Blood | Hematology and Immunology Flashcards
immun/o
protection
lymph/o
lymph
lymphaden/o
lymph node gland
splen/o
spleen
thym/o
thymus gland
tox/o
poison
ana-
again/anew
inter-
between
pathology pg
560
tests pg
562
AIDS
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
CMV
cytomegalovirus
GVHD
graft versus host disease
HD
Hodgkin disease
Histo
histoplasmosis
HIV
human immunodeficiency virus
HSV
herpes simplex virus
Ig
immunoglobulin
KS
Kaposi sarcoma
NHL
non-Hodgkin lymphoma
PCP
Pneumocystis pneumonia
TB
tuberculosis
Toxo
toxoplasmosis
measures number of CD4+ T cells (helper T cells) in the bloodstream of patients with AIDS
CD4+ cell count
screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in bloodstream
ELISA
test separating immunoglobulins IgM IgG IgE IgA IgD
immunoelectrophoresis
measurement of the amount of AIDS virus (HIV) in bloodstream
viral load test
xray imaging produces cross-sectional and other views of anatomic structures
computed tomography (CT) scan
bas/o
base
chrom/o
color
coagul/o
clotting
cyt/o
cell
eosin/o
red, dawn, rosy
erythr/o
red
granul/o
granules
hem/o
blood
hemoglobin/o
hemoglobin
is/o
same, equal
kary/o
nucleus
leuk/o
white
mon/o
one, single
morph/o
shape, form
myel/o
bone marrow
neutr/o
neutral (neither base nor acid)
nucle/o
nucleus
phag/o
eat, swallow
poikil/o
varied, irregular
sider/o
iron
spher/o
globe, round
thromb/o
clot
-apheresis
removal; carrying away
-blast
immature cell; embryonic
-phoresis
carrying; transmission
-cystosis
abnormal condition of cells; increase in cells
-emia
blood condition
-gen
giving rise to; producing
-globin/-globulin
protein
-lytic
pertaining to destruction
-oid
derived or originating from
-osis
abnormal condition
-penia
deficiency
-phage
eat; swallow
-philia
attraction for (an increase in cell numbers)
-poiesis
formation
-stasis
stop; control
pathology pg
515
tests pg
520
baso
basophils
BMT
bone marrow transplant
CBC
complete blood count
diff
differential count (wbcs)
eos
eosinophils
ESR
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (“sed rate”)
Hct
hematrocrit
HGB, Hgb
hemoglobin
IgA
immunoglobulin A
IgD
immunoglobulin D
IgE
immunoglobulin E
IgG
immunoglobulin G
IgM
immunoglobulin M
lymphs
lymphocytes
mono
monocyte
PT
prothrombin time
PTT
partial thromboplastin time
RBC
red blood cell; red blood cell count
WBC
white blood cells; white blood cell count
WNL
within normal limits
test for presence of antibodies that coat and damage erythrocytes
antiglobulin test or Coombs test
time required for blood to stop flowing from a tiny puncture wound
bleeding time
time required for venous blood to clot in a test tube
coagulation time
numbers of blood cells, hemoglobin concentration, hematocrit and red cell values
complete blood count (CBC)
speed at which erythrocytes settle out of plasma
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood
hematocrit Hct
total amount of hemoglobin in sample of peripheral blood
hemoglobin test
number of platelets per cubic millimeter or microliter of blood
platelet count
test of ability of blood to clot
prothrombin time (PT)
number of erythrocytes per cubic mm or microliter of blood
red blood cell count (RBC)
microscopic examination of a stained blood smear to determine the shape of individual red cells
red blood cell morphology
number of leukocytes per cubic mm or microliter of blood
white blood cell count (WBC)
percentages of different types of leukocytes in the blood
white blood cell differential [count]
separation of blood into component parts and removal of a select portion from the blood
apheresis
whole blood or cells are taken from a donor and infused into a patient
blood transfusion
microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle
bone marrow biopsy
peripheral stem cells from compatible donor are administered to a recipient
hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
bone marrow cells used rather than peripheral stem cell
bone marrow transplantation
Whole blood can be dividedinto two main components:
- the liquid portion, or plasma (55%)2. formed elements, or bloodcells (45%).
Plasma is about __% water. The remaining __% contains nutrients, electrolytes (dissolved salts), gases,albumin (a protein), clotting factors, antibodies, wastes, enzymes, and hormones.
