Bones | The Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 3 types of muscles

A
  1. striated (skeletal)2. smooth3. cardiac
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2
Q

List examples of long bones.

A

humerus, ulna and radius, femur, tibia and fibula

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3
Q

List examples of short bones.

A

carpals, tarsals

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4
Q

List examples of flat bones.

A

scapula, ribs, pelvis

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5
Q

List examples of sesamoid (irregular) bones

A

patella

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6
Q

Immovable joints

A

synarthrodial

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7
Q

Slightly movable joints

A

amphiarthrodial

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8
Q

Freely movable joints

A

diarthrodial

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9
Q

Strong, tough cords of dense connective tissue that usually attach muscle to bone

A

tendons

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10
Q

Tough, dense, fibrous bands of connective tissue that hold bones together

A

ligaments

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11
Q

Flat band of tissue covering and separating muscle layers

A

fascia

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12
Q

Semi smooth, dense, supporting connective tissue

A

cartilage

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13
Q

Closed sacs or cavities of synovial fluid

A

bursa

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14
Q

Chronic pain condition associated with stiffness and tenderness affecting muscles, tendons & joints throughout the body

A

fibromyalgia

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15
Q

Identified according to eighteen tender points used in diagnosis (pain at 11 of 18 points is a positive diagnosis)

A

fibromyalgia

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16
Q

Treatment excludes other conditions that can cause pain in multiple areas

A

fibromyalgia

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17
Q

No cure but stress reduction, physical activity and medical combinations help manage symptoms

A

fibromyalgia

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18
Q

Exaggerated inward curvature of spine

A

lordosis

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19
Q

Generally caused by excessive abdominal weight gain and mass from pregnancy/obesity/tumors

A

lordosis

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20
Q

Treatment: weight loss/exercises to strengthen abdominal muscles; infant delivery

A

lordosis

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21
Q

An abnormal outward curvature of the spine

A

kyphosis

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22
Q

Most common cause is collapsed vertebrae in older people w osteoporosis

A

kyphosis

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23
Q

When kyphosis occurs in young children it is thought to be _______

A

developmental

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24
Q

Treatment includes exercises to strengthen muscles and ligaments, back braces, spinal fusion if the respiratory and/or cardiac systems are compromised

A

kyphosis

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25
Q

A lateral (sideways) curvature of spine

A

scoliosis

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26
Q

Treatment for mild _____ is exercise to strengthen weak muscles and back braces

A

scoliosis

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27
Q

______ scoliosis requires surgery to decrease the curve and realign and stabilize the spine

A

severe

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28
Q

Most common form of arthritis associated with aging; breakdown and eventual loss of cartilage of one or more joints

A

osteoarthritis

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29
Q

Treatment: reduce inflammation, minimize pain, maintain joint function; a total joint replacement may be required

A

osteoarthritis

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30
Q

Lyme disease is an infectious disease spread by ______ bacterium

A

spirochete

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31
Q

Affects the skin, joints, heart and nervous system, and can initially present as influenza-like symptoms

A

lyme disease

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32
Q

Caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted to human through tick bites

A

lyme disease

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33
Q

Characterized by red, itchy rash with a red circle center (“bull’s eye” rash or “target lesion”)

A

lyme disease

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34
Q

Lyme disease should be treated early with _____ to avoid organ-threatening consequences

A

doxycycline

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35
Q

Inflammation of a bursa that may cause “point tenderness”

A

bursitis

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36
Q

Chronic bursitis can lead to _____ and _____

A

calcifications and adhesions

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37
Q

Caused by continual or excessive friction between the bursae and surrounding tissues

A

bursitits

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38
Q

May be caused by systemic diseases, and infection and overuse of a joint

A

bursitis

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39
Q

Treatment includes rest, immobilization, moist heat, aspirin or acetaminophen for pain, NSAIDS, local injection of corticosteroid, ROM exercises, surgical excision of bursa and calcified deposits if severe

A

bursitis

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40
Q

A serious infection of bone that requries aggressive antibiotic treatment

A

osteomyelitis

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41
Q

Fractured, dead pieces of bone surrounded by purulent material that can be caused by osteomyelitis

A

sequestrum

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42
Q

Caused by bacterial organisms (90% of cases are staph aureus), and rarely viruses and fungi

A

osteomyelitis

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43
Q

Treatment is extensive, long term antibiotic treatment; may require surgical drainage to remove sequestrum, which could need bone grafting for repair

