Blood | Hematology and Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

immun/o

A

protection

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2
Q

lymph/o

A

lymph

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3
Q

lymphaden/o

A

lymph node gland

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4
Q

splen/o

A

spleen

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5
Q

thym/o

A

thymus gland

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6
Q

tox/o

A

poison

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7
Q

ana-

A

again/anew

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8
Q

inter-

A

between

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9
Q

pathology pg

A

560

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10
Q

tests pg

A

562

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11
Q

AIDS

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

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12
Q

CMV

A

cytomegalovirus

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13
Q

GVHD

A

graft versus host disease

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14
Q

HD

A

Hodgkin disease

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15
Q

Histo

A

histoplasmosis

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16
Q

HIV

A

human immunodeficiency virus

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17
Q

HSV

A

herpes simplex virus

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18
Q

Ig

A

immunoglobulin

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19
Q

KS

A

Kaposi sarcoma

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20
Q

NHL

A

non-Hodgkin lymphoma

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21
Q

PCP

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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22
Q

TB

A

tuberculosis

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23
Q

Toxo

A

toxoplasmosis

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24
Q

measures number of CD4+ T cells (helper T cells) in the bloodstream of patients with AIDS

A

CD4+ cell count

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25
Q

screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in bloodstream

A

ELISA

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26
Q

test separating immunoglobulins IgM IgG IgE IgA IgD

A

immunoelectrophoresis

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27
Q

measurement of the amount of AIDS virus (HIV) in bloodstream

A

viral load test

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28
Q

xray imaging produces cross-sectional and other views of anatomic structures

A

computed tomography (CT) scan

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29
Q

bas/o

A

base

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30
Q

chrom/o

A

color

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31
Q

coagul/o

A

clotting

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32
Q

cyt/o

A

cell

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33
Q

eosin/o

A

red, dawn, rosy

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34
Q

erythr/o

A

red

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35
Q

granul/o

A

granules

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36
Q

hem/o

A

blood

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37
Q

hemoglobin/o

A

hemoglobin

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38
Q

is/o

A

same, equal

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39
Q

kary/o

A

nucleus

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40
Q

leuk/o

A

white

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41
Q

mon/o

A

one, single

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42
Q

morph/o

A

shape, form

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43
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

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44
Q

neutr/o

A

neutral (neither base nor acid)

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45
Q

nucle/o

A

nucleus

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46
Q

phag/o

A

eat, swallow

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47
Q

poikil/o

A

varied, irregular

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48
Q

sider/o

A

iron

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49
Q

spher/o

A

globe, round

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50
Q

thromb/o

A

clot

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51
Q

-apheresis

A

removal; carrying away

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52
Q

-blast

A

immature cell; embryonic

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53
Q

-phoresis

A

carrying; transmission

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54
Q

-cystosis

A

abnormal condition of cells; increase in cells

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55
Q

-emia

A

blood condition

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56
Q

-gen

A

giving rise to; producing

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57
Q

-globin/-globulin

A

protein

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58
Q

-lytic

A

pertaining to destruction

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59
Q

-oid

A

derived or originating from

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60
Q

-osis

A

abnormal condition

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61
Q

-penia

A

deficiency

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62
Q

-phage

A

eat; swallow

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63
Q

-philia

A

attraction for (an increase in cell numbers)

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64
Q

-poiesis

A

formation

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65
Q

-stasis

A

stop; control

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66
Q

pathology pg

A

515

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67
Q

tests pg

A

520

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68
Q

baso

A

basophils

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69
Q

BMT

A

bone marrow transplant

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70
Q

CBC

A

complete blood count

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71
Q

diff

A

differential count (wbcs)

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72
Q

eos

A

eosinophils

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73
Q

ESR

A

erythrocyte sedimentation rate (“sed rate”)

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74
Q

Hct

A

hematrocrit

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75
Q

HGB, Hgb

A

hemoglobin

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76
Q

IgA

A

immunoglobulin A

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77
Q

IgD

A

immunoglobulin D

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78
Q

IgE

A

immunoglobulin E

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79
Q

IgG

A

immunoglobulin G

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80
Q

IgM

A

immunoglobulin M

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81
Q

lymphs

A

lymphocytes

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82
Q

mono

A

monocyte

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83
Q

PT

A

prothrombin time

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84
Q

PTT

A

partial thromboplastin time

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85
Q

RBC

A

red blood cell; red blood cell count

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86
Q

WBC

A

white blood cells; white blood cell count

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87
Q

WNL

A

within normal limits

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88
Q

test for presence of antibodies that coat and damage erythrocytes

A

antiglobulin test or Coombs test

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89
Q

time required for blood to stop flowing from a tiny puncture wound

A

bleeding time

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90
Q

time required for venous blood to clot in a test tube

A

coagulation time

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91
Q

numbers of blood cells, hemoglobin concentration, hematocrit and red cell values

A

complete blood count (CBC)

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92
Q

speed at which erythrocytes settle out of plasma

A

erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

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93
Q

percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood

A

hematocrit Hct

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94
Q

total amount of hemoglobin in sample of peripheral blood

A

hemoglobin test

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95
Q

number of platelets per cubic millimeter or microliter of blood

A

platelet count

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96
Q

test of ability of blood to clot

A

prothrombin time (PT)

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97
Q

number of erythrocytes per cubic mm or microliter of blood

A

red blood cell count (RBC)

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98
Q

microscopic examination of a stained blood smear to determine the shape of individual red cells

