Eyes | Ophthalmology Flashcards
1
Q
aque/o
A
water
2
Q
blephar/o
A
eyelid
3
Q
palpebr/o
A
eyelid
4
Q
conjunctiv/o
A
conjunctiva
5
Q
cor/o
A
pupil
6
Q
pupill/o
A
pupil
7
Q
corne/o
A
corneo
8
Q
kerat/o
A
cornea
9
Q
cycl/o
A
ciliary body or muscle of the eye
10
Q
dacry/o
A
tears, tear duct
11
Q
lacrim/o
A
tears
12
Q
ir/o, irid/o
A
iris (covered portion of the eye around the pupil)
13
Q
kerat/o
A
cornea
14
Q
ocul/o
A
eye
15
Q
ophthalm/o
A
eye
16
Q
opt/o, optic/o
A
eye, vision
17
Q
palpebr/o
A
eyelid
18
Q
papill/o
A
optic disc; nipple like
19
Q
phac/o, phak/o
A
lens of the eye
20
Q
retin/o
A
retina
21
Q
scler/o
A
sclera (white of the eye); hard
22
Q
uve/o
A
uvea; vascular layer of the eye
23
Q
vitre/o
A
glassy
24
Q
ambyl/o
A
dull, dim
25
dipl/o
double
26
glauc/o
gray
27
mi/o
smaller, less
28
mydr/o
widen, enlarge
29
nyct/o
night
30
phot/o
light
31
presby/o
old age
32
scot/o
darkness
33
xer/o
dry
34
-opia
vision
35
-opsia
vision
36
-tropia
to turn
37
intravenous injection of fluorescein (a dye) followed by serial photographs of the retina through dilated pupils
fluorescein angioraphy
38
visual examination of the interior of the eye
ophthalmoscopy
39
examination of anterior ocular structures under microscopic magnification
slit lamp microscopy
40
clarity of vision is assessed
visual acuity test
41
measurement of the area (peripheral and central) within which objects are seen when the eyes are fixed, looking straight ahead without movement of the head
visual field test
42
removal of the entire eyeball
enucleation
43
surgical repair of the cornea
keratoplasty
44
intense, precisely focused light beam (argon laser) creates an inflammatory reaction that seals retinal tears and leaky retinal blood vessels
laser photocoagulaton
45
use of an excimer laser to correct errors of refraction
LASIK
46
ultrasonic vibrations break up the lens, which is then aspirated through the ultrasonic probe
phacoemulsification
47
suture of a silicone band to the sclera over a detached portion of the retina
scleral buckle
48
removal of the vitreous humor
vitrectomy
49
acous/o
hearing
50
audi/o
hearing; sense of hearing
51
audit/o
hearing
52
aur/o, auricul/o
ear
53
cochle/o
cochlea
54
mastoid/o
mastoid process
55
myring/o
eardrum, tympanic membrane
56
ossicul/o
ossicle
57
ot/o
ear
58
salping/o
eustachian tube, auditory tube
59
staped/o
stapes (third bone of the middle ear)
60
tympan/o
eardrum, tympanic membrane
61
vestibul/o
vestibule
62
-acusis, - cusis
hearing
63
-meter
instrument to measure
64
-otia
ear condition
65
testing the sense of hearing
audiometry
66
surgical insertion of a device that allows sensorineural hearing: impaired persons to understand speech
cochlear implant procedure
67
measurement of the temperature of the tympanic membrane by detection of infrared radiation from the eardrum
ear thermometry
68
visual examination of the ear canal with an otoscope
otoscopy
69
test of ear conduction using a vibration source (tuning fork)
tuning fork tests
70
vibrating fork against the patient's mastoid bone and in front of the auditory meatus
rinne test
71
tuning fork is placed on the center of the forehead
weber test
72
AD
right ear
73
AS
left ear
74
AU
both ears
75
AOM
acute otitis media
76
EENT
eyes, ears, nose, throat
77
ENT
ears, nose, throat
78
EOM
extraocular moveemnt
79
HD
hearing distance
80
HEENT
head, eyes, ears, nose, throat
81
IOL
intraocular lens
82
IOP
intraocular pressure
83
OD
right eye
84
OS
left eye
85
OU
both eyes
86
PERRLA
pupils equal, round, react to light and accommodation
87
SOM
serous otitis media
88
VA
visual acuity
89
VF
visual field
90
What are the four functions of the senses?