A

osteomyelitis

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44
Q

A chronic disorder of uric acid metabolism that manifests an acute, episodic form of arthritis

A

gout

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45
Q

Gout typically affects the first ______ of the big toe

A

metatarsal joint

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46
Q

____ can cause kidney stones

A

gout

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47
Q

Most often caused by an inherited metabolic abnormality that causes the build up of uric acid in the tissues

A

gout

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48
Q

Treatment includes rest and immobilization, cold packs, dietary modifications, antihyperuricemic medications

A

gout

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49
Q

Chronic bone disorder resulting in enlarged, deformed bones due to irregular breakdown/formation of bone tissue of unknown cause

A

Paget’s Disease – Osteitis Deformans

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50
Q

Only treated if symptomatic; treatment includes analgesics, antiinflammatories, cytotoxic agents and calcitonin

A

paget’s disease or osteitis deformans

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51
Q

Paget’s Disease occurs in which two stages?

A
  1. vascular stage2. sclerotic stage
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52
Q

Paget’s disease stage where bone tissue is broken down but spaces filled with blood vessels/fibrous tissue instead of new bone

A

vascular stage

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53
Q

Paget’s disease stage where vascular fibrous tissue hardens and becomes similar to bone, but it is fragile

A

sclerotic stage

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54
Q

A group of inherited conditions causing excessive length of extremities and abnormal connective tissue; arm and legs are excessively long

A

Marfan’s syndrome

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55
Q

Also causes: subluxation of the lens of the eye, scoliosis, hyperextensible joints, mitral valve prolapse and thickening of heart valves, aortic aneurysm

A

Marfan’s syndrome

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56
Q

Caused by autosomal dominant inheritance; 50% chance children of affected parents will have the disorder

A

Marfan’s syndrome

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57
Q

Any abnormal growth in the bone

A

bone tumors

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58
Q

List the 3 types of primary tumors.

A
  1. chondrogenic2. osteogenic3. fibrogenic
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59
Q

Primary tumors most often occur in _____ during a growth spurt

A

adolescents

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60
Q

Common metastases from breast, lung, prostate, thyroid, and kidney primary cancers

A

secondary bone tumors

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61
Q

What are the most common forms of bone tumors?

A

Most common forms are osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma and chondrosarcoma

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62
Q

Treatment is surgical excision; goal is limb-sparing surgery, but amputation may be necessary; chemo and/or radiotherapy may also be done

A

bone tumors

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63
Q

Benign tumors or malignant (tumors grow and metastasize rapidly) sarcomas of the muscle

A

muscle tumors

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64
Q

Most commonly affect the extremities, head and neck, trunk, and retroperitoneum; anywhere with smooth muscle

A

muscle tumors

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65
Q

Risk factors include radiation treatment for prior cancer, and certain chemical exposures

A

muscle tumors

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66
Q

Treatment is the same as bone tumors

A

muscle tumors

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67
Q

Loss of normal bone mass/density that leads to porous bone that becomes “compressible” rather than dense

A

osteoporosis

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68
Q

Occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women; other risk factors include previous radiation treatments, malabsorption, smoking, alcohol abuse, calcium wasting nephropathy, immobility, chronic diseases

A

osteoporosis

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69
Q

Treatment includes increased intake of calcium and Vitamin D, estrogen replacement therapy, biphosponate medications, weight-bearing moderate exercise

A

osteoporosis

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70
Q

Defective mineralization of the bones, causing them to be soft, flexible, deformed

A

osteomalacia/rickets

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71
Q

_____ occurs in adults while ____ occurs in children

A

osteomalacia, rickets

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72
Q

Caused by either deficiency or ineffective use of Vitamin D

A

osteomalacia/rickets

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73
Q

Treated with vitamin D supplements and management of underlying disorders

A

osteomalacia/rickets

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74
Q

Medical term for bunion

A

hallux valgus

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75
Q

Localized area of enlargement of the inner portion of the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint at the base of the big toe

A

hallux valgus/bunion

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76
Q

Caused by midline position of great toe toward the midline of the body

A

hallux valgus/bunion

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77
Q

Contributing factors include rheumatoid arthritis, flatfoot, improperly fitting or high-heeled shoes, familial tendency

A

hallux valgus/bunion

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78
Q

Treatment may include surgery if conservative measures don’t work

A

hallux valgus/bunion

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79
Q

A stiff big toe developing as a result of degeneration of the cartilage of the first MTP joint