A

red blood cell morphology

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99
Q

number of leukocytes per cubic mm or microliter of blood

A

white blood cell count (WBC)

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100
Q

percentages of different types of leukocytes in the blood

A

white blood cell differential [count]

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101
Q

separation of blood into component parts and removal of a select portion from the blood

A

apheresis

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102
Q

whole blood or cells are taken from a donor and infused into a patient

A

blood transfusion

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103
Q

microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle

A

bone marrow biopsy

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104
Q

peripheral stem cells from compatible donor are administered to a recipient

A

hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

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105
Q

bone marrow cells used rather than peripheral stem cell

A

bone marrow transplantation

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106
Q

Whole blood can be dividedinto two main components:

A
  1. the liquid portion, or plasma (55%)2. formed elements, or bloodcells (45%).
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107
Q

Plasma is about __% water. The remaining __% contains nutrients, electrolytes (dissolved salts), gases,albumin (a protein), clotting factors, antibodies, wastes, enzymes, and hormones.

A

90% water, 10% nutrients electrolytes (dissolved salts), gases, albumin, clotting factors, antibodies, wastes, enzymes and hormones.

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108
Q

The pH (relative acidity) of the plasma remains steady atabout ___.

A

7.4

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109
Q

The blood cells are _____, or red blood cells; _____, or white blood cells; and platelets,also called _____.

A

erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes

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110
Q

All blood cells are produced in ______.

A

red bone marrow

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111
Q

Some white blood cells multiplyin _____ as well.

A

lymphoid tissue

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112
Q

The major function of erythrocytes is to _______.

A

carry oxygen to cells

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113
Q

Oxygen from red blood cells is bound to an iron-containing pigment within the cells called ______.

A

hemoglobin

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114
Q

T or F. Erythrocytes are small, disk-shaped cells with no nucleus.

A

True

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115
Q

T or F. Red blood cell concentration of about 5 million per µL (cubic millimeter) of blood makes them by far the most numerousof the blood cells.

A

True

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116
Q

A red blood cell gradually wears out and dies in about ___ days, so these cells must be constantly replaced.

A

120

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117
Q

Production of red cells in the bone marrow is regulated by the hormone ______, which ismade in the kidneys.

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

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118
Q

T or F. White blood cells all show prominent nuclei when stained.

A

True.

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119
Q

Leukocytes are identified bythe ____, _____ and by their _____ properties.

A
  1. size2. appearance of the nucleus3. staining properties
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120
Q

List the five different types of leukocytes.

A
  1. granular leukocytes/granulocytes2. agranulocytes
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121
Q

These leukocytes have visible granules in the cytoplasm when stained

A

Granulocytes

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122
Q

These leukocytes don’t have visible granules when stained.

A

Agranulocytes

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123
Q

List the three types of granulocytes:

A
  1. neutrophils,2. eosinophils3. basophilsBENG baso, eosino, neutro, granulocytes
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124
Q

Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are named for ____

A

the kind of stain they take up

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125
Q

List two types of agranulocytes. lymphocytes and monocytes.

A
  1. lymphocytes2. monocytesgrand MAL, monocytes, agranuloctes, lymphocytes
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126
Q

T or F. White blood cells protect against foreign substances.

A

True

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127
Q

Some white blood cells engulf foreign material by the process of _____.

A

phagocytosis

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128
Q

T or F. In diagnosis it isn’t important to know the total number of leukocytes and the relative number of each type

A

False. It is important to know these because these numbers can change in different disease conditions.

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129
Q

The most numerous white blood cells

A

neutrophils

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130
Q

Neutrophils are also called _____ because of their various-shaped nuclei. They are also referred to as:

A

polymorphs. Also called segs, polys, or PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes)

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131
Q

An immature neutrophil with a solid curved nucleus, large numbers of which indicate an active infection.

A

A band cell, also called a stab or staff cell

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132
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

phagocytosis

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133
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

allergic reactions; defense against parasites

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134
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

allergic reactions

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135
Q

What is the function of lymphocytes?

A

immunity

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136
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

phagocytosis

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137
Q

Fragments of larger cells formed in the bone marrow.

A

blood platelets or thrombocytes

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138
Q

Platelets are important in ____ and ____.

A
  1. hemostasis2. coagulation.
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139
Q

The prevention of blood loss

A

hemostasis

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140
Q

Process of blood clotting

A

coagulation

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141
Q

When a vessel is injured, platelets _____ to form a ____ at the site.

A

When a vessel is injured, platelets stick together to form a plug at the site.

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142
Q

Substances released from the_____ and _____ interact with clotting factors in the plasma to produce a wound-sealingclot.

A

platelets and damaged tissue

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143
Q

Clotting factors are ____ in the blood until an injury occurs.

A

inactive

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144
Q

To protect against unwanted clot formation, _____ must interact before blood coagulates.

A

12 different factors

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145
Q

The final reaction is the conversion of _____ to ____ that trap blood cells and plasma to produce the clot.

A

fibrinogen to threads of fibrin

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146
Q

What remains of the plasma after blood coagulates

A

serum

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147
Q

__________ on the surface of red blood cells determine blood type.

A

genetically inherited proteins

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148
Q

20+ groups of blood type proteins have now been identified, but the most familiar are the __ and __ blood groups.

A

ABO and Rh

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149
Q

List the types in the ABO system.

A

ABABO

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150
Q

List the two Rh types.

A
  1. Rh positive (Rh+)2. Rh negative (Rh−)
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151
Q

T or F. In giving blood transfusions, it is important to use blood that is the same type as the recipient’s blood or a type to which the recipient will not show an immune reaction.

