranial nerve that carries impulses for the sense of smell

A

I olfactory

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165
Q

Cranial nerve: carries impulses for the sense of vision

A

II optic

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166
Q

Cranial nerve: controls movement of eye muscles

A

III oculomotor

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167
Q

Cranial nerves: controls muscle of the eyeball

A

IV trochlear, VI abducens

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168
Q

Cranial nerves: carries sensory impulses from the face; controls chewing musclesop

A

V trigeminal

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169
Q

Cranial nerve: controls muscles of facial expression, salivary glands, and tearglands; conducts some impulses for taste

A

VII facial

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170
Q

Cranial nerve: conducts impulses for hearing and equilibrium; also called auditoryor acoustic nerve

A

VIII vestibulocochlear

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171
Q

Cranial nerve: conducts sensory impulses from tongue and pharynx; stimulates parotid salivary gland and partly controls swallowing

A

IX glossopharyngeal

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172
Q

Cranial nerve: supplies most organs of thorax and abdomen; controls digestive secretionsp

A

X vagus

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173
Q

Cranial nerve: controls muscles of the neck

A

XI spinal accessory

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174
Q

Cranial nerve: controls muscles of the tongue

A

XII hypoglossal

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175
Q

Extends from the medulla oblongata to between the first and second lumbar vertebrae; central gray matter surrounded by white matter

A

spinal cord

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176
Q

The gray matter of the spinal cord projects toward the back and the front as the ___ and ___

A

dorsal and ventral horns

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177
Q

The white matter contains the ____ and ____ that carry impulses to and from the brain.

A

ascending and descending tracts (fiberbundles)

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178
Q

__ pairs of spinal nerves connect with the spinal cord

A

31

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179
Q

Spinal nerves are grouped in the segments of the cord: • Cervical: • Thoracic: • Lumbar: • Sacral: • Coccygeal:

A

• Cervical: 8• Thoracic: 12• Lumbar: 5• Sacral: 5• Coccygeal: 1

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180
Q

Each nerve joins the cord by ____.

A

two roots

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181
Q

The ____ root carries sensory impulses into the cord; the ____ root carries motor impulses away from the cord and out toward a muscle or gland.

A

dorsal or posterior, ventral or anterior root

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182
Q

A simple response that requires few neurons

A

reflex

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183
Q

T or F. In a spinal reflex, impulses travel through the spinal cord only and do not reach the brain.

A

True

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184
Q

T or F. Most neurologic responses involve complex interactions among multiple neurons in the CNS

A

True

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185
Q

____ is the division of the nervous system that controls the involuntary actions of muscles and glands

A

The autonomic nervous system (ANS)

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186
Q

The ANS itself has two divisions: the ____ nervous system and the ____ nervous system

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

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187
Q

The _____ nervous system motivates our response to stress, the so-called “fight-or-flight” response; increases heart rate and respiration rate, stimulates the adrenalgland, and delivers more blood to skeletal muscles.

A

sympathetic nervous system

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188
Q

The ____ system returns the body to a steadystate and stimulates maintenance activities, such as digestion of food.

A

parasympathetic

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189
Q

T or F. Most organs are controlled by both para- and sympathetic symptems and, in general, the two systems have the same effects on a given organ

A

F. opposite effect

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190
Q

What does the brain consist of?

A
  1. cerebrum2. diencephalon3. brainstem4. cerebellum
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191
Q

The brain is a nervous tissue contained within the ____

A

cranium

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192
Q

CSF

A

cerebrospinal fluid

193
Q

The watery fluid that circulates in and around the brain and spinal cord as a protection

A

CSF

194
Q

The twelve pairs of nerves that are connected to the brain

A

cranial nerves

195
Q

The part of the brain that contains the thalamus, hypothalamus, andpituitary gland; located between the cerebrum and the brainstem

A

diencephalon

196
Q

The large upper portion of the brain; it is divided into two hemispheres by the longitudinal fissure

A

cerbrum

197
Q

The part of the brain that consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata

A

brainstem

198
Q

The posterior portion of the brain dorsal to the pons and medulla; helps to coordinate movement and to maintain balance and posture