A

hallux rigidus

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80
Q

Caused by injury and arthritis

A

hallux rigidus

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81
Q

Treatment includes antiinflammatories, wearing shoes with thick, hard soles and low heels, cheilectomy, arthrodesis (fusion)

A

hallux rigidus

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82
Q

Condition where one of the four lesser toe–most often the second toe–bends upward due to an abnormal flexion of the PIP joint

A

hammer toe

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83
Q

Congenital condition; can be exacerbated by wearing shoes that are too short, too pointy, or have high heels, underlying arthritis

A

hammer toe

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84
Q

Treatment includes splinting, possibly arthroplasty with fusion of the PIP joint

A

hammer toe

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85
Q

Stress on bone resulting from traumatic insult to the musculoskeletal system, really severe muscle spasms, or bone disease

A

fractures (see handout for specific types)

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86
Q

Fracture fully contained within tissue

A

closed/simple fracture

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87
Q

Fracture with bone exposed out of tissue

A

open/compound fracture

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88
Q

Caused by force, external or internal that disrupts the continuity of a bone

A

fracture

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89
Q

List 13 types of fracture disruptions.

A
  1. longitudinal2. transverse3. oblique4. greenstick5. comminuted6. impact7. pathologic8. non-displaced9. displaced10. spiral11. compression12. avulsion13. depression
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90
Q

Fracture that follows long axis of bone

A

longitudinal

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91
Q

Fracture at right angles to bone

A

transverse

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92
Q

Fracture at an angle

A

oblique

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93
Q

Bend/partway fracture that occurs mostly in children

A

greenstick

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94
Q

Pieces of fracture

A

comminuted

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95
Q

Forced fracture; driving bone usually in joint

A

Impacted

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96
Q

Fracture due to a diseased bone and not by force

A

pathologic

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97
Q

Fracture with bone aligned

A

non-displaced

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98
Q

Fracture with bone misaligned

A

displaced

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99
Q

Fracture wraps around bone, breaking as it twists

A

spiral

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100
Q

Fracture where tendon snaps

A

avulsion

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101
Q

Fracture where piece has fallen inward

A

depression

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102
Q

How are simple fractures of long bones treated?

A

reduction and immobilization

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103
Q

How are compound fractures treated?

A

cleaning, debriding, reduction, immobility, ORIF (open reduction internal fixation)

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104
Q

Injured tendons, muscles or other tissues resulting from overuse, overstretching, or excessive forcible stretching of the tissue beyond its functional capacity

A

strains

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105
Q

Acute partial tear of ligament

A

sprains

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106
Q

What are the three classifications of sprains?

A

first/second/third grade or degree

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107
Q

Caused by acute or cumulative (chronic) trauma

A

strains and sprains

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108
Q

Treated through elevation, rest, ice, immobilization, analgesics and anti-inflammatories, surgery for large tears or those healed improperly

A

sprains and strains

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109
Q

Forcible displacement of a bone from its joint, causing loss of joint function

A

dislocations

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110
Q

Caused by severe injury which may also cause a fracture; congenital joint weakness, arthritis complications, recurrent dislocations of previously dislocated joint

A

dislocations

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111
Q

Treatment includes relocating, immobilization and surgery in severe cases

A

dislocations

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112
Q

Limited range of movement of a shoulder joint due to inflammation, scarring, thickening and shrinkage of the capsule surrounding the shoulder joint

A

adhesive capsulitis or frozen shoulder

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113
Q

Caused by inflammation of joint capsule with secondary scarring, usually following a slight injury or minor problem such as bursitis or tendonitis

A

adhesive capsulitis

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114
Q

Treatment includes moving to prevent permanent immobility and shoulder manipulation under a general anesthetic if severe

A

adhesive capsulitis

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115
Q

Tendon torn completely into two sections, preventing the muscle from moving a body part

A

severed tendon

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116
Q

Caused by injury, overstretching or laceration

A

severed tendon

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117
Q

Treatment includes tenorrhaphy; may require a large incision to retrieve both ends of the tendon

A

severed tendon

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118
Q

Inflammation of the periosteum, extensor muscles of the lower leg, and the surrounding tissue

A

shin splints

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119
Q

Caused by overuse or over-pronation

A

shin splints

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120
Q

Treatment includes rest, ice and/or heat, anti-inflammatory, physiotherapy, orthotic insertions or shoes