90% water, 10% nutrients electrolytes (dissolved salts), gases, albumin, clotting factors, antibodies, wastes, enzymes and hormones.
The pH (relative acidity) of the plasma remains steady atabout ___.
7.4
The blood cells are _____, or red blood cells; _____, or white blood cells; and platelets,also called _____.
erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes
All blood cells are produced in ______.
red bone marrow
Some white blood cells multiplyin _____ as well.
lymphoid tissue
The major function of erythrocytes is to _______.
carry oxygen to cells
Oxygen from red blood cells is bound to an iron-containing pigment within the cells called ______.
hemoglobin
T or F. Erythrocytes are small, disk-shaped cells with no nucleus.
True
T or F. Red blood cell concentration of about 5 million per µL (cubic millimeter) of blood makes them by far the most numerousof the blood cells.
True
A red blood cell gradually wears out and dies in about ___ days, so these cells must be constantly replaced.
120
Production of red cells in the bone marrow is regulated by the hormone ______, which ismade in the kidneys.
erythropoietin (EPO)
T or F. White blood cells all show prominent nuclei when stained.
True.
Leukocytes are identified bythe ____, _____ and by their _____ properties.
- size2. appearance of the nucleus3. staining properties
List the five different types of leukocytes.
- granular leukocytes/granulocytes2. agranulocytes
These leukocytes have visible granules in the cytoplasm when stained
Granulocytes
These leukocytes don’t have visible granules when stained.
Agranulocytes
List the three types of granulocytes:
- neutrophils,2. eosinophils3. basophilsBENG baso, eosino, neutro, granulocytes
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are named for ____
the kind of stain they take up
List two types of agranulocytes. lymphocytes and monocytes.
- lymphocytes2. monocytesgrand MAL, monocytes, agranuloctes, lymphocytes
T or F. White blood cells protect against foreign substances.
True
Some white blood cells engulf foreign material by the process of _____.
phagocytosis
T or F. In diagnosis it isn’t important to know the total number of leukocytes and the relative number of each type
False. It is important to know these because these numbers can change in different disease conditions.
The most numerous white blood cells
neutrophils
Neutrophils are also called _____ because of their various-shaped nuclei. They are also referred to as:
polymorphs. Also called segs, polys, or PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes)
An immature neutrophil with a solid curved nucleus, large numbers of which indicate an active infection.
A band cell, also called a stab or staff cell
What is the function of neutrophils?
phagocytosis
What is the function of eosinophils?
allergic reactions; defense against parasites
What is the function of basophils?
allergic reactions
What is the function of lymphocytes?
immunity
What is the function of monocytes?
phagocytosis
Fragments of larger cells formed in the bone marrow.
blood platelets or thrombocytes
Platelets are important in ____ and ____.
- hemostasis2. coagulation.
The prevention of blood loss
hemostasis
Process of blood clotting
coagulation
When a vessel is injured, platelets _____ to form a ____ at the site.
When a vessel is injured, platelets stick together to form a plug at the site.
Substances released from the_____ and _____ interact with clotting factors in the plasma to produce a wound-sealingclot.
platelets and damaged tissue
Clotting factors are ____ in the blood until an injury occurs.
inactive
To protect against unwanted clot formation, _____ must interact before blood coagulates.
12 different factors
The final reaction is the conversion of _____ to ____ that trap blood cells and plasma to produce the clot.
fibrinogen to threads of fibrin
What remains of the plasma after blood coagulates
serum
__________ on the surface of red blood cells determine blood type.
genetically inherited proteins
20+ groups of blood type proteins have now been identified, but the most familiar are the __ and __ blood groups.
ABO and Rh
List the types in the ABO system.
ABABO
List the two Rh types.
- Rh positive (Rh+)2. Rh negative (Rh−)
T or F. In giving blood transfusions, it is important to use blood that is the same type as the recipient’s blood or a type to which the recipient will not show an immune reaction.
True.
Compatible blood types are determined by _______.
cross-matching
______ may be used to replace a large volume of bloodlost.
whole blood
In most cases requiring blood transfusion, a _____ such as packed red cells, platelets, plasma, or specific clotting factors is administered.
blood fraction
Some defenses against foreign matter are _____, that is,they protect against any intruder.
nonspecific
List some nonspecific defenses.