A

cerebellum

199
Q

The portion of the brain that connects with the spinal cord. It has vital centers for control of respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure

A

medulla oblongata

200
Q

The part of the brainstem between the diencephalon and the pons; contains centers for coordination of reflexes for vision and hearing

A

midbrain

201
Q

Producing movement; describes neurons that carry impulses away from the CNS

A

motor

202
Q

Also called glial cells

A

neuroglia

203
Q

A chemical that transmits energy across a synapse

A

neurotransmitter

204
Q

A rounded area on the ventral surface of the brainstem; contains fibers that connect regions of the brain; the adjective is pontine

A

pons

205
Q

A branch of a spinal nerve that connects with the spinal cord

A

root

206
Q

Describing neurons that carry impulses toward the CNS

A

sensory

207
Q

The nervous tissue contained within the spinal column; extends from the medulla oblongata to the second lumbar vertebra

A

spinal cord

208
Q

The 31 pairs of nerves that connect with the spinal cord

A

spinal nerves

209
Q

A bundle of nerve cell fibers within the CNS

A

tract

210
Q

A bundle of nerve cell fibers outside the CNS

A

nerve

211
Q

A collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS

A

ganglion

212
Q

neur/o, neur/i

A

nervous system, nervous tissue, nerve

213
Q

gli/o

A

neuroglia

214
Q

gangli/o, ganglion/o

A

ganglion

215
Q

mening/o, meninge/o

A

meninges

216
Q

myel/o

A

spinal cord; bone marrow

217
Q

radicul/o

A

root of a spinal nerve

218
Q

encephal/o

A

brain

219
Q

cerebr/o

A

cerebrum; loosely: brain

220
Q

cortic/o

A

cerebral cortex; outer portion

221
Q

cerebell/o

A

cerebellum

222
Q

thalam/o

A

thalamus

223
Q

ventricul/o

A

cavity, ventricle

224
Q

medull/o

A

medulla oblongata; spinal cord

225
Q

psych/o

A

mind

226
Q

narc/o

A

stupor, unconsciousness

227
Q

somn/o, somn/i

A

sleep

228
Q

-phasia

A

speech

229
Q

-lalia

A

speech; babble

230
Q

-lexia

A

reading

231
Q

-plegia

A

paralysis

232
Q

-paresis

A

partial paralysis

233
Q

-lepsy

A

seizure

234
Q

-phobia

A

persistent, irrational fear

235
Q

-mania

A

excited state, obsession

236
Q

CVA

A

cerebrovascular accident; stroke

237
Q

Formation of a blood clot in a vessel

A

thrombosis

238
Q

Sudden blockage by an obstruction travelling from another part of the body

A

embolism

239
Q

localized dilation of a vessel that may rupture and cause hemorrhage

A

aneurysm

240
Q

loss or impairment of speech communication

A

aphasia

241
Q

paralysis of one sideof the body

A

hemiplegia

242
Q

Almost all tumors that originate in the nervous system are tumors of nonconducting support cells, the ____

A

neuroglia

243
Q

EEG

A

electroencephalography

244
Q

A drug that acts on the mental state

A

psychotropic drug

245
Q

Psychotropic drugs include antianxiety drugs or ___, and antipsychotic drugs called ____

A

anxiolytic; neuroleptics

246
Q

Damage to the brain on the side opposite the point of a blow as a result of the brain’s hitting the skull

A

contrecoup injury

247
Q

Partial paralysis or weakness of one side of the body

A

hemiparesis

248
Q

A chronic, progressive disease involving loss of myelin in the CNS

A

multiple sclerosis

249
Q

A disorder originating in the basal ganglia

A

parkinson disease

250
Q

Surgical removal of the lining of the carotid artery, the large artery inthe neck that supplies blood to the brain

A

carotid endarterectomy

251
Q

Amplification, recording, and interpretation of the electric activity of the brainpower

A

EEG

252
Q

Puncture of the subarachnoid space in the lumbar region of the spinal cord; spinal tap; done to remove spinal fluid for diagnosis or to inject anesthesia

A

lumbar puncture

253
Q

ADHD

A

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

254
Q

Four masses of gray matter in the cerebrum and upper brainstem that are involved in movement and coordination