A

shin splints

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121
Q

Inflammation of bottom of the heel or calcaneus; may produce calcaneal spurs

A

plantar fasciitis

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122
Q

Spike-like projections of new bone

A

calcaneal spurs

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123
Q

Occurs when part of the inflexible fascia is repeatedly placed under tension, with several contributing factors

A

plantar fasciitis

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124
Q

Treatment includes rest, ice and/or heat, anti-inflammatory, physiotherapy, orthotic insertions or shoes

A

plantar fasciitis

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125
Q

Benign, sac-like swelling, or cyst filled with colorless jelly formed from tissue that lines a joint or tendon

A

ganglion

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126
Q

Cause is idiopathic; may be a sign of arthritis in the adjacent joint

A

ganglion

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127
Q

Not normally treated unless required; if needed, includes rupture by applying firm pressure, needle aspiration or ganglionectomy

A

ganglion

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128
Q

Crack or fissure to the meniscus cartilage in knee joint

A

torn meniscus

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129
Q

Most often related to sports injury where there was a sudden twisting or external rotation of the leg with a flexed knee

A

torn meniscus

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130
Q

In severe cases, treated with arthroscopic surgery and meniscectomy may be required

A

torn meniscus

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131
Q

Tear of any of the four tendons of the rotator cuff

A

rotator cuff tears

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132
Q

The muscles around the shoulder

A

rotator cuff

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133
Q

Caused mostly by acute trauma; degeneration due to age that causes calcium deposits

A

rotator cuff tears

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134
Q

Treatment includes managing acute pain with narcotics, rest, physiotherapy and surgical repair

A

rotator cuff tears

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135
Q

Fracture that is a collapse of a vertebra

A

compression

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136
Q

Examples of types of joint

A

shoulder (ball and socket)diarthrosis

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137
Q

Examples of types of joints

A

cranial suturessynarthrodial

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138
Q

Examples of types of joints.

A

intervertebral jointsamphiarthrodial

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139
Q

Examples of types of joints.

A

elbowhinge jointdiarthrosis

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140
Q

Examples of types of joints

A

pubic symphysisamphiarthrodial

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141
Q

Examples of types of joints

A

wristellipsoidal jointsdiarthrosis

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142
Q

Name this type of muscle

A

skeletal muscles

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143
Q

Name this type of muscle.

A

smooth muscles

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144
Q

Name this type of muscle.

A

cardiac muscles

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145
Q

What are the functions of the skeleton?

A

support, protection and movement, mineral storage (calcium) and blood cell formation

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146
Q

Name the 2 parts of the skeleton.

A

axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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147
Q

How many bones are in the adult skeleton?

A

206`

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148
Q

What composes the axial skeleton?

A

head, spine, thorax

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149
Q

What composes the appendicular skeleton?

A

pectoral girdle, pelvic girdle, arm, leg

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150
Q

What composes the pectoral or shoulder girdle?

A

scapula and clavicle

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151
Q

Which bones are in each arm?

A

humerus, radius, ulna, carpals (8), metacarpals (5), phalanges (14)

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152
Q

What composes the pelvic girdle?

A

hip bones

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153
Q

Which bones make up the hip bones?

A

ilium, ischium and pubis

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154
Q

Which bones are in each leg?

A

femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsals (7), metatarsals (5), phalanges (14)

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155
Q

What is the medical term for heel bones?

A

calcaneus

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156
Q

The head of the femur is held in a deep socket in the hip bone called the ____

A

acetabulum

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157
Q

T or F. The heel bone is one of the tarsals.

A

T

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158
Q

How many carpals are in each arm?

A

8

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159
Q

How many metacarpals are in each arm?

A

5

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160
Q

How many phalanges are in each arm?

A

14

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161
Q

How many tarsals in each leg?

A

7

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162
Q

How many metatarsals in each leg?

A

5

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163
Q

How many phalanges in each leg?

A

14

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164
Q

Name the 3 bone cells.

A
  1. osteoblasts2. osteocytes3. osteoclasts
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165
Q

Immature bone cells responsible for the production of new bone

A

osteoblasts

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166
Q

Medical term for production of new bone

A

ossification

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167
Q

Osteoblasts add ____ and ____ to cartilage

A

Osteoblasts add calcium and phosphorus to cartilage

168
Q

Mature bone cells that help repair damaged bone

A

osteocytes

169
Q

Bone cells that maintain the density and composition of bone by removing calcium

A

osteoclasts

170
Q

Medical term for the release of stored minerals

A

resorption

171
Q

Bone cells essential for bone remodeling and growth

A

osteoclasts

172
Q

Which bones are classified as long bones?