- unbroken SKIN2. blood-filtering LYMPHOID TISSUE3. CILIA and MUCUS that trap foreign material4. bactericidal body SECRETIONS4. REFLEXES eg coughing and sneezingsslcmr
Specific attacks on disease organisms are mounted by the ________.
immune system
The immune response involvescomplex interactions between ________ and _____.
components of the lymphatic system and blood
Any foreign particle mayact as an _____, that is, a substance that provokes a response by the immune system.
antigen
Immune system responses comefrom these two types of lymphocytes that circulate in the blood and lymphatic system.
- T cells (T lymphocytes)2. B cells(B lymphocytes)
T cells mature in the _______.
thymus gland
T-cells are capable of attacking a foreign cell ______, producing _______.
T cells are capable of attacking a foreign cell directly, producing cell-mediated immunity.
Descendants of monocytes and are important in the function of T cells.
macrophages
Macrophages take in and process ______.
foreign antigens
A T cell is activated when it contacts an _____ on thesurface of a _____ in combination with some of the body’s own proteins.
antigen, macrophage
The B cells mature in ______.
lymphoid tissue
When B-cells meet a foreign antigen they _____, transforming into _____.
multiply rapidly, plasma cells
B cells produce ______that inactivate an antigen.
antibodies (also called immunoglobulins (Ig)
Antibodies remain in the blood, often providing ______ to the specific organism against which they were formed.
long-term immunity
Antibody-based immunity is referred to as ______.
humoral immunity
What are the three functions of blood?
- transportation2. protection3. regulation
Blood is a _____ tissue
connective
What are the 3 steps in clotting?
- vasoconstriction2. platelet plug formation3. coagulation
Coagulation needs ____ ions
calcium
What are the 3 steps in coagulation?
- prothrombin > thrombin2. thrombin converts fibrinogen > fibrin3. fibrin threads > mesh > clot
Clot is dissolved after healing has taken place
fibrinolysis
T or F. Rh - blood is given to Rh- patients and Rh+ blood is given to Rh+ patients
true
If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-A serum, you have type _ blood.
A
If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-B serum, you have type _ blood.
B
If your blood cells stick together when mixed with anti-A and anti-B serum, you have type _ blood.
AB
If your blood cells do not stick together when mixed with anti-A serum, you have type _ blood.
O
Reduction in the amount of hemoglobin due to blood loss, hemolysis, improper formation of new RBCs due to iron or vitamin deficiency
anemia
Inability to clot blood
hemophelia
Large number of cancerous WBCs
leukemia
A cell that is formed from a B cell that produces antibodies
platelet
The cellular components of blood
formed elements
-emia, -hemia
condition of blood
-penia
decrease in, deficiency of
-poiesis
formation, production
myel/o
bone marrow
hem/o, hemat/o
blood
erythr/o, erythrocyt/o
red blood cell
leuk/o, leukocyt/o
white blood cell
lymph/o, lymphocyt/o
lymphocyte
thromb/o
blood clot
thrombocyt/o
platelet, thrombocyte
immun/o
immunity, immune system
azot/o
nitrogen compounds
calc/i
calcium
ferr/o, ferr/i
iron
sider/o
iron
kali
potassium
natri
sodium
ox/y
oxygen
AIDS
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Nonspecific line of defense found in skin and mucous membranes
first line of defense or innate immunity
Natural killer cells and phagocytosis are considered the ____ line of defense in innate immunity
second line of defense
Line of defense specific towards a disease or other foreign substance. Has a memory
third line of defense or adaptive immunity
T or F. Memory T-cells activate quicker during a second encounter with a specific antigen.
True
What are the 2 types of adaptive immunity?
- natural adaptive immunity2. artificial adaptive immunityboth types can be active or passive
Anemia can be a reduction of these 2 mechanisms
- quantity of rbc2. quantity of hemoglobin
Anemia can be classified by what three characteristics
- colour2. size3. cause
3 classifications of colour in anemia
- hypochromic2. normochromic3. hyperchromic
3 classifications of size in anemia
- microcytic2. normocytic3. macrocytic
2 main causes of iron deficiency anemia
- blood loss2. insufficient dietary intake of iron
What type of blood loss occurs in iron deficiency anemia?
slow, chronic hemorrhage
In folic acid deficiency anemia, red blood cells are prevented from maturing as there is not enough folic acid available for _____
DNA synthesis
Aplastic anemia is caused by an insult to the ____ cells in the bone marrow
hematopoietic
Sickle cell anemia can be caused by heredity; there is an inherited trait that causes red blood cells to acquire a sickle or elongated shape on _____
deoxygenation
Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by an acute, large decline in ____ in a short time
blood volume
Hemolytic anemia is caused by ____ of the red blood cells
abnormal destruction
Another term for agrunolocytosis
neutropenia
2 causes of agrunolocytosis
- drug toxicity2. hypersensitivity
Polycythemia vera is an absolute increase in red blood cell mass due to an increase of what 3 substances?