A

True.

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152
Q

Compatible blood types are determined by _______.

A

cross-matching

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153
Q

______ may be used to replace a large volume of bloodlost.

A

whole blood

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154
Q

In most cases requiring blood transfusion, a _____ such as packed red cells, platelets, plasma, or specific clotting factors is administered.

A

blood fraction

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155
Q

Some defenses against foreign matter are _____, that is,they protect against any intruder.

A

nonspecific

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156
Q

List some nonspecific defenses.

A
  1. unbroken SKIN2. blood-filtering LYMPHOID TISSUE3. CILIA and MUCUS that trap foreign material4. bactericidal body SECRETIONS4. REFLEXES eg coughing and sneezingsslcmr
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157
Q

Specific attacks on disease organisms are mounted by the ________.

A

immune system

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158
Q

The immune response involvescomplex interactions between ________ and _____.

A

components of the lymphatic system and blood

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159
Q

Any foreign particle mayact as an _____, that is, a substance that provokes a response by the immune system.

A

antigen

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160
Q

Immune system responses comefrom these two types of lymphocytes that circulate in the blood and lymphatic system.

A
  1. T cells (T lymphocytes)2. B cells(B lymphocytes)
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161
Q

T cells mature in the _______.

A

thymus gland

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162
Q

T-cells are capable of attacking a foreign cell ______, producing _______.

A

T cells are capable of attacking a foreign cell directly, producing cell-mediated immunity.

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163
Q

Descendants of monocytes and are important in the function of T cells.

A

macrophages

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164
Q

Macrophages take in and process ______.

A

foreign antigens

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165
Q

A T cell is activated when it contacts an _____ on thesurface of a _____ in combination with some of the body’s own proteins.

A

antigen, macrophage

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166
Q

The B cells mature in ______.

A

lymphoid tissue

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167
Q

When B-cells meet a foreign antigen they _____, transforming into _____.

A

multiply rapidly, plasma cells

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168
Q

B cells produce ______that inactivate an antigen.

A

antibodies (also called immunoglobulins (Ig)

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169
Q

Antibodies remain in the blood, often providing ______ to the specific organism against which they were formed.

A

long-term immunity

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170
Q

Antibody-based immunity is referred to as ______.

A

humoral immunity

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171
Q

What are the three functions of blood?

A
  1. transportation2. protection3. regulation
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172
Q

Blood is a _____ tissue

A

connective

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173
Q

What are the 3 steps in clotting?

A
  1. vasoconstriction2. platelet plug formation3. coagulation
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174
Q

Coagulation needs ____ ions

A

calcium

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175
Q

What are the 3 steps in coagulation?

A
  1. prothrombin > thrombin2. thrombin converts fibrinogen > fibrin3. fibrin threads > mesh > clot
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176
Q

Clot is dissolved after healing has taken place

A

fibrinolysis

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177
Q

T or F. Rh - blood is given to Rh- patients and Rh+ blood is given to Rh+ patients

A

true

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178
Q

If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-A serum, you have type _ blood.

A

A

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179
Q

If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-B serum, you have type _ blood.

A

B

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180
Q

If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-A and anti-B serum, you have type _ blood.

A

AB

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181
Q

If your blood cells do not stick together when mixed with anti-A serum, you have type _ blood.

A

O

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182
Q

Reduction in the amount of hemoglobin due to blood loss, hemolysis, improper formation of new RBCs due to iron or vitamin deficiency

A

anemia

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183
Q

Inability to clot blood

A

hemophelia

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184
Q

Large number of cancerous WBCs

A

leukemia

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185
Q

A cell that is formed from a B cell that produces antibodies

A

platelet

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186
Q

The cellular components of blood

A

formed elements

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187
Q

-emia, -hemia

A

condition of blood

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188
Q

-penia

A

decrease in, deficiency of

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189
Q

-poiesis

A

formation, production

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190
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

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191
Q

hem/o, hemat/o

A

blood

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192
Q

erythr/o, erythrocyt/o

A

red blood cell

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193
Q

leuk/o, leukocyt/o

A

white blood cell

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194
Q

lymph/o, lymphocyt/o

A

lymphocyte

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195
Q

thromb/o

A

blood clot

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196
Q

thrombocyt/o

A

platelet, thrombocyte

197
Q

immun/o

A

immunity, immune system

198
Q

azot/o

A

nitrogen compounds

199
Q

calc/i

A

calcium

200
Q

ferr/o, ferr/i

A

iron

201
Q

sider/o

A

iron

202
Q

kali

A

potassium

203
Q

natri

A

sodium

204
Q

ox/y

A

oxygen

205
Q

AIDS

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

206
Q

Nonspecific line of defense found in skin and mucous membranes

A

first line of defense or innate immunity

207
Q

Natural killer cells and phagocytosis are considered the ____ line of defense in innate immunity

A

second line of defense

208
Q

Line of defense specific towards a disease or other foreign substance. Has a memory

A

third line of defense or adaptive immunity

209
Q

T or F. Memory T-cells activate quicker during a second encounter with a specific antigen.