A

basal ganglia

255
Q

ACh

A

acetylcholine

256
Q

AD

A

alzheimer disease

257
Q

ALS

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

258
Q

BAEP

A

brainstem auditory evoked potentials

259
Q

CBF

A

cerebral blood flow

260
Q

CP

A

cerebrospinal fluid

261
Q

CVD

A

cerebrovascular disease

262
Q

DTR

A

deep tendon reflexes

263
Q

GAD

A

generalized anxiety disorder

264
Q

ICP

A

intracranial pressure

265
Q

LMN

A

lower motor neuron

266
Q

LOC

A

level of consciousness

267
Q

MID

A

multi-infarct dementia

268
Q

NICU

A

neurological intensive care unit

269
Q

NPH

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

270
Q

NREM

A

non rapid eye movement (sleep)

271
Q

RAS

A

reticular activating system

272
Q

REM

A

rapid eye movement (sleep)

273
Q

SSEP

A

somatosensory evoked potentials

274
Q

SSRI

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

275
Q

TIA

A

transient ischemic attack

276
Q

UMN

A

upper motor neuron

277
Q

VEP

A

visual evoked potentials

278
Q

Brain is damaged by a sudden disruption in the flow of blood to a part of the brain

A

Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)

279
Q

CVAs are also called _____ or _____

A

stroke or brain attack

280
Q

3 types of vascular disorders causing CVA

A
  1. Occlusion by an atheroma 2. Sudden obstruction by an embolus 3. Cerebral bleed/hemorrhage
281
Q

Symptoms of CVA

A

Severe headache, aphasia, dysplasia, sudden weakness, numbness or paralysis, confusion or impaired consciousness, drooping of one side of eyelid and mouth, vision difficulties, sudden dizziness, loss of balance and coordination

282
Q

T or F. CVA needs immediate intervention to limit brain damage.

A

T

283
Q

2 families of drugs to treat CVA

A
  1. Anticoagulants like Warfarin and Coumadin2. Thrombolytic agents like aspirin or heparin (Iv)
284
Q

Temporary episodes of impaired neurologic functioning caused by an inadequate flow of blood to a portion of the brain.

A

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

285
Q

TIAs are also called ____ or ____

A

“little strokes” or “mini strokes”

286
Q

TIAs have a duration of less than ___ hours

A

24

287
Q

TIAs are caused by a piece of plaque formed by ______

A

atherosclerosis

288
Q

The plaque in TIA breaks away from a wall of an artery or heart valve and travels to the brain, which is known as an ____

A

emboli

289
Q

Another cause for TIA are _______ from an arterial ulcer.

A

platelet fibrin emboli

290
Q

Treatment for TIA depends on the _____ of the attack.

A

location

291
Q

T or F. Anticoagulants are used during the episode to lessen the frequency or chance of TIA recurrences.

A

T

292
Q

Chew _____ as symptoms appear in TIA

A

aspirin

293
Q

Usually results in brain injury that can range from mild to life-threatening or fatal

A

head trauma

294
Q

Collection or mass of blood forms between the skull and the dura mater

A

epidural hematoma

295
Q

Epidural hematoma affects the area between the ____ and the ____, the outer most of the 3 meningeal layers

A

skull and the dura mater

296
Q

In epidural hematoma, symptoms appear a few hours after ______

A

head trauma

297
Q

Epidural hematoma symptoms include sudden headache, dilated pupils, nausea, vomiting, drowsiness and _____

A

hemiparesis

298
Q

In epidural hematoma, blood from ______ seeps into and around the meningeal layers due to head trauma

A

ruptured vessels

299
Q

In both subdural and epidural hematoma, sudden _____ and _____ causes brain to strike the skull

A

acceleration and deceleration

300
Q

2 surgical interventions for subdural/epidural hematoma

A
  1. craniotomy2. cranial trephination or burr hole
301
Q

Craniotomy and trephination are procedures done to remove ______ and to cauterize ______ if increasing intracranial pressure becomes life threatening

A

accumulated blood; the bleeding vessel

302
Q

The cause of epidural hematoma is typically a _____

A

blow to the head

303
Q

The blood collects or pools between the dura mater and the arachnoid membrane

A

subdural hematoma

304
Q

What areas of the brain are affected in a subdural hematoma?