- hemoglobin2. rbc count3. hematocrit
Cause of primary (absolute) polycythemia
unknown
Cause of relative polycythemia
reduction of plasma volume
Leukemia is classified by the ___ type and the degree of ___ of the ____ cells
cell type, degree of differentiation, neoplastic cells
Leukemia with a rapid onset and progression
acute leukemias
Leukemia where progression is slower, measured in years rather than months
chronic leukemias
ALL is an overproduction of ____ cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes
immature lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts)
CLL causes an excess of _____ which are hypofunctional
mature-appearing lymphocytes
Most common staging system used for CLL
Rai system
Acute myelogenous leukemia is divided into seven subtypes using this classification
French-American-British (FAB) classification
3 phases of chronic myelogenous leukemia
- chronic phase2. accelerated phase3. blast crisis
Drug that can induce and maintain a remission of chronic myelogenous leukemia
Gleevec
Only risk factor for CML
exposure to radiation
Part of the body where the lymph normally collects in lymphedema
usually in the extremities
Lymphangitis is caused by a ____ at the site of local trauma or ulceration
bacterial invasion
2 main types of lymphoma
- Hodgkin’s disease2. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL)
Staging system used to evaluate both types of lymphoma
Ann Arbor-Cotswolds staging system
What are the 3 “B symptoms” of lymphoma?
- unexplained weight loss2. persistent or recurrent fevers3. night sweats
The presence of ___ cells differentiates Hodgkin’s disease from other types of lymphoma
Reed-Sternberg cells
Treatment for multiple relapses of Hodgkin’s disease
bone marrow transplant
3 categories for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma based on aggression
- indolent lymphomas2. aggressive3. highly aggressive
What is the effect on the red blood cells of an antigen-antibody incompatibility reaction?
hemolysis or agglutination of the RBCs that obstructs the flow of blood through capillaries
Most common type of hemophilia
classic hemophilia
Clotting factor that is deficient in classic hemophilia
Factor VIII
Cause of classic hemophilia
X-linked genetic inheritance (affects males)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causes these 2 process to occur simultaneously
- hemorrhage2. thrombosis
DIC occurs secondary to a ____
major event (obstetric complications, septicemia, trauma, etc.)
reduction in quantity of either RBCs or hemoglobin
anemias
anemia is not a disease, it is a ____ of various diseases
symptom
3 color classifications of RBCs
- hypochromic2. normochromic3. hyperchromic
3 size classifications of RBCs
- microcytic2. normocytic3. macrocytic
4 causes of anemia
- acute or chronic blood loss2. impaired production of RBCs3. inherited hemolytic conditions4. anorexia nervosa
6 types of anemia
- iron-deficiency2. folic-acid deficiency3. aplastic4. sickle cell5. hemorrhagic6. hemolytic
type of anemia: secondary to blood loss through hemorrhage; insidious bleed and even heavy menstrual flow or insufficient intake of dietary iron
iron deficiency
type of anemia: results when insufficient amounts of folic acid are available for DNA synthesis, thus preventing the maturation of blood cells
folic acid deficiency
folic acid deficiency is clinically similar to ___ anemia
pernicious
type of anemia: results from an insult to hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow
aplastic
in aplastic anemia, production of these 3 cells are reduced
- erythrocyte2. leukocyte3. thrombocyte
type of anemia: chronic HEREDITARY hemolytic form of anemia
sickle cell
in sickle cell anemia, sickle or elongated shaped cells obstruct ____ and lead to tissue hypoxia
capillary flow
type of anemia: results from large decline in blood volume or hypovolemia in a short time
hemorrhagic
type of anemia: caused by abnormal destruction of RBCs
hemolytic
3 other causes of hemolytic anemia
- heredity2. toxins3. certain bacteria
blood dyscrasia in which leukocyte levels become extremely low; can have a rapid onset
agranulocytosis
aagranulocytosis is also called ____
neutropenia
2 causes of agranulocytosis
- drug toxicity2. hypersensitivity
agranulocytosis is treated with aggressive ____ therapy
anti-microbial
abnormal increase in amount of hemoglobin, RBC count, or hematocrit, causing an increase in RBC mass
polycythemia
polycythemia is also known as ____
polycythemia vera
polycythemia is caused by a sustained increase in _____ of bone marrow
hematopoiesis
polycythemia is also caused when ____ is reduced by dehydration, plasma loss, burns, fluid and electrolyte imbalance
plasma volume
family of drugs to treat polycythemia
myelosuppressive drugs
polycythemia is treated through ____ to reduce blood volume
periodic phlebotomy
overproduction of immature lymphoid cells in bone marrow and lymph nodes
acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
ALL tends to occur in ____ or those older than ____
children; 65
contributing factors in ALL
radiation, exposure, chemicals, drugs, smoking, genetic factor