A

True

210
Q

What are the 2 types of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. natural adaptive immunity2. artificial adaptive immunityboth types can be active or passive
211
Q

Anemia can be a reduction of these 2 mechanisms

A
  1. quantity of rbc2. quantity of hemoglobin
212
Q

Anemia can be classified by what three characteristics

A
  1. colour2. size3. cause
213
Q

3 classifications of colour in anemia

A
  1. hypochromic2. normochromic3. hyperchromic
214
Q

3 classifications of size in anemia

A
  1. microcytic2. normocytic3. macrocytic
215
Q

2 main causes of iron deficiency anemia

A
  1. blood loss2. insufficient dietary intake of iron
216
Q

What type of blood loss occurs in iron deficiency anemia?

A

slow, chronic hemorrhage

217
Q

In folic acid deficiency anemia, red blood cells are prevented from maturing as there is not enough folic acid available for _____

A

DNA synthesis

218
Q

Aplastic anemia is caused by an insult to the ____ cells in the bone marrow

A

hematopoietic

219
Q

Sickle cell anemia can be caused by heredity; there is an inherited trait that causes red blood cells to acquire a sickle or elongated shape on _____

A

deoxygenation

220
Q

Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by an acute, large decline in ____ in a short time

A

blood volume

221
Q

Hemolytic anemia is caused by ____ of the red blood cells

A

abnormal destruction

222
Q

Another term for agrunolocytosis

A

neutropenia

223
Q

2 causes of agrunolocytosis

A
  1. drug toxicity2. hypersensitivity
224
Q

Polycythemia vera is an absolute increase in red blood cell mass due to an increase of what 3 substances?

A
  1. hemoglobin2. rbc count3. hematocrit
225
Q

Cause of primary (absolute) polycythemia

A

unknown

226
Q

Cause of relative polycythemia

A

reduction of plasma volume

227
Q

Leukemia is classified by the ___ type and the degree of ___ of the ____ cells

A

cell type, degree of differentiation, neoplastic cells

228
Q

Leukemia with a rapid onset and progression

A

acute leukemias

229
Q

Leukemia where progression is slower, measured in years rather than months

A

chronic leukemias

230
Q

ALL is an overproduction of ____ cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes

A

immature lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts)

231
Q

CLL causes an excess of _____ which are hypofunctional

A

mature-appearing lymphocytes

232
Q

Most common staging system used for CLL

A

Rai system

233
Q

Acute myelogenous leukemia is divided into seven subtypes using this classification

A

French-American-British (FAB) classification

234
Q

3 phases of chronic myelogenous leukemia

A
  1. chronic phase2. accelerated phase3. blast crisis
235
Q

Drug that can induce and maintain a remission of chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

Gleevec

236
Q

Only risk factor for CML

A

exposure to radiation

237
Q

Part of the body where the lymph normally collects in lymphedema

A

usually in the extremities

238
Q

Lymphangitis is caused by a ____ at the site of local trauma or ulceration

A

bacterial invasion

239
Q

2 main types of lymphoma

A
  1. Hodgkin’s disease2. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL)
240
Q

Staging system used to evaluate both types of lymphoma

A

Ann Arbor-Cotswolds staging system

241
Q

What are the 3 “B symptoms” of lymphoma?

A
  1. unexplained weight loss2. persistent or recurrent fevers3. night sweats
242
Q

The presence of ___ cells differentiates Hodgkin’s disease from other types of lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

243
Q

Treatment for multiple relapses of Hodgkin’s disease

A

bone marrow transplant

244
Q

3 categories for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma based on aggression

A
  1. indolent lymphomas2. aggressive3. highly aggressive
245
Q

What is the effect on the red blood cells of an antigen-antibody incompatibility reaction?

A

hemolysis or agglutination of the RBCs that obstructs the flow of blood through capillaries

246
Q

Most common type of hemophilia

A

classic hemophilia

247
Q

Clotting factor that is deficient in classic hemophilia

A

Factor VIII

248
Q

Cause of classic hemophilia

A

X-linked genetic inheritance (affects males)

249
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causes these 2 process to occur simultaneously

A
  1. hemorrhage2. thrombosis
250
Q

DIC occurs secondary to a ____

A

major event (obstetric complications, septicemia, trauma, etc.)

251
Q

reduction in quantity of either RBCs or hemoglobin

A

anemias

252
Q

anemia is not a disease, it is a ____ of various diseases

A

symptom

253
Q

3 color classifications of RBCs

A
  1. hypochromic2. normochromic3. hyperchromic
254
Q

3 size classifications of RBCs

A
  1. microcytic2. normocytic3. macrocytic
255
Q

4 causes of anemia

A
  1. acute or chronic blood loss2. impaired production of RBCs3. inherited hemolytic conditions4. anorexia nervosa
256
Q

6 types of anemia

A
  1. iron-deficiency2. folic-acid deficiency3. aplastic4. sickle cell5. hemorrhagic6. hemolytic
257
Q

type of anemia: secondary to blood loss through hemorrhage; insidious bleed and even heavy menstrual flow or insufficient intake of dietary iron

A

iron deficiency

258
Q

type of anemia: results when insufficient amounts of folic acid are available for DNA synthesis, thus preventing the maturation of blood cells

A

folic acid deficiency

259
Q

folic acid deficiency is clinically similar to ___ anemia

A

pernicious

260
Q

type of anemia: results from an insult to hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow

A

aplastic

261
Q

in aplastic anemia, production of these 3 cells are reduced

A
  1. erythrocyte2. leukocyte3. thrombocyte
262
Q

type of anemia: chronic HEREDITARY hemolytic form of anemia

A

sickle cell

263
Q

in sickle cell anemia, sickle or elongated shaped cells obstruct ____ and lead to tissue hypoxia

A

capillary flow

264
Q

type of anemia: results from large decline in blood volume or hypovolemia in a short time