A

the dura mater and the arachnoid membrane

305
Q

The general cause of a subdural hematoma is ______

A

the head striking an immovable object

306
Q

Symptoms of an epidural hematoma typically appear within _____ of a head trauma,

A

a few hours

307
Q

Subdural hematomas have a _____, causing symptoms to appear later

A

delayed symptom onset

308
Q

Epidural hematomas are usually caused by ______, while subdural hematomas are caused by ______

A

a blow to the head; the head striking an immovable object

309
Q

Possible bruising of the cerebral tissue

A

cerebral concussion

310
Q

Cerebral concussion is also called a ______

A

mild traumatic brain injury

311
Q

In a cerebral concussion there is a disruption of the normal ______ in the brain, but the brain itself usually is not permanently injured

A

electrical activity

312
Q

Cerebral concussions are caused by ______ movement of the head, as in an acceleration-deceleration insult

A

back and forth

313
Q

Cerebral concussions are also caused by ____ trauma or falling

A

blunt force

314
Q

Cerebral concussions are treated with quiet bed rest with observation for signs of _____

A

behavioral changes

315
Q

Most severe concussion where the injury includes bruising of brain tissue along or just beneath the surface of the brain

A

cerebral contusion

316
Q

Another name for cerebral contusion

A

contrecoup insult

317
Q

Cerebral contusion is caused by a _____ or impacting against a _____ as occurs in a car accident.

A

blow to the head; hard surface

318
Q

In cerebral contusion, a _____ force against ______ of the brain occurring when colliding with the _____ may damage structures deep in the brain.

A

twisting and shearing; two hemispheres; cranial bones

319
Q

Contusion is associated with _____

A

skull fracture

320
Q

A break or fracture in one of the bones of the cranium, when depressed or torn loose, they are pushed below the normal surface of the skull

A

depressed skull fracture

321
Q

Depressed skull fractures are caused by ______ in the skull with a ______ object

A

direct impact; blunt object

322
Q

In depressed skull fracture, a fractured bone may cut an ____ or ____ causing hemorrhage in the brain

A

artery or vein

323
Q

Treatment for depressed skull fracture includes relieving the _____

A

intracranial pressure

324
Q

Surgical intervention for depressed skull fracture that elevates the bone back into place

A

craniotomy

325
Q

____ is used in depressed skull fractures until they are partially healed

A

head protection

326
Q

Injury of the spinal cord affect the innervation of any spinal nerves distal to the point of insult.

A

paraplegia and quadriplegia

327
Q

In para/quadriplegia, the ____ and ____ often result in the failure of spinal nerve functioning.

A

extent of the injury and consequential edema

328
Q

Loss of nerve function below the waist, resulting in paralysis of the lower trunk and legs

A

paraplegia

329
Q

Loss of nerve function at the cervical region resulting in paralysis of the arms, hands, trunk and legs

A

quadriplegia

330
Q

Para/quadriplegia are due to _____ or _____

A

vertebral fractures or dislocation

331
Q

In para/quadriplegia, the ____ causes injury/trauma to the cord and the severity of the trauma.

A

site

332
Q

In paraplegia there is trauma to ___ and below

A

T1

333
Q

2 other causes for paraplegia

A
  1. vertical compression2. hyperflexion
334
Q

In quadriplegia, there is trauma to ___ and above

A

C5

335
Q

Para/quadriplegia are treated with restoration of the normal ____ and ____ of the spine;

A

alignment and stability

336
Q

4 other treatments for para/quadriplegia

A
  1. decompression of the spinal cord, nerves and vertebrae 2. early rehab. 3. neck and spine stabilization. 4. hypothermic state to injured area
337
Q

In para/quadriplegia, ____ is used to prevent or slow edema

A

methylprednisone

338
Q

Degeneration or deterioration of an intervertebral disc that may result in pain in the areas served by the spinal nerves of the involved disc space.

A

degenerative disk disease (DDD)

339
Q

DDD is caused by age due to decreased ____ in the disc, or ____ wear and tear.