diagnostic test for ALL
peripheral blood smear
in ALL, aggressive chemo is used for 2 to 3 years and the central nervous system is treated ____
prophylactically
type of radiation therapy to treat ALL
intracranial
type of transplantation for adult ALL patients with poor prognostic features
allogenic bone marrow transplantation
slowly progressing disease; neoplasm that involves lymphocytes; most patients are males
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
CLL is caused by _____ changes
chromosomal
CLL is caused by the deletion of chromosome #__
13
2 diagnostic tests for CLL
- peripheral blood smear2. bone marrow studies
treatment for CLL is held until ____
symptomatic
rapidly progressive neoplasm of cells committed to the myeloid line of development
acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
in AML, leukemic cells accumulate in these 3 areas
- bone marrow2. peripheral blood3. other tissues
3 other names for AML
- acute myeloid2. myelocytic3. granulocytic
rapid accumulation of myeloblasts in AML lead to these 2 conditions
- pancytopenia2. anemia
most common adult leukemia
AML
risk factors for AML include family Hx, previous treatment with ionizing radiation, chemo, ovarian cancer, breast cancer and chronic exposure to _____
benzene
many cases of AML are related to _____
treatment such as chemotherapy or radiation
chemo is the first treatment approach to AML and ____ during the first remission may improve survival
bone marrow transplantation
slowly progressing neoplasm arising in hematopoeitic stem cell or early progenitor cell
chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
2 other names for CML
- chronic myeloid2. myelocytic
CML results in excess of mature-appearing but hypofunctioning ____
neutrophils
CML occurs most often in adults over age ___
40
CML is caused by exposure to ____ radiation
ionizing
CML is associated with abnormal chromosome #___
22
triphasic course for CML
- chronic2. accelerated3. blast
only chance for complete CML cure
bone marrow transplantation
bone marrow transplantation is an option for about __% of patients
25
abnormal collection of lymph; usually in extremities
lymphedema
in lymphedema, patient experiences no pain but extremities become swollen and ____
grossly distended
t or f. lymphedema can only be inflammatory
f. lymphedema may be inflammatory or mechanical
t or f. if untreated, lymphedema becomes permanent
t
treatment for lymphedema is aimed at reducing ____
swelling
the affected limb in lymphedema is elevated above the heart to encourage ____
drainage of lymph
inflammation of lymph vessels
lymphangitis
in lymphangitis, ____ may develop in surrounding tissue
cellulitis
lymphangitis is caused by ____ into lymph vessels at the site of local trauma or ulceration
bacterial invasion
t or f. occasionally, no portal of entry is detectable in lymphangitis
t
family of drugs to treat lymphangitis
systemic antibiotics
2 types of lymphoma
- hodgkins2. non-hodgkins
cancer of the body’s lymphatic system in which tumors arise in lymph tissue and spread to other lymph nodes, spleen, liver and bone marrow
hodgkin’s disease
2 peaks of incidence in hodgkin’s disease
- patients in their 20s2. patients over the age of 50
4 risk factors in hodgkin’s disease
- previous Hx of malignancy2. prior chemo/radiation3. family Hx4. exposure to EPV
stage 1 and 2 of hodgkin’s disease may be treated with ____ alone
radiation
stages 1, 2, and 3 of hodgkin’s disease is treated with ____
combined chemoradiotherapy
higher stages of hodgkins is treated with ____ alone
chemo
preferred therapy for hodgkin’s
ABVC therapy
number of heterogenous neoplasms of lymphoid cells
non-hodgkin’s disease (NHL)
incidence of NHL reaches a peak in this group
preadolescents
2 risk factors of NHL
- personal Hx2. family Hx3. previous chemo/radiation/immune therapy
lymphomas where treatment is put on hold until symptomatic
indolent lymphomas
type of chemotherapy to treat aggressive lymphomas
CHOP chemotherapy
transfused blood has antibodies to the recipient’s RBCS; the recipient has antibodies to the donor RBCs
transfusion incompatibility reaction
most severe transfusion incompatibility reactions are related and characterized by ____ or ____
hemolysis; agglutination
ABO- and Rh- incompatible blood and antigens are not revealed in screening
transfusion incompatibility reaction
reaction that produces hemolysis or agglutination
antigen-antibody reaction
treatment for transfusion incompatibility reaction include ___ before a transfusion
transfusion protocol mandates
family of drugs to treat mild transfusion incompatibility reaction
antihistamines
hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from deficiency of clotting factors
classic hemophilia
classic hemophilia is caused by this type of genetic disorder in males
x-linked
classic hemophilia may also be caused when hemophilia is transmitted from asymptomatic carrier ____ to ____
mother to son
classic hemophilia may also be caused when ____ is functionally inactive; any minor trauma can initiate a bleeding episode
clotting factor (factor viii)
t or f. there is no cure for classic hemophilia