A

femur, humerus, phalanges

173
Q

Which bones are classified as short bones?

A

wrist and ankle bones

174
Q

Which bones are classified as flat bones?

A

skull bones, sternum

175
Q

Which bones are classified as irregular bones?

A

vertebra, hip bones

176
Q

Name the 5 factors in the structure of long bones.

A
  1. diaphysis2. medullary cavity3. epiphyses4. metaphysis5. periosteum
177
Q

Long bone area that has mostly compact bone tissue

A

diaphysis

178
Q

Long bone area that contains yellow bone marrow

A

medullary cavity

179
Q

Long bone area that is spongy bone tissue covered by cartilage

A

epiphyses

180
Q

Long bone area between the diaphysis and the epiphysis at each end

A

metaphysis

181
Q

Long bone area that contains the epiphyseal plate

A

metaphysis

182
Q

Medical term for growth plate

A

epiphyseal plate

183
Q

Long bone area composed of fibrous connective tissue

A

periosteum

184
Q

How are bones classified?

A

by shape

185
Q

How are joints classified?

A

degree of movement

186
Q

Name the 3 joint classifications.

A
  1. suture2. symphysis (amphiarthrodial)3. synovial (diatrhrosis)
187
Q

Immovable joint such as skull bones

A

suture joint

188
Q

Slightly moveable joint where bones are joined by cartilage tissue, such as the joint between pelvic bones

A

symphysis or amphiarthrodial joint

189
Q

Freely moveable joint that involves a fluid-containing cavity between bones such as elbows, knees, and shoulders

A

synovial joint (diarthrosis)

190
Q

Name the 5 factors that compose a synovial joints.

A
  1. articular cartilage2. joint capsule 3. synovial membrane4. synovial fluid5. bursa
191
Q

Synovial joint: the smooth cartilage that covers the end of each long bone

A

articular cartilage

192
Q

Articular cartilage is also called _____

A

hyaline cartilage

193
Q

Synovial joint: encloses the joint and joins with the periosteum

A

joint capsule

194
Q

Synovial joint: lines the inner surfaces of the joint cavity and secrete synovial fluid

A

synovial membrane

195
Q

Synovial joint: provides lubrication and a cushion for the joint

A

synovial fluid

196
Q

Synovial joint: small sac of synovial fluid that acts as a cushion for the area around the joint

A

bursa

197
Q

oste/o

A

bone

198
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow, spinal cord

199
Q

chondr/o

A

cartilage

200
Q

arthr/o

A

joint

201
Q

burs/o

A

bursa

202
Q

synov/i

A

synovial fluid, joint, membrane

203
Q

crani/o

A

skull, cranium

204
Q

spondyl/o

A

vertebra

205
Q

vertebr/o

A

vertebra, spinal column

206
Q

rachi/o

A

spine

207
Q

cost/o

A

rib

208
Q

sacr/o

A

sacrum

209
Q

coccy, coccyg/o

A

coccyx

210
Q

pelvi/o

A

pelvis

211
Q

ili/o

A

ilium

212
Q

What makes up the axial skeleton?

A

skullspinal columnribssternum

213
Q

What makes up the appendicular skeleton?

A

bones of arms, legs, shoulder girdle, pelvis

214
Q

What are types of synovial joint movement

A
  1. gliding2. angular movements3. rotation4. special movements
215
Q

Condition in which there is a decrease in estrogen that increases susceptibility

A

osteoporosis

216
Q

Osteoarthritis involves the degeneration of ___

A

articular cartilage

217
Q

Caused by herniated intervetebral disk putting pressure on the spinal cord or spinal nerves

A

sciatica

218
Q

Main characteristic of muscle tissue is its ability to ___

A

contract

219
Q

Muscles may remain partially contracted to maintain ____

A

posture

220
Q

The heat generated by ____is the main source of body heat

A

muscle contraction

221
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

A
  1. smooth or visceral muscle2. cardiac muscle3. skeletal muscle
222
Q

Muscle tissue that makes up the walls of the hollow organs and the walls of the ducts such as the blood vessels and bronchioles

A

smooth or visceral muscle

223
Q

Does smooth muscle operate voluntarily or involuntarily?

A

involuntarily

224
Q

Smooth muscle is responsible for ___: the wavelike movements that propel materials through the systems

A

smooth or visceral muscle

225
Q

Muscle that makes up the myocardium of the heart wall responsible for pumping of the heart

A

cardiac muscle

226
Q

Does cardiac muscle work voluntarily or involuntarily?