A

water; mechanical

340
Q

Misalignment in DDD can cause ____ and ____, eventually involving the nerve roots causing scarring.

A

inflammation and disc destruction

341
Q

2 key diagnostic indicators that accompany a depressed skull fracture

A
  1. battle’s sign (bruising behind the ears) 2. racoon eyes (bruising around and under the eyes
342
Q

DDD sequela is _____

A

spinal stenosis

343
Q

4 treatments for DDD

A
  1. be active 2. analgesics and NSAIDs 3. physical therapy 4. spinal fusion and freeing of the nerve roots from entrapment
344
Q

Rupture of the nucleus pulposus through the annular wall of the disc and into the spinal canal

A

herniated and bulging disk

345
Q

Herniated and bulging disk is also called ____ or ____

A

ruptured or slipped disk

346
Q

4 causes for herniated and bulging disk

A
  1. accumulated trauma2. sudden impact3. poor posture4. aging
347
Q

Conservative treatment of herniated and bulging disk consists of using ____ and ____

A

hot and cold packs

348
Q

Family of drugs to treat herniated and bulging disk

A

relaxants and analgesics

349
Q

3 surgical interventions used for herniated and bulging disks where the herniated disc may be excised

A
  1. percutaneous discectomy2. microdiscectomy3. removal of the disk with laminectomy and fusion of the vertebrae
350
Q

Pathologic condition brought about by trauma, degeneration or rupture of the nucleus pulposus

A

sciatic nerve injury or spinal stenosis

351
Q

In sciatic nerve injury, rupture of the nucleus pulposus occur within intervertebral discs ___ through ___

A

L4, S3

352
Q

In spinal stenosis, there is narrowing of the spinal canal or _____ because of compression on the spinal cord and spinal nerve roots

A

nerve root foramen (sciatica)

353
Q

Trauma to sciatic nerve may result from a fall, gunshot or stab wounds, or poor ____

A

body mechanics

354
Q

In spinal stenosis, ____ can lead to degeneration of the disc or the nucleus pulposus.

A

aging

355
Q

An _____ may prompt more rapid degeneration of spinal stenosis

A

inflammatory autoimmune response

356
Q

In spinal stenosis, aging and arthritic changes may also cause narrowing of the ____ and the ____

A

spinal canal and the foramen

357
Q

3 treatment options for spinal stenosis

A
  1. oral prednisone2. physical therapy3. ultrasound diathermy with massage
358
Q

Pain in the head that is not confined to any one specific nerve distribution area

A

headache

359
Q

Another word for headache

A

cephalalgia

360
Q

Causes of headaches

A

–

361
Q

Family of drugs to treat headaches

A

NSAIDs

362
Q

Periodic severe headaches that may be completely incapacitating and almost always are accompanied by other symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting, anorexia, intense hemi cranial or bilateral throbbing pain and visual signs and symptoms

A

migraine

363
Q

Causes of migraine is unknown but may be biological with changes in the _____

A

cerebral blood flow

364
Q

2 types of spinal cord injuries

A

paraplegia and quadriplegia

365
Q

In migraines there is ______ followed by _____ of the cerebral and cranial arteries

A

vasoconstriction; vasodilation

366
Q

Family of drugs to treat migraines

A

analgesics

367
Q

Chronic brain disorder, characterized by sudden episodes of abnormal intense electrical activity in the brain which results in seizure activity

A

epilepsy/seizure disorder

368
Q

Type of epilepsy with known abnormalities in the brain resulting from a pathologic process, genetic or acquired

A

symptomatic epilepsy

369
Q

Pathologic conditions associated with seizures

A
  1. scar tissue on cerebral cortext from infection or trauma2. cortical neoplasm3. cerebral edema4. TIAs 5. CVAs
370
Q

Other possible causes of epilepsy

A
  1. birth trauma (cerebral palsy)2. drug toxicity3. diabetes4. hypoglycemia5. other conditions depriving the brain of oxygen
371
Q

Family of drugs to treat epilepsy

A

anticonvulsants ex.phenytoin, carbamazepine, valporic acid, etc

372
Q

Common slowly progressive neurologic disorder characterized by the onset of recognizable disturbances

A

Parkinson’s disease

373
Q

4 recognizable disturbances in Parkinson’s disease

A
  1. “pill-rolling” tremor of the thumb and forefinger2. muscular rigidity3. slowness of movement4. postural instability
374
Q

T or F. In Parkinson’s, the cause of the degeneration of nerves in the motor system is unknown.