1. detect stimuli from internal and external environments2. help maintain homeostasis3. pleasure4. protection
91
Awareness of body position, posture, movement, etc.
proprioception
92
Mostly found in the skin that detects pain, touch, pressure, temperature, proprioception
general senses
93
Found in the head, encompasses taste (gustation), smell (olfaction), hearing, equilibrium (balance), vision
special senses
94
These senses respond to chemicals in saliva or air
taste and smell
95
What are the two main destinations of smell in the brain?
1. olfactory cortex (frontal lobe)2. hypothalamus, amygdala, other limbic regions
96
Smells are consciously interpreted/identified here
olfactory cortex (frontal lobe)
97
Smells where emotional responses to odors occur
hypothalamus, amygdala, other limbic regions
98
Smells that trigger sympathetic fight or flight response
danger/fear smells
99
Smells that trigger salivation
appetizing smells
100
Taste is transported by which 3 cranial nerves?
1. facial nerve VII2. glossopharyngeal nerve IX3. vagus nerve X
101
Where is the main destination of taste in the brain?
thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system
102
Mouth also contains which 3 receptors?
1. thermoreceptors2. mechanoreceptors3. nociceptors
103
-esthesia
sensation
104
-algesia
pain
105
-osmia
smell
106
-geusia
taste
107
The ear is responsible for which two major senses?
hearing and equilibrium
108
What are the three parts of the ear?
1. outer ear2. middle ear3. inner ear
109
What makes up the outer ear?
pinna and external auditory canal or auricle and meatus
110
What two structures protect the outer ear?
1. tiny hairs lining auditory canal2. ceruminous glands
111
Modified sweat glands that produce earwax
ceruminous glands
112
What makes up the middle ear?
1. tympanic membrane or eardrum2. three ossicles3. pharygotympanic tube or auditory tube
113
Transmits sound from the outer ear to the middle ear
tympanic membrane or eardrum
114
What are three ossicles?
1. malleus - hammer2. incus - anvil 3. staples - stirrup
115
Connects middle ear to pharynx and equalizes pressure on both sides of the tympanic or membrane responsible for swallowing or yawning
pharyngotympanic tube or auditory tube
116
Intricate system of fluid filled passageways hollowed out of the temporal bone; also called the labyrinth
inner ear
117
Structure that is the hearing mechanism
organ of Corti
118
What is the pathway between the external ear and the brain?
External ear → tympanic membrane → ossicle: malleus → ossicle: incus → ossicle: stapes → oval window → cochlea (organ of corti) → round window → vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII) → temporal lobe
119
Equilibrium is controlled by the _____ and _____
Controlled by the semicircular canals and vestibule
120
audi/o
hearing
121
acous, acus, cus
sound/hearing
122
ot/o
ear
123
myring/o
tympanic membrane
124
tympan/o
tympanic membrane
125
salping/o
tube, eustachian tube
126
staped/o, stapedi/o
stapes
127
labyrinth/o
labyrinth
128
vestibul/o
vestibule
129
cochle/o
cochlea
130
Three planes of movement concerned mainly with rotational movements
semicircular canals
131
Refractive error, also called farsightedness, where distant objects are clear while near objects are blurry
hyperopia
132
In hyperopia, light entering the eye is focused ____ the retina rather than ____ the retina
light focused behind the retina rather than on the retina
133
In hyperopia, the eyeball is abnormally ___ measured from front to back
short
134
Hyperopia requires the eye's _____ to reposition the viewed object on the retina, therefore sharpening the image
internal lens
135
Refractive error also called nearsightedness where
near objects are clear while distant objects are blurry
136
In myopia, light entering the eye is focused ___ of the retina causing blurred vision
light is focused in front of the retina
137
In myopia, the eyeball is abnormally ___ as measured from front to back
long
138
In myopia, images viewed cannot be ____ by the eye's internal lens
sharpened
139
Refractive error which causes some images to appear clear while other images appear blurred
astigmatism
140
In astigmatism, ___ focusing of light rays enter the eey
irregular
141
In astigmatism, the cornea is ___ and not ___, causing light rays to be unevenly focused across the retina
egg shaped and not spherical
142
Refractive error in which the eye's internal lens can't focus on near objects due to loss of _____
elasticity
143
Presbyopia is related to ____; usually starts in people in their mid-40s
aging
144
Involuntary, repetitive and rhythmic movements of one or both eyes and associated with blurred or decreased vision
nystagmus
145
Type of nystagmus that always necessitates a complete neurologic evaluation
acquired nystagmus
146
What are the 2 types of nystagmus?