A

involuntarily

227
Q

Muscle attached to the bones of the skeleton; maintains posture and generates a large proportion of body heat

A

skeletal muscle

228
Q

Does skeletal muscle work voluntarily or involuntarily?

A

voluntarily

229
Q

Skeletal muscles are stimulated to contract by ___ of the nervous system

A

motor neurons

230
Q

The point where a branch of neuron meets a muscle cell

A

neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

231
Q

Released at the neuromuscular junction and prompts contraction of the cell of skeletal muscles

A

acetylcholine

232
Q

Two proteins in the cell __ and __ interact to produce the contraction

A

actin and myosin

233
Q

__ (the cell’s energy compound) and __ are needed for the contraction response

A

ATP and calcium

234
Q

State of firmness kept in a steady partially contracted state, to maintain posture for example

A

tonus or muscle tone

235
Q

Most skeletal muscles contract rapidly to produce ____ and then relax rapidly unless stimulation continues.

A

movement

236
Q

Muscles work in ___ to produce movement at the joints (see Display 20-1).

A

pairs

237
Q

As one muscle, called the ____ contracts, an opposing muscle, called the ___ must relax.

A

prime mover, antagonist

238
Q

The point where the muscle is attached to a stable part of the skeleton

A

origin

239
Q

The point where a muscle is attached to a moving part of the skeleton

A

insertion

240
Q

A muscle can be named according to which 5 axes?

A
  1. location2. the direction of its fibers3. size4. shape5. number of attachment points (heads) as indicated by the suffix -ceps
241
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: closing the angle at a joint like bending at the knee or elbow

A

flexion

242
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: opening the angle at a joint like straightening at the knee or elbow

A

extension

243
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: movement away from the midline of the body, like the outward movement of the arms at the shoulders

A

abduction

244
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: movement toward the midline of the body, like the return of lifted arms to the body

A

adduction

245
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: turning of a body part on its own axis, like turning the forearm from the elbow

A

rotation

246
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: circular movement from a central point, like a circle with an outstretched arm

A

circumduction

247
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: turning downward, like turning the palm of the hand downward

A

pronation

248
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: turning upward, like turning the palm of the hand upward

A

supination

249
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: turning outward, like turning the sole of the foot outward

A

eversion

250
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: turning inward, like turning the sole of the foot inward

A

inversion

251
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: bending backward, like moving the foot so that the toes point upward, away from the sole of the foot

A

dorsiflexion

252
Q

Types of Movement Produced by Muscles: bending the sole of the foot, like pointing the toes downward

A

plantar flexion

253
Q

Muscles are composed of individual cells, often referred to as ____ because they are so long and threadlike

A

fibers

254
Q

Fibers are held together in bundles by ____ tissue.

A

connective

255
Q

Covering each muscle is afibrous sheath of connective tissue or ____

A

fascia (deep)

256
Q

Supporting tissues merge to form the ___ that attaches the muscle to a bone

A

tendon

257
Q

Smallest to biggest: structure of a skeletal muscle

A

muscle fiber (cell), fascia, connective tissue, body of muscle, tendon

258
Q

my/o

A

muscle

259
Q

muscul/o

A

muscle

260
Q

in/o

A

fiber

261
Q

fasci/o

A

fascia

262
Q

ten/o, tendin/o

A

tendon

263
Q

ton/o

A

tone

264
Q

kine, kinesi/o, kineto

A

movement

265
Q

Muscle function may be affected by disorders in other systems, particularly in the __ and __

A

nervous system, connective tisuse

266
Q

Any disorder of muscles

A

myopathy

267
Q

EMG

A

electromyography

268
Q

CK

A

creatine kinase

269
Q

polymyositis

A

inflammation of skeletal muscle leading to weakness

270
Q

FMS

A

fibromyalgia syndrome

271
Q

CFS

A

chronic fatigue syndrome

272
Q

MG

A

myasthenia gravis

273
Q

NSAID

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

274
Q

ACH

A

acetylcholine

275
Q

ALS

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

276
Q

CFS

A

chronic fatigue syndrome

277
Q

C(P)K

A

creatinine (phospo)kinase

278
Q

OT

A

occupational therapy

279
Q

PT

A

physical therapy

280
Q

ROM

A

range of motion

281
Q

What are the 4 functions of muscles?