A

T

375
Q

In Parkinson’s, a deficiency of _____ has been clinically demonstrated in patients with this disease

A

dopamine

376
Q

Parkinson’s can also occur after which three incidents?

A
  1. after ingestion of poison, 2. after encephalitis3. after taking certain major tranquilizers and certain antihypertensive drugs
377
Q

In Parkinson’s, degenerative disease of the brain involve ______ parts of the brain

A

preferentially various

378
Q

T or F. There is no cure and no known way of preventing Parkinson’s

A

T

379
Q

A hereditary degenerative disease of the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia where progressive atrophy of the brain occurs

A

Huntington’s chorea/disease

380
Q

The exact cause of Huntington’s disease is uncertain but it is an _____ trait that can be inherited by either sex

A

autosomal dominant

381
Q

General cause of spinal cord injuries (para/quadriplegia)?

A

vertebral fractures and/or dislocations

382
Q

3 ways to classify spinal cord injuries in terms of injury mechanism

A
  1. compression 2. hyperflexion 3. hyperextension
383
Q

In spinal cord injuries, damage occurring the ___ vertebral level is usually fatal

A

C3

384
Q

Surgical treatment option for degenerative disk disease

A

spinal fusion and freeing of the nerve roots from entrapment

385
Q

In ______ disk there is a rupture of the nucleus pulposus through the annular wall of the disk and into the spinal call

A

herniated disk

386
Q

In _____ disk, the nucleus pulposus extends into the inner annulus only

A

bulging disk

387
Q

Another name for spinal stenosis

A

sciatica

388
Q

3 sciatic nerve injury/spinal stenosis surgical interventions

A
  1. discectomy or microdiscectomy2. spinal fusion3. chemonucleolysis and/or decompression
389
Q

For Huntington’s disease, haloperidol lactate and fluphenazine are prescribed to reduce ____

A

agitation

390
Q

Progressive destructive motor neuron disease that results in muscular atrophy

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

391
Q

ALS is also called _____ disease

A

Lou Gehrig’s

392
Q

ALS may be caused by ______ trait

A

autosomal inherited

393
Q

A new drug that has shown promise in slowing progression and extending life of ALS patients

A

Riluzole

394
Q

In ALS, tizanidine and baclofen are muscle relaxants to help relieve _____

A

muscle spasticity

395
Q

Neurologic condition typified by an overwhelming urge to move the legs or body part is to stop an uncomfortable or odd sensation

A

restless legs syndrome (RLS)

396
Q

Restless legs syndrome incidence appears to increase after the ages ___ and ___

A

40 and 50

397
Q

2 things that may play a role in causing RLS

A
  1. anemia2. stress
398
Q

Family of drugs to alleviate or lessen symptoms in RLS

A

dopamine agonists

399
Q

Frightening and anxiety provoking total loss of recent memory; learning process is completely blocked. Memory disturbances are involved

A

transient global amnesia

400
Q

Transient global amnesia temporary duration is __ to __ hours

A

1 to 6 hours

401
Q

5 precipitating events to transient global amnesia

A
  1. stress or emotional events2. swimming3. immersion in cold water4. driving a motor vehicle5. sexual intercourse.
402
Q

Transient global amnesia patient may have experienced _____ on previous occasions, usually without nausea, vomiting or photosensitivity

A

migraine headaches

403
Q

T or F. Transient globa amnesia is treatable

A

F

404
Q

Degeneration of peripheral nerves

A

peripheral neuritis

405
Q

Another name for peripheral neuritis

A

neuropathy

406
Q

Peripheral neuritis is caused by toxicity of what 6 vthings

A
  1. chronic alcohol intoxication2. arsenic3. lead4. carbon disulfide5. benzene6. phosphorus
407
Q