1. congenital 2. acquired
147
Type of nystagmus that manifests before 6 months to 1 year of age and is the most common type
congenital
148
Type of nystagmus that results when a disease process produces lesions in the brain or inner ear
acquired
149
List some causes for nystagmus
1. brain tumors2. cerebrovascular lesions3. abnormal development of the nervous system4. alcohol/drug use
150
How is congenital nystagmus treated?
Kestenbaum procedure
151
The Kestenbaum procedure is used to treat congenital nystagmus where the eyes are surgically rotated towards the _____ of the eye
null point
152
How is acquire nystagmus treated?
treating underlying cause
153
Visual defect of misalignment where eyes fail to look in the same direction at the same time
strabismus
154
What are the 2 types of strabismus?
1. convergent strabismus or esotropia2. divergent strabismus or exotropia
155
Type of strabismus better known as cross-eye where both eyes turn inward
convergent/esotropia
156
Type of strabismus better known as wall-eye where both eyes turn outward
divergent/exotropia
157
What is the main symptom of acquired strabismus?
diplopia or double vision
158
What disorder is associated with strabismus when present in childhood?
amblyopia or lazy eye
159
Strabismus is caused by weakness in the ____ stimulating the muscles that control eye position
nerves
160
Strabismus can also be caused by conditions elsewhere in the body in the ___, ___ or ___
brain, cranial nerves, muscles. Ex: HTN, temporal arteritis, muscular dystrophy, aneurysm, intracranial lesions
161
Strabismus should be treated immediately because early intervention is key. Examples of treatment are corrective glasses, surgery to restore the eye-muscle balance, and covering the ___ eye in order to force the patient to use the ___ eye
fixing eye, deviating eye
162
Acute, focal inflammatory infections of the sebaceous glands of the eyelids
hordeolum or stye
163
Which glands of the eyelids are affected by hordeolum
sebaceous glands
164
Hordeolum are associated with and secondary to _____
blepharitis
165
What is the only cause of hordeolum?
staphylococcal infection
166
Small, firm, non-mobile, painless subcutaneous nodule on the margin or body of the eyelid
chalazion
167
In chalazion there is a blockage of fluid originating from one of the ____ glands which lubricate the eyelid margin
meibomian
168
Any inflammation or infection of the cornea
keratitis
169
Keratitis is diagnosed by examining the cornea using a _____
slit lamp
170
Keratitis is an infection resulting from the ___ virus, especially likely in people w/ URI and facial cold sores
herpes simplex virus
171
What are other causes for keratitis
1. certain bacteria/fungi2. contact lens wear3. corneal trauma4. corneal exposure to dry air or intense light
172
In keratitis, prompt treatment decreases the risk of ulceration which can cause what?
Ulceration can erode the cornea and form of scar tissue
173
Inflammation of the margins of the eyelids involving hair follicles/glands
blepharitis
174
Blepharitis is usually secondary to ___ of the eyelid's sebaceous glands
seborrhea
175
What is the main symptom of blepharitis?
redness, crusting eyelid, itching, burning
176
What are two types of blepharitis?
1. ulcerative 2. non-ulcerative
177
Type of blepharitis caused by staphylocococcal infection
ulcerative
178
Type of blepharitis caused by allergies or exposure to smoke, dust, chemicals
non-ulcerative
179
Chronic blepharitis may lead to ___ and ___
corneal and conjunctival inflammation
180
Lower eyelid margins turn inward
entropion
181
Entropion may cause ___ and ___ defects
conjunctivitis and ephithelial defects
182
Entropion causes the lashes to rub the ___ and ___
conjunctiva and cornea
183
How is entropion treated?
minor surgical procedure
184
Lower eyelid margins evert from the eyeball
ectropion
185
Ectropion exposes the ____ lining
conjunctival membrane lining
186
Type of ectropion that can be caused by scars on the eyelid or cheek that contract and pull the eye down
cicatricial ectropion
187
Ectropion left untreated can cause development of ___ and permanent damage to the ___
corneal ulcers, damage to the cornea
188
What causes both ectropion and entropion?