A

hemorrhagic

265
Q

type of anemia: caused by abnormal destruction of RBCs

A

hemolytic

266
Q

3 other causes of hemolytic anemia

A
  1. heredity2. toxins3. certain bacteria
267
Q

blood dyscrasia in which leukocyte levels become extremely low; can have a rapid onset

A

agranulocytosis

268
Q

aagranulocytosis is also called ____

A

neutropenia

269
Q

2 causes of agranulocytosis

A
  1. drug toxicity2. hypersensitivity
270
Q

agranulocytosis is treated with aggressive ____ therapy

A

anti-microbial

271
Q

abnormal increase in amount of hemoglobin, RBC count, or hematocrit, causing an increase in RBC mass

A

polycythemia

272
Q

polycythemia is also known as ____

A

polycythemia vera

273
Q

polycythemia is caused by a sustained increase in _____ of bone marrow

A

hematopoiesis

274
Q

polycythemia is also caused when ____ is reduced by dehydration, plasma loss, burns, fluid and electrolyte imbalance

A

plasma volume

275
Q

family of drugs to treat polycythemia

A

myelosuppressive drugs

276
Q

polycythemia is treated through ____ to reduce blood volume

A

periodic phlebotomy

277
Q

overproduction of immature lymphoid cells in bone marrow and lymph nodes

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

278
Q

ALL tends to occur in ____ or those older than ____

A

children; 65

279
Q

contributing factors in ALL

A

radiation, exposure, chemicals, drugs, smoking, genetic factor

280
Q

diagnostic test for ALL

A

peripheral blood smear

281
Q

in ALL, aggressive chemo is used for 2 to 3 years and the central nervous system is treated ____

A

prophylactically

282
Q

type of radiation therapy to treat ALL

A

intracranial

283
Q

type of transplantation for adult ALL patients with poor prognostic features

A

allogenic bone marrow transplantation

284
Q

slowly progressing disease; neoplasm that involves lymphocytes; most patients are males

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

285
Q

CLL is caused by _____ changes

A

chromosomal

286
Q

CLL is caused by the deletion of chromosome #__

A

13

287
Q

2 diagnostic tests for CLL

A
  1. peripheral blood smear2. bone marrow studies
288
Q

treatment for CLL is held until ____

A

symptomatic

289
Q

rapidly progressive neoplasm of cells committed to the myeloid line of development

A

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

290
Q

in AML, leukemic cells accumulate in these 3 areas

A
  1. bone marrow2. peripheral blood3. other tissues
291
Q

3 other names for AML

A
  1. acute myeloid2. myelocytic3. granulocytic
292
Q

rapid accumulation of myeloblasts in AML lead to these 2 conditions

A
  1. pancytopenia2. anemia
293
Q

most common adult leukemia

A

AML

294
Q

risk factors for AML include family Hx, previous treatment with ionizing radiation, chemo, ovarian cancer, breast cancer and chronic exposure to _____

A

benzene

295
Q

many cases of AML are related to _____

A

treatment such as chemotherapy or radiation

296
Q

chemo is the first treatment approach to AML and ____ during the first remission may improve survival

A

bone marrow transplantation

297
Q

slowly progressing neoplasm arising in hematopoeitic stem cell or early progenitor cell

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

298
Q

2 other names for CML

A
  1. chronic myeloid2. myelocytic
299
Q

CML results in excess of mature-appearing but hypofunctioning ____

A

neutrophils

300
Q

CML occurs most often in adults over age ___

A

40

301
Q

CML is caused by exposure to ____ radiation

A

ionizing

302
Q

CML is associated with abnormal chromosome #___

A

22

303
Q

triphasic course for CML

A
  1. chronic2. accelerated3. blast
304
Q

only chance for complete CML cure

A

bone marrow transplantation

305
Q

bone marrow transplantation is an option for about __% of patients

A

25

306
Q

abnormal collection of lymph; usually in extremities

A

lymphedema

307
Q

in lymphedema, patient experiences no pain but extremities become swollen and ____

A

grossly distended

308
Q

t or f. lymphedema can only be inflammatory

A

f. lymphedema may be inflammatory or mechanical

309
Q

t or f. if untreated, lymphedema becomes permanent

A

t

310
Q

treatment for lymphedema is aimed at reducing ____

A

swelling

311
Q

the affected limb in lymphedema is elevated above the heart to encourage ____

A

drainage of lymph

312
Q

inflammation of lymph vessels

A

lymphangitis

313
Q

in lymphangitis, ____ may develop in surrounding tissue

A

cellulitis

314
Q

lymphangitis is caused by ____ into lymph vessels at the site of local trauma or ulceration

A

bacterial invasion

315
Q

t or f. occasionally, no portal of entry is detectable in lymphangitis

A

t

316
Q

family of drugs to treat lymphangitis

A

systemic antibiotics

317
Q

2 types of lymphoma

A
  1. hodgkins2. non-hodgkins
318
Q

cancer of the body’s lymphatic system in which tumors arise in lymph tissue and spread to other lymph nodes, spleen, liver and bone marrow

A

hodgkin’s disease

319
Q

2 peaks of incidence in hodgkin’s disease

A
  1. patients in their 20s2. patients over the age of 50
320
Q

4 risk factors in hodgkin’s disease

A
  1. previous Hx of malignancy2. prior chemo/radiation3. family Hx4. exposure to EPV
321
Q

stage 1 and 2 of hodgkin’s disease may be treated with ____ alone

A

radiation

322
Q

stages 1, 2, and 3 of hodgkin’s disease is treated with ____

A

combined chemoradiotherapy

323
Q

higher stages of hodgkins is treated with ____ alone

A

chemo

324
Q

preferred therapy for hodgkin’s

A

ABVC therapy

325
Q

number of heterogenous neoplasms of lymphoid cells

A

non-hodgkin’s disease (NHL)