2 other causes for peripheral neuritis

A
  1. infections- mumps- pneumonia- diphtheria2. metabolic or inflammatory disorders- diabetes- rheumatoid arthritis- gout- systemic lupus erythematosus
408
Q

2 physiologic causes of headache

A
  1. tension headache2. vascular headache
409
Q

Headache strain on facial, neck and scalp muscles

A

tension

410
Q

Headache caused by edema within the blood vessels of the head resulting in change in arterial size

A

vascular

411
Q

Type of preparation taken at the first sign of a migraine to help

A

Ergot preparation

412
Q

Symptoms of migraine other than a headache

A

nauseaanorexiavisual symptoms

413
Q

Seizure that arises from a localized area in the brain

A

partial seizure

414
Q

Seizure where there is diffuse electrical abnormality within the brain

A

generalized seizure

415
Q

Prolonged seizure activity – one seizure follows another with no recovery of consciousness between attacks

A

status epilepticus

416
Q

Families of drugs to treat peripheral neuritis

A

anticonvulsants and tricylic antidepressants

417
Q

Pain of the area innervated by the fifth cranial (trigeminal) nerve, the trigeminal nerve

A

trigeminal neuralgia

418
Q

Another name for trigeminal neuralgia

A

tic doloureux

419
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia may be related to compression of a _____ by a tumor or vascular lesion

A

nerve root

420
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is a sequela to _____ or _____

A

multiple sclerosis or herpes zoster

421
Q

Families of drugs to treat trigeminal neuralgia

A

analgesics, anticonvulsants or muscle relaxants

422
Q

Disorder of facial nerve that causes a sudden onset of weakness or paralysis

A

Bell’s palsy

423
Q

Symptoms of Bell’s palsy result from blockage of impulses from the cranial nerve # __ caused by compression of the nerve in the bony canal

A

7th cranial (facial) nerve

424
Q

_____ has been noted in a small percentage of people with Lyme disease

A

bilateral facial paralysis

425
Q

T or F. Early treatment is critical in Bell’s palsy

A

T

426
Q

Procedure to stimulate the nerve and prevent muscle atrophy in Bell’s palsy

A

electrotherapy

427
Q

4 other treatments for Bell’s palsy

A
  1. warm moist heat2. gentle massage3. facial exercise to stimulate muscle tone4. prednisone
428
Q

Inflammation of the meninges, the membranous coverings of the brain and spinal cord

A

meningitis

429
Q

Meningitis can originate directly from which 3 areas?

A
  1. brain2. spinal cord3. sinuses
430
Q

3 bacteria most responsible for meningitis

A
  1. Haemophilus influenza 2. Neisseria Meningitidis 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
431
Q

4 treatment options for meningitis

A
  1. aggressive IV antibiotic therapy 2. anticonvulsants to control seizure 3. glucocorticoids to reduce cerebral inflammation and edema 4. aspirin and acetaminophen are used for headaches
432
Q

Inflammation of brain tissue

A

encephalitis

433
Q

3 types of encephalomyelitis

A
  1. Eastern equine 2. Western equine 3. Venezuelan equine
434
Q

Non-endemic encephalitis

A

West Nile viral encephalitis

435
Q

Encephalitis is caused by viruses or the toxins from ____ or ____ from mosquito bites

A

chickenpox measles or mumps

436
Q

Antiviral agents are effective against only ____ encephalitis

A

herpes simplex

437
Q

4 encephalitis treatments

A
  1. mild analgesics for pain, 2. antipyretic for elevated temperatures, 3. anticonvulsants for seizure activity4. antibiotic for any intercurrent infection
438
Q

4 recognizable disturbances associated with Parkinson’s disease

A
  1. pill rolling tremor 2. muscular rigidity 3. slowness of movement (shuffling gait) 4. postural instability
439
Q

Acute rapidly progressive disease of the spinal nerves

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome

440
Q

Guillain-Barré syndrome is on ____ but has more of a ____ process

A

autoimmune; infectious

441
Q

Surgical treatment option for Parkinson’s disease

A

deep brain stimulation

442
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome has been known to follow a _____ or gastroenteritis after 10-21 days