A

movement, maintain posture, stabilize joints, generate heat

282
Q

A typical muscle contains ___ of muscle fibers

A

thousands

283
Q

Fibres are bundled together to form ____

A

fascicles

284
Q

Fascia extends beyond the muscles to become its ___

A

tendon

285
Q

Joins muscles to bones

A

tendons

286
Q

Joins bone to bone

A

ligaments

287
Q

Muscles and nerves, step 1: Muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron at ___

A

NMJ

288
Q

Muscles and nerves, step 2: When impulse reaches the axon terminal, ____ release neurotransmitters acetylcholine

A

vesicles

289
Q

Muscles and nerves, step 3: Acetylcholine enters the ____ and bind to the receptor sites on the muscle fiber

A

synaptic cleft

290
Q

Muscles and nerves, step 4: ___ floods the muscle fiber and allows for actin myosin and ATP to interact and cause a muscle to contract

A

calcium

291
Q

Muscles and nerves, step 5: Actin and myosin are ___; sliding filament theory

A

protein filaments

292
Q

Muscle and nerves, step 6: Muscle relax when the ___ leaves

A

calcium

293
Q

What is the all or none principle?

A

a muscle fiber contracts FULLY whenever it contracts. It either contracts or it doesn’t contract

294
Q

What are the two types of muscle contraction?

A
  1. isotonic2. isometric
295
Q

Muscle contraction where muscle shorten and movement occurs, like walking, lifting sports

A

isotonic

296
Q

Muscle contraction where muscles don’t shorten and no movement occurs, like maintaining posture

A

isometric

297
Q

What are the criteria for naming muscles?

A
  1. location2. shape3. size4. number of attachment points5. action6. direction of muscle fibers
298
Q

calc/o, calci/o

A

calcium

299
Q

kyph/o

A

humpback, hunchback

300
Q

lamin/o

A

lamina: part of the vertebral arch

301
Q

lord/o

A

curve, swayback

302
Q

kyph/o affects the ____ in the thoracic region

A

posterior curvature

303
Q

lord/o affects the ___ in the lumbar region

A

anterior curvature

304
Q

lumb/o

A

loins, lower back

305
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

306
Q

orth/o

A

straight

307
Q

oste/o

A

bone

308
Q

scoli/o

A

crooked, bent

309
Q

scoli/o affects the ____

A

lateral curvature

310
Q

spondyl/o

A

vertebra

311
Q

spondyl/o is used to make words about ____ of the structure

A

conditions

312
Q

vertebr/o

A

vertebra

313
Q

vertebr/o is used to describe the ____ itself

A

structure

314
Q

-blast

A

embryonic or immature cell

315
Q

-clast

A

to break

316
Q

-listhesis

A

slipping

317
Q

-malacia

A

softening

318
Q

-physis

A

to grow

319
Q

-tome

A

instrument to cut

320
Q

-tome

A

instrument to cut

321
Q

acetabul/o

A

acetabulum

322
Q

calcane/o

A

heel

323
Q

carp/o

A

wrist bones

324
Q

clavicul/o

A

collar bone

325
Q

cost/o

A

ribs (true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs)