326
Q

incidence of NHL reaches a peak in this group

A

preadolescents

327
Q

2 risk factors of NHL

A
  1. personal Hx2. family Hx3. previous chemo/radiation/immune therapy
328
Q

lymphomas where treatment is put on hold until symptomatic

A

indolent lymphomas

329
Q

type of chemotherapy to treat aggressive lymphomas

A

CHOP chemotherapy

330
Q

transfused blood has antibodies to the recipient’s RBCS; the recipient has antibodies to the donor RBCs

A

transfusion incompatibility reaction

331
Q

most severe transfusion incompatibility reactions are related and characterized by ____ or ____

A

hemolysis; agglutination

332
Q

ABO- and Rh- incompatible blood and antigens are not revealed in screening

A

transfusion incompatibility reaction

333
Q

reaction that produces hemolysis or agglutination

A

antigen-antibody reaction

334
Q

treatment for transfusion incompatibility reaction include ___ before a transfusion

A

transfusion protocol mandates

335
Q

family of drugs to treat mild transfusion incompatibility reaction

A

antihistamines

336
Q

hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from deficiency of clotting factors

A

classic hemophilia

337
Q

classic hemophilia is caused by this type of genetic disorder in males

A

x-linked

338
Q

classic hemophilia may also be caused when hemophilia is transmitted from asymptomatic carrier ____ to ____

A

mother to son

339
Q

classic hemophilia may also be caused when ____ is functionally inactive; any minor trauma can initiate a bleeding episode

A

clotting factor (factor viii)

340
Q

t or f. there is no cure for classic hemophilia

A

t

341
Q

treatment in classic hemophilia is to prevent ____

A

crippling deformities

342
Q

condition of simultaneous hemorrhage and thrombosis

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

343
Q

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs when ____ activates ____

A

thrombin; fibrin

344
Q

in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) thrombin activating fibrin causes ____ to form where it is not needed

A

clots

345
Q

thrombin in clots causes excessive ____ and additional bleeding

A

fibrinolysis

346
Q

4 predisposing factors

A
  1. hypotension2. hypoxemia3. acidosis4. stasis of capillary blood
347
Q

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is treated with IV _____

A

heparin

348
Q

2 other treatment options for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) when serious hemorrhage is present

A
  1. platelet replacement2. plasma clotting factors
349
Q

progressive impairment of immune system caused by HIV

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

350
Q

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) directly damages the _____ and is ultimately life threatening

A

nervous system

351
Q

cause for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

A

HIV types 1 or 2

352
Q

in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), HIV attacks ____, leaving the body defenseless against infection and malignancy

A

helper T lymphocytes

353
Q

t or f. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is cureable

A

t

354
Q

upon diagnosis of AIDS, the number of ___ and ___ present is measured to determine when to begin treatment

A
  1. CD4 T2. HIV RNA
355
Q

treatment for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS); classification of drugs

A

HAART drugs

356
Q

there are __ drug combinations in HAART treatment

A

3

357
Q

HAART is a combination of 2 ___ and 1 ___

A

nucleoside reductase inhibitors; protease inhibitor

358
Q

acquired b-cell deficiency resulting in decreased antibody production and/or function

A

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

359
Q

another name for common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

acquired hypogammaglobulinemia

360
Q

in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), the patient has a Hx of ____

A

chronic or current infections

361
Q

common symptom of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

GI disease

362
Q

2 peaks of incidence in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A
  1. ages 18-252. ages 1-5
363
Q

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is thought to be the result of genetic defects leading to these 2 conditions

A
  1. immune system dysregulation2. failure of B-cell differentiation
364
Q

t or f. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) treatment is aimed at preventing ____

A

infections

365
Q

failure to produce normal levels of IgA

A

selective immunoglobin A (IgA) deficiency

366
Q

t or f. the majority of IgA deficiency is symptomatic

A

t. asymptomatic

367
Q

inheritance that plays a role in IgA deficiency

A

autosomal dominant or recessive

368
Q

IgA deficiency is thought to progress to ______

A

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

369
Q

t or f. there is no cure for IgA deficiency

A

t

370
Q

near absence of serum immunoglobulins and increased susceptibility to infection

A

x-linked agammaglobulinemia

371
Q

another term for x-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

372
Q

infants with agammaglobulinemia have absent or near absent ____

A

tonsils and adenoids

373
Q

in x-linked agammaglobulinemia, congenital x-linked disorder only affects ____

A

males

374
Q

x-linked agammaglobulinemia occurs due to a defect in the ____ gene

A

bruton tyrosine kinase (BTK)

375
Q

treatment for x-linked agammaglobulinemia is aimed at improving child’s ____

A

immune defenses

376
Q

group of disorders that result from a disturbance in the development and function of both T and B cells

A

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

377
Q

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) manifests as severe, recurrent infections with these 6 factors

A
  1. bacteria2. viruses3. fungi4. protozoa5. chronic diarrhea6. failure to thrive
378
Q

2 common infections associated with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