t
treatment in classic hemophilia is to prevent ____
crippling deformities
condition of simultaneous hemorrhage and thrombosis
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs when ____ activates ____
thrombin; fibrin
in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) thrombin activating fibrin causes ____ to form where it is not needed
clots
thrombin in clots causes excessive ____ and additional bleeding
fibrinolysis
4 predisposing factors
- hypotension2. hypoxemia3. acidosis4. stasis of capillary blood
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is treated with IV _____
heparin
2 other treatment options for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) when serious hemorrhage is present
- platelet replacement2. plasma clotting factors
progressive impairment of immune system caused by HIV
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) directly damages the _____ and is ultimately life threatening
nervous system
cause for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
HIV types 1 or 2
in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), HIV attacks ____, leaving the body defenseless against infection and malignancy
helper T lymphocytes
t or f. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is cureable
t
upon diagnosis of AIDS, the number of ___ and ___ present is measured to determine when to begin treatment
- CD4 T2. HIV RNA
treatment for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS); classification of drugs
HAART drugs
there are __ drug combinations in HAART treatment
3
HAART is a combination of 2 ___ and 1 ___
nucleoside reductase inhibitors; protease inhibitor
acquired b-cell deficiency resulting in decreased antibody production and/or function
common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
another name for common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
acquired hypogammaglobulinemia
in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), the patient has a Hx of ____
chronic or current infections
common symptom of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
GI disease
2 peaks of incidence in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
- ages 18-252. ages 1-5
common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is thought to be the result of genetic defects leading to these 2 conditions
- immune system dysregulation2. failure of B-cell differentiation
t or f. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) treatment is aimed at preventing ____
infections
failure to produce normal levels of IgA
selective immunoglobin A (IgA) deficiency
t or f. the majority of IgA deficiency is symptomatic
t. asymptomatic
inheritance that plays a role in IgA deficiency
autosomal dominant or recessive
IgA deficiency is thought to progress to ______
common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
t or f. there is no cure for IgA deficiency
t
near absence of serum immunoglobulins and increased susceptibility to infection
x-linked agammaglobulinemia
another term for x-linked agammaglobulinemia
bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
infants with agammaglobulinemia have absent or near absent ____
tonsils and adenoids
in x-linked agammaglobulinemia, congenital x-linked disorder only affects ____
males
x-linked agammaglobulinemia occurs due to a defect in the ____ gene
bruton tyrosine kinase (BTK)
treatment for x-linked agammaglobulinemia is aimed at improving child’s ____
immune defenses
group of disorders that result from a disturbance in the development and function of both T and B cells
severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) manifests as severe, recurrent infections with these 6 factors
- bacteria2. viruses3. fungi4. protozoa5. chronic diarrhea6. failure to thrive
2 common infections associated with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
- pneumocystis pneumonia2. mucocutaneous candidiasis
2 types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
- x-linked2. autosomal recessive
both types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) are due to ____
genetic mutations
genetic mutations in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) lead to defects in ____ into B and T cells
stem cell differentiation
only curative treatment for most types of severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs)
bone marrow transplantation
congenital condition of immunodeficiency that results from defective development of the pharyngeal pouch system
DiGeorge’s anomaly
another term for DiGeorge’s anomaly
thymic hypoplasia or aplasia
children with DiGeorge’s anomaly have these 4 structural abnormalities
- abnormally wide set eyes2. downward slanting eyes3. low set ears with notched pinnas4. small mouth
DiGeorge’s anomaly is the result of abnormal development of the _____ during the 12th week of gestation
third and fourth pharyngeal punches
DiGeorge’s anomaly causes these 3 conditions
- cardiac anomalies2. hypoplastic thymus3. hypocalcemia
in DiGeorge’s anomaly, ____ is treated to restore electrolyte balance and reduce risk of seizures
hypocalcemia