A

respiratory infection; gastroenteritis

443
Q

Guillain-Barré syndrome is associated with _____ of the nerves

A

demyelination

444
Q

To treat Guillain-Barré syndrome, _____ washes the plasma to remove antibodies, thereby shortening the time required for recovery

A

plasmapheresis

445
Q

IV ____ may be beneficial in treating Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

immunoglobulin

446
Q

Collection of pus can occur anywhere in the brain tissue

A

brain abscess

447
Q

CNS abscesses may be the result of _____ or _____ infections elsewhere in the body

A

local or secondary

448
Q

3 common causative organisms for brain abscess

A
  1. Staphylococci 2. Streptococci 3. Pneumococci
449
Q

Brain abscess can be caused by ______ including head trauma and a craniotomy wound, or a port of entry for microorganism

A

breaches in the integrity of CNS

450
Q

2 drugs to treat brain abscess

A
  1. IV antibiotics to resolve infection 2. Mannitol or steroids are to reduce cerebral edema
451
Q

Drainage of the brain abscess may be necessary to relieve _____ and to _____ the offending organism

A

intracranial pressure; culture

452
Q

Viral infection of the anterior horn cells of the gray matter of the spinal cord and causes a selective destruction of the motor neurons

A

poliomyelitis

453
Q

Another name for poliomyelitis

A

Postpolio syndrome

454
Q

In poliomyelitis, ____ enters the body through the nose and throat and crosses into the gastrointestinal tract

A

poliovirus

455
Q

In poliomyelitis, poliovirus reproduces in the ____ and travels in the ____

A

lymphoid tissue; bloodstream

456
Q

In poliomyelitis, poliovirus travels to CNS where the virus assaults the ____ of the ____

A

motor neurons of the spinal cord

457
Q

Poliomyelitis is transmitted from person to person by ____ or ____

A

infected oropharyngeal secretion or feces that contain the virus

458
Q

2 types of polio vaccines

A
  1. inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) 2. oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)
459
Q

3 different serotypes of polio virus

A

Type1 Type2 Type 3

460
Q

_____ vaccine and ____ vaccine afford immunity from all 3 forms of poliomyelitis

A

sabin trivalent oral vaccine; salk vaccine

461
Q

Ceaseless, uncontrolled, involuntary movements (Huntington’s)

A

chorea

462
Q

T or F. Huntington’s chorea causes personality changes

A

T

463
Q

T or F. Mind functioning is affected in ALS

A

F; the main result of ALS is muscular atrophy

464
Q

Peripheral neuritis typically affects the ____ of the ____

A

distal muscles of the extremities

465
Q

Peripheral neuritis leads to muscle ____ and sensory ____

A

weakness; loss

466
Q

Surgical treatment for trigeminal neuralgia to alleviate pain

A

dissection of nerve root

467
Q

T or F. Bell’s palsy is usually bilateral

A

F; usually unilateral

468
Q

What must be ruled out before treating Bell’s palsy

A

CVA

469
Q

Key symptom of meningitis

A

stiff neck

470
Q

Stiffness of the neck that resists any sideways or flexion-extension movement

A

nuchal rigidity

471
Q

2 diagnostic signs of meningitis

A
  1. Kernig’s sign 2. Brudzinski’s sign
472
Q

2 types of meningitis

A
  1. bacterial2. viral (less serious)
473
Q

Type of causative pathogen for encephalitis

A

virus, but can be caused by toxins from chickenpox, measles, or mumps

474
Q

In Guillain-Barre Syndrome, symptoms start at ___ and ___

A

feet and hands

475
Q

In Guillain-Barre Syndrome, progressive muscle weakness and paralysis follows in ___ to ___ hours

A

24 to 72 hours

476
Q

Guillain-Barre is on an autoimmune basis but can also follow a ____ or ____

A

respiratory infection; gastroenteritis

477
Q

A lumbar puncture contraindicates when diagnosing a brain access because the increased ICP can cause the ____ to ____, causing death

A

brainstem to herniate

478
Q

Type of neurons selectively destroyed in poliomyelitis

A

motor neurons

479
Q

Postpolio syndrome typically appears ___ years or more after the original infection in a person who has had polio

A

30

* * * 1. NCE: MEDT, ANPH, PATH 1&2 (28 decks)

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