A
  1. pneumocystis pneumonia2. mucocutaneous candidiasis
379
Q

2 types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

A
  1. x-linked2. autosomal recessive
380
Q

both types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) are due to ____

A

genetic mutations

381
Q

genetic mutations in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) lead to defects in ____ into B and T cells

A

stem cell differentiation

382
Q

only curative treatment for most types of severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs)

A

bone marrow transplantation

383
Q

congenital condition of immunodeficiency that results from defective development of the pharyngeal pouch system

A

DiGeorge’s anomaly

384
Q

another term for DiGeorge’s anomaly

A

thymic hypoplasia or aplasia

385
Q

children with DiGeorge’s anomaly have these 4 structural abnormalities

A
  1. abnormally wide set eyes2. downward slanting eyes3. low set ears with notched pinnas4. small mouth
386
Q

DiGeorge’s anomaly is the result of abnormal development of the _____ during the 12th week of gestation

A

third and fourth pharyngeal punches

387
Q

DiGeorge’s anomaly causes these 3 conditions

A
  1. cardiac anomalies2. hypoplastic thymus3. hypocalcemia
388
Q

in DiGeorge’s anomaly, ____ is treated to restore electrolyte balance and reduce risk of seizures

A

hypocalcemia

389
Q

2 types of transplantation to treat DiGeorge’s anomaly

A
  1. thymic 2. bone marrow
390
Q

group of disorders characterized by persistent and recurrent candidal (fungal) infections of the skin, nails and mucous membranes

A

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC)

391
Q

in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC), symptoms develop during the first ___ years of life

A

2 to 3

392
Q

individuals with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) have a ____ deficit specific to ____ making them susceptible to infection

A

t-cell deficit; candida albicans

393
Q

treatment for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) is directed at eliminating infections along with correcting _____

A

immunologic defects

394
Q

congenital disorder characterized by inadequate B and T cell function

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

395
Q

in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, the child expereinces these 3 conditions

A
  1. eczema2. thrombocytopenia3. increased susceptibility to bacterial/viral infections
396
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an ____ trait affecting only males

A

x-linked inherited trait

397
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is caused by mutations in gene encoding the _____

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Protein (WASP)

398
Q

the only curative therapy for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

bone marrow transplantation

399
Q

2 diagnostic tests for HIV/AIDS

A
  1. ELISA2. Western Blot Test
400
Q

diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

A

ELISA

401
Q

diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: done to confirm positive ELISA result

A

Western Blot Test

402
Q

autoimmune condition where RBCs are destroyed by antibodies

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

403
Q

2 types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A
  1. warm antibody anemia2. cold antibody anemia
404
Q

in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, RBC’s are destroyed by antibodies which causes ____ to the cells

A

agglutination

405
Q

diagnostic test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Coombs test

406
Q

warm anemia is treated with these 2 families of drugs

A
  1. corticosteroids2. cytotoxic drugs
407
Q

2 warm anemia treatments

A
  1. splenectomy2. IV immune globulin administration
408
Q

cold anemia is treated by avoiding ____

A

cold

409
Q

in cold anemia, _____ is helpful for reducing hemolysis

A

plasmapheresis

410
Q

anemia caused by chronic atrophic gastritis

A

pernicious anemia

411
Q

in pernicious anemia, production of ____ and ____ are decreased

A
  1. HCI acid2. intrinsic factor
412
Q

pernicious anemia results in ___ deficiency

A

vitamin B12

413
Q

vitamin B12 required for ____ is deficient; causing RBCs to be deformed and reduced in number

A

RBC formation

414
Q

majority of patients with pernicious anemia have ____ which are cytotoxic to the ____

A

antiparietal cell antibodies; parietal cells

415
Q

pernicious anemia is associated with these 2 other diseases

A
  1. Grave’s disease2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
416
Q

diagnostic test for pernicious anemia

A

schilling test

417
Q

treatment for pernicious anemia

A

B12 injection

418
Q

acquired disorder that results from isolated deficiency of platelets

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

419
Q

_____ with unknown cause in a patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) requires medical attention

A

multiple bruising

420
Q

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) may occur after ____

A

viral infections like rubella or mumps

421
Q

in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), ____ is administered to help with clotting

A

vitamin K

422
Q

decreased number of circulating neutrophils caused by production of anti-neutrophil antibodies

A

immune neutropenia

423
Q

in immune neutropenia, there is an almost complete absence of ____ in the blood

A

neutrophils

424
Q

rare disorder caused by trans-placental transfer of maternal IgG that reacts with fetal neutrophils

A

isoimmune neutropenia

425
Q

immune neutropenia is often associated with this

A

accelerated turnover of neutrophils or increased neutrophil production

426
Q

3 treatment options for immune neutropenia

A
  1. corticosteroids2. immune globulin3. G-CSF
427
Q

autoimmune kidney disease characterized by presence of antibodies directed against an antigen in glomerular basement membrane (GBM)

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

428
Q

another name for Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

anti-GBM antibody disease

429
Q

t or f. there is no known cause for Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

t

430
Q

3 treatment options for Goodpasture’s syndrome

A
  1. plasmapheresis with immunosuppressive agents2. hemodialysis 3. kidney transplants
431
Q

chronic, autoimmune disease characterized by unusual autoantibodies in the blood that target tissues of the body

A

systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE)

432
Q

systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE) is informally known as ____

A

lupus

433
Q

3 factors that may predispose individuals to lupus

A
  1. genetic2. hormonal3. environmental
434
Q

to prevent the exacerbation of lupus, avoid unnecessary _____

A

light exposure

435
Q

patterns of ____ occurs with SLE

A

butterfly rash

436
Q

immunosuppressive meds would be required to treat SLE when _____ is present

A

organ-threatening disease

437
Q

Chronic, progressive disease characterized by mostly sclerosis (hardening) of skin, with scarring of certain internal organs.