2 types of transplantation to treat DiGeorge’s anomaly
- thymic 2. bone marrow
group of disorders characterized by persistent and recurrent candidal (fungal) infections of the skin, nails and mucous membranes
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC)
in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC), symptoms develop during the first ___ years of life
2 to 3
individuals with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) have a ____ deficit specific to ____ making them susceptible to infection
t-cell deficit; candida albicans
treatment for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) is directed at eliminating infections along with correcting _____
immunologic defects
congenital disorder characterized by inadequate B and T cell function
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, the child expereinces these 3 conditions
- eczema2. thrombocytopenia3. increased susceptibility to bacterial/viral infections
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an ____ trait affecting only males
x-linked inherited trait
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is caused by mutations in gene encoding the _____
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Protein (WASP)
the only curative therapy for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
bone marrow transplantation
2 diagnostic tests for HIV/AIDS
- ELISA2. Western Blot Test
diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
ELISA
diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: done to confirm positive ELISA result
Western Blot Test
autoimmune condition where RBCs are destroyed by antibodies
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
2 types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- warm antibody anemia2. cold antibody anemia
in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, RBC’s are destroyed by antibodies which causes ____ to the cells
agglutination
diagnostic test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Coombs test
warm anemia is treated with these 2 families of drugs
- corticosteroids2. cytotoxic drugs
2 warm anemia treatments
- splenectomy2. IV immune globulin administration
cold anemia is treated by avoiding ____
cold
in cold anemia, _____ is helpful for reducing hemolysis
plasmapheresis
anemia caused by chronic atrophic gastritis
pernicious anemia
in pernicious anemia, production of ____ and ____ are decreased
- HCI acid2. intrinsic factor
pernicious anemia results in ___ deficiency
vitamin B12
vitamin B12 required for ____ is deficient; causing RBCs to be deformed and reduced in number
RBC formation
majority of patients with pernicious anemia have ____ which are cytotoxic to the ____
antiparietal cell antibodies; parietal cells
pernicious anemia is associated with these 2 other diseases
- Grave’s disease2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
diagnostic test for pernicious anemia
schilling test
treatment for pernicious anemia
B12 injection
acquired disorder that results from isolated deficiency of platelets
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
_____ with unknown cause in a patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) requires medical attention
multiple bruising
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) may occur after ____
viral infections like rubella or mumps
in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), ____ is administered to help with clotting
vitamin K
decreased number of circulating neutrophils caused by production of anti-neutrophil antibodies
immune neutropenia
in immune neutropenia, there is an almost complete absence of ____ in the blood
neutrophils
rare disorder caused by trans-placental transfer of maternal IgG that reacts with fetal neutrophils
isoimmune neutropenia
immune neutropenia is often associated with this
accelerated turnover of neutrophils or increased neutrophil production
3 treatment options for immune neutropenia
- corticosteroids2. immune globulin3. G-CSF
autoimmune kidney disease characterized by presence of antibodies directed against an antigen in glomerular basement membrane (GBM)
Goodpasture’s syndrome
another name for Goodpasture’s syndrome
anti-GBM antibody disease
t or f. there is no known cause for Goodpasture’s syndrome
t
3 treatment options for Goodpasture’s syndrome
- plasmapheresis with immunosuppressive agents2. hemodialysis 3. kidney transplants
chronic, autoimmune disease characterized by unusual autoantibodies in the blood that target tissues of the body
systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE)
systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE) is informally known as ____
lupus
3 factors that may predispose individuals to lupus
- genetic2. hormonal3. environmental
to prevent the exacerbation of lupus, avoid unnecessary _____
light exposure
patterns of ____ occurs with SLE
butterfly rash
immunosuppressive meds would be required to treat SLE when _____ is present
organ-threatening disease
Chronic, progressive disease characterized by mostly sclerosis (hardening) of skin, with scarring of certain internal organs.