326
Q

crani/o

A

skull

327
Q

femor/o

A

femur -thigh bone

328
Q

fibul/o

A

fibula -smaller lower leg bone

329
Q

humer/o

A

humerus -upper arm bone

330
Q

ili/o

A

ilium -upper part of pelvic bone

331
Q

ischi/o

A

ischium -posterior part of pelvic bone-

332
Q

malleol/o

A

process on each side of the ankle

333
Q

mandibul/o

A

mandible -lower jawbone

334
Q

maxill/o

A

maxilla -upper jawbone

335
Q

metacarp/o

A

metacarpals -hand bones

336
Q

metatars/o

A

metatarsals -foot bones

337
Q

olecran/o

A

olecranon -elbow

338
Q

pelv/i

A

pelvis -hipbone

339
Q

perone/o

A

fibula

340
Q

phalang/o

A

phalanges -finger and/or toe bones

341
Q

pub/o

A

pubis -anterior part of the pelvic bone

342
Q

radi/o

A

radius -forearm bone: thumb side

343
Q

scapul/o

A

scapula -shoulder blade

344
Q

stern/o

A

sternum -breastbone

345
Q

tars/o

A

tarsals -bones of the hindfoot

346
Q

tibi/o

A

tibia -shin bone

347
Q

uln/o

A

ulna -forearm bone: little finger side-

348
Q

ankyl/o

A

stiff

349
Q

arthr/o

A

joint

350
Q

articul/o

A

joint

351
Q

burs/o

A

bursa

352
Q

chondr/o

A

cartilage

353
Q

ligament/o

A

ligament

354
Q

rheumat/o

A

watery flow

355
Q

synov/o

A

synovial membrane

356
Q

ten/o

A

tendon

357
Q

tendin/o

A

tendon

358
Q

-desis

A

to bind, tie together

359
Q

-stenosis

A

narrowing

360
Q

decreasing the angle between two bones; bending a limb

A

flexion

361
Q

increasing the angle between twon bones; straightening out a limb

A

extension

362
Q

movement away from the midline of the body

A

abduction

363
Q

movement toward the midline of the body

A

adduction

364
Q

decreasing the angle of the ankle joint so that the foot bends upward

A

dorsiflexion

365
Q

motion that extends the foot downward toward the ground as when pointing the toes

A

plantar flexion

366
Q

turning palm of down

A

pronation

367
Q

turning palm of down

A

pronation

368
Q

fasci/o

A

fascia (forms sheaths enveloping muscles)

369
Q

fibr/o

A

fibrous connective tissue

370
Q

leiomy/o

A

smooth (visceral) muscle that lines the walls of internal organs

371
Q

compression of muscle, blood vessels, and nerves inside a closed space or compartment of the body

A

fasciotomy

372
Q

my/o

A

muscle

373
Q

myocardi/o

A

heart muscle

374
Q

myos/o

A

muscle

375
Q

plant/o

A

sole of foot

376
Q

sarc/o

A

muscle and flesh

377
Q

-trophy

A

development, nourishment

378
Q

-trophy

A

development, nourishment

379
Q

ab-

A

away from

380
Q

dorsi-

A

back

381
Q

poly-

A

many, much

382
Q

poly-

A

many, much

383
Q

detects antibody present in serum of patients with SLE and other autoimmune diseases

A

antinuclear antibody tests (ANA)

384
Q

measures times it takes for erythrocytes to settle to the bottom of a test tube

A

erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

385
Q

serum is tested for the presence of an antibody found in patients with rheumatoid arthritis

A

rheumatoid factor rest (RF)

386
Q

measurement of the enzyme creatine kinase in serum

A

serum creatine kinase (CK)

387
Q

measurement of the enzyme creatine kinase in serum

A

serum creatine kinase (CK)

388
Q

measurement of uric acid in serum

A

uric acid test

389
Q

surgical puncture to remove fluid from the joint space

A

arthrocentesis

390
Q

taking x-ray images after injection of contrast material into a joint

A

arthrography

391
Q

surgical repair or replacement of a joint

A

arthroplasty

392
Q

visual examination of a joint with an arthroscope and television camera

A

arthroscopy

393
Q

low energy xray absorption in bones of the spinal column, pelvis, and wrist is used to measure bone mass

A

bone density test or bone densitometry

394
Q

uptake of a radioactive substance is measured in bone

A

bone scan

395
Q

xray beam and computer provide cross-ectional and other images to identify bone abnormalities

A

compute tomography (CT)

396
Q

xray examination of cervical or lumbar intervertebral disk after injection of contrast into nucleus pulposus (interior of the disk)

A

diskography

397
Q

recording the strength of muscle contraction as a result of electrical stimulation

A

electromyography (EMG)

398
Q

magnetic field creates images of soft tissue

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

399
Q

removal of muscle tissue for microscopic examination

A

muscle biopsy

400
Q

ACL

A

anterior cruciate ligament of the knee

401
Q

C1-C7

A

cervical vertebrae 1st to 7th

402
Q

EMG

A

electromyography

403
Q

IM

A

intramuscular

404
Q

L1-L5

A

lumbar vertebrae 1st to 5th

405
Q

NSAID

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

406
Q

OA

A

osteoarthritis

407
Q

ORIF

A

open reduction (of fracture)/internal fixation

408
Q

ORTHO

A

orthopedics

409
Q

OT

A

occupational therapy

410
Q

PT

A

physical therapy

411
Q

RA

A

rheumatoid arthritis

412
Q

RICE

A

rest, ice, compression and elevation

413
Q

ROM

A

range of motion

414
Q

T1-T12

A

thoracic (dorsal) vertebrae 1st to 12th

415
Q

THR

A

total hip replacement

416
Q

TKR

A

total knee replacement

417
Q

TMJ

A

temporomandibular joint