A

scleroderma

438
Q

another term for scleroderma

A

systemic sclerosis

439
Q

scleroderma is classified these 2 ways

A
  1. diffuse2. limited
440
Q

scleroderma that involves symmetric thickening of skin of extremities, face and trunk

A

diffuse

441
Q

scleroderma that tends to be confined to the skin of fingers and face

A

limited

442
Q

t or f. scleroderma is an autoimmune disease

A

t

443
Q

prognosis of scleroderma depends on the ____ affected

A

organs

444
Q

autoimmune disease featuring inflammation in various glands of the body

A

Sjögren’s syndrome

445
Q

in Sjögren’s syndrome, this is the main result of inflammation of the glands

A

dryness

446
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome is often associated with this condition

A

rheumatoid arthritis

447
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome is more common in families that have a member with an _____

A

autoimmune disorder

448
Q

treatment for Sjögren’s syndrome include relieving symptoms where there is____, such as increasing fluid intake, chewing gum and using oral sprays

A

dryness

449
Q

2 families of drugs to lessen immune inflammation in Sjögren’s syndrome

A
  1. prednisone2. antimalarial medications
450
Q

chronic inflammatory, systemic disease that affects the joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

451
Q

one of the most severe forms of arthritis causing deformity and disability

A

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

452
Q

rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is __ times more common in females than maes

A

3x

453
Q

if untreated, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can cause these 3 conditions

A
  1. destruction of cartilage2. joint deformity3. destruction of adjacent bone
454
Q

form of rheumatoid arthritis that affects children less than 16 years old

A

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)

455
Q

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) begins most commonly between the ages ____

A

2 to 5

456
Q

in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), it is believed that the _____ in the joints are related to an autoimmune disease

A

pathologic changes

457
Q

heredity may play a role in some children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), particularly those with this condition

A

spondylitis

458
Q

in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), braces or splints may be needed to correct ____ and _____

A
  1. growth disturbances2. joint contracture
459
Q

t or f. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is treated exactly as adult rheumatoid arthritis

A

t

460
Q

systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease affecting primarily the spinal column

A

ankylosing spondylitis

461
Q

ankylosing spondylitis typically affects the ____ area of the spine first

A

sacroiliac

462
Q

in ankylosing spondylitis, periods of _____ occur

A

exacerbation; remission

463
Q

ankylosing spondylitis may be related to genetic basis and an association with these genes

A

HLA-B27

464
Q

disease of muscle that features inflammation of the muscle fibres

A

polymositis

465
Q

in polymositis, muscle fibers affected are mostly closest to the ____

A

trunk and torso

466
Q

polymositis is ____; there are cycles of flares, relapses and remissions

A

cyclical

467
Q

polymositis occurs when ____ spontaneously invade and injure muscles

A

WBC

468
Q

screening for polymositis must rule out ____

A

cancer

469
Q

inflammatory disease of the CNS that attacks the myelin sheath

A

multiple sclerosis

470
Q

4 types of multiple sclerosis

A
  1. relapsing-remitting-relapsing2. primary-progressive3. secondary-progressive4. progressive-relapsing-progressive
471
Q

multiple sclerosis is an ____ that increases one’s susceptibility to the disease

A

inherited trait

472
Q

2/3rds of multiple sclerosis develop from ages ____

A

20 to 40

473
Q

therapy used to treat multiple sclerosis

A

immunosuppressive

474
Q

chronic progressive neuromuscular disease that stem from the presence of autoantibodies to the acetylcholine receptor

A

myasthenia gravis

475
Q

myasthenia gravis is characterized by extreme muscular weakness without ____

A

atrophy

476
Q

myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune mechanism in which a faulty transmission of nerve impulse to and from the CNS, especially in the ____

A

neuromuscular junction

477
Q

myasthenia gravis is associated with these 2 conditions

A
  1. thymus hyperplasia2. thymoma
478
Q

family of drugs to treat myasthenia gravis

A

anticholinesterase drugs

479
Q

surgical intervention to treat the tumor in the thymus gland in myasthenia gravis

A

thymectomy

480
Q

inflammation in the walls of the blood vessels

A

vasculitis

481
Q

2 types of vasculitis

A
  1. small vessel2. systemic necrotizing
482
Q

vasiculitis in which the affected vessel becomes necrotic when it is obstructed by a thrombus and results in an infarct of adjacent tissue

A

small vessel vasculitis

483
Q

small vessel vasculitis affects these 3 areas

A
  1. capillaries2. arterioles3. venules
484
Q

vasculitis that primarily affects medium and large arteries

A

systemic necrotizing vasculitis

485
Q

systemic necrotizing vasculitis occurs in ____ and ____ conditions

A

cutaneous; systemic

486
Q

systemic necrotizing vasculitis can result in these 2 conditions

A
  1. ulceration2. paralysis of an affected nerve
487
Q

some forms of systemic necrotizing vasculitis are related to these 2 factors

A
  1. amphetamine use2. development of hepatitis b and c
488
Q

2 tests to diagnose systemic necrotizing vasculitis

A
  1. CBC ESR RA factor determinaton2. serum tests for immunoglobulin
489
Q

treatment for systemic necrotizing vasculitis involves decreasing the ____ of the arteries

A

inflammaton