scleroderma
another term for scleroderma
systemic sclerosis
scleroderma is classified these 2 ways
- diffuse2. limited
scleroderma that involves symmetric thickening of skin of extremities, face and trunk
diffuse
scleroderma that tends to be confined to the skin of fingers and face
limited
t or f. scleroderma is an autoimmune disease
t
prognosis of scleroderma depends on the ____ affected
organs
autoimmune disease featuring inflammation in various glands of the body
Sjögren’s syndrome
in Sjögren’s syndrome, this is the main result of inflammation of the glands
dryness
Sjögren’s syndrome is often associated with this condition
rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome is more common in families that have a member with an _____
autoimmune disorder
treatment for Sjögren’s syndrome include relieving symptoms where there is____, such as increasing fluid intake, chewing gum and using oral sprays
dryness
2 families of drugs to lessen immune inflammation in Sjögren’s syndrome
- prednisone2. antimalarial medications
chronic inflammatory, systemic disease that affects the joints
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
one of the most severe forms of arthritis causing deformity and disability
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is __ times more common in females than maes
3x
if untreated, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can cause these 3 conditions
- destruction of cartilage2. joint deformity3. destruction of adjacent bone
form of rheumatoid arthritis that affects children less than 16 years old
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) begins most commonly between the ages ____
2 to 5
in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), it is believed that the _____ in the joints are related to an autoimmune disease
pathologic changes
heredity may play a role in some children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), particularly those with this condition
spondylitis
in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), braces or splints may be needed to correct ____ and _____
- growth disturbances2. joint contracture
t or f. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is treated exactly as adult rheumatoid arthritis
t
systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease affecting primarily the spinal column
ankylosing spondylitis
ankylosing spondylitis typically affects the ____ area of the spine first
sacroiliac
in ankylosing spondylitis, periods of _____ occur
exacerbation; remission
ankylosing spondylitis may be related to genetic basis and an association with these genes
HLA-B27
disease of muscle that features inflammation of the muscle fibres
polymositis
in polymositis, muscle fibers affected are mostly closest to the ____
trunk and torso
polymositis is ____; there are cycles of flares, relapses and remissions
cyclical
polymositis occurs when ____ spontaneously invade and injure muscles
WBC
screening for polymositis must rule out ____
cancer
inflammatory disease of the CNS that attacks the myelin sheath
multiple sclerosis
4 types of multiple sclerosis
- relapsing-remitting-relapsing2. primary-progressive3. secondary-progressive4. progressive-relapsing-progressive
multiple sclerosis is an ____ that increases one’s susceptibility to the disease
inherited trait
2/3rds of multiple sclerosis develop from ages ____
20 to 40
therapy used to treat multiple sclerosis
immunosuppressive
chronic progressive neuromuscular disease that stem from the presence of autoantibodies to the acetylcholine receptor
myasthenia gravis
myasthenia gravis is characterized by extreme muscular weakness without ____
atrophy
myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune mechanism in which a faulty transmission of nerve impulse to and from the CNS, especially in the ____
neuromuscular junction
myasthenia gravis is associated with these 2 conditions
- thymus hyperplasia2. thymoma
family of drugs to treat myasthenia gravis
anticholinesterase drugs
surgical intervention to treat the tumor in the thymus gland in myasthenia gravis
thymectomy
inflammation in the walls of the blood vessels
vasculitis
2 types of vasculitis
- small vessel2. systemic necrotizing
vasiculitis in which the affected vessel becomes necrotic when it is obstructed by a thrombus and results in an infarct of adjacent tissue
small vessel vasculitis
small vessel vasculitis affects these 3 areas
- capillaries2. arterioles3. venules
vasculitis that primarily affects medium and large arteries
systemic necrotizing vasculitis
systemic necrotizing vasculitis occurs in ____ and ____ conditions
cutaneous; systemic
systemic necrotizing vasculitis can result in these 2 conditions
- ulceration2. paralysis of an affected nerve
some forms of systemic necrotizing vasculitis are related to these 2 factors
- amphetamine use2. development of hepatitis b and c
2 tests to diagnose systemic necrotizing vasculitis
- CBC ESR RA factor determinaton2. serum tests for immunoglobulin
treatment for systemic necrotizing vasculitis involves decreasing the ____ of the arteries
inflammaton