1. aging2. loss of elasticity
189
Permanent drooping of the upper eyelid which partially or completely covers the eye
blepharoptosis
190
Blepharoptosis can be caused by weakness of the _____ nerve or of the muscle that raises the eyelid
third cranial nerve
191
Diseases like ___ and ___ can cause blepharoptosis
muscular dystrophy and myasthenia gravis
192
Blepharoptosis is treated with an operation to elevate the eyelid ___
position
193
If patient with blepharoptosis has myasthenia gravis, they are treated with ____
systemic medication
194
Inflammation of the conjunctiva
conjunctivitis
195
What is the layman's term for conjunctivitis
pink-eye
196
The mucous membrane covering the anterior portion of the eyeball and lines the eyelids
conjunctiva
197
What is present in infectious conjunctivitis?
watery or hyperpurulent discharge
198
What are 3 causes of pink eye?
1. viral or bacterial infection from contaminated fingers/towels2. irritation from allergies or chemicals3. sexual contact with someone with an STI
199
Infection of the cornea with painful loss of surface epithelium
corneal abrasion or ulcer
200
Abrasions and ulcerations stain with _____, which make them easily detectable
fluorescein
201
Characterized by an opaque area on the cornea that represents the infiltrate of immune cells
corneal ulcers
202
What causes corneal abrasions and ulcers?
1. foreign bodies trapped between cornea and eyelid2. ocular trauma 3. poorly fitting contact lenses
203
How are corneal abrasions treated?
They heal spontaneously
204
How are corneal ulcers treated?
immediate intensive broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
205
Inflammation of the episclera characterized by redness and irritation in ONE portion of the eye
episcleritis
206
T or F. Episcleritis is usually associated with other concomitant systemic diseases
F
207
Inflammation of the deeper sclera (white outermost covering of the eyeball) characterized by intense redness in one or more areas of the sclera
scleritis
208
What causes scleritis?
autoimmune disorders:rheumatoid arthritis, Crohns, ulcerative colitis
209
What happens if scleritis is left untreated?
Perforation of the globe and loss of the eye can occur
210
How is scleritis treated?
scleroplasty
211
Opacified natural lens of the eye
cataract
212
What causes cataracts?
1. aging2. prematurity3. diabetes4. high dose corticosteroid use
213
How are cataracts treated?
Depends on many factors but usually surgery when they begin to interfere with the lifestyle of the patient
214
What are the specific surgical procedures to treat cataracts?
1. phacoemulsification (most common: no sutures)2. extracapsular surgery (removed in one piece)
215
In extracapsular surgery and phacoemulsification, the ____ is left in place to support an artificial lens
posterior capsule
216
Posterior membrane becomes cloudy after surgery; a laser can be used to make an opening in the center of the cloudy membrane. What is this procedure called?
YAG capsulotomy
217
Damage to the optic nerve in the presence of elevated ocular pressure
glaucoma
218
Glaucoma is one of the major causes of ____
blindness
219
What are the 2 types of glaucoma
1. Chronic open-angle2. Acute angle-closure
220
Most common and most treatable form of glaucoma; obstruction occurs in the trabecular meshwork
chronic open angle
221
Type of glaucoma that can cause complete blindness; the trabecular meshwork is covered by the root of the iris or adhesions betweenthe iris and the cornea
acute angle-closure
222
What are the 3 risk factors for glaucoma?
1. age older than 602. nearsightedness3. african-american descent
223
How is glaucoma detected?
1. intraocular pressure readings2. optic nerve evaluations
224
List some causes of glaucoma.
1. ocular trauma2. overuse of tropical steroids3. family history4. aging5. diabetes mellitus obesity
225
Medication is given to glaucoma patient to decrease ____ and increased ____
Decrease aqueous humor and increased uveoscleral outflow
226
What are the 5 procedures used to treat glaucoma?
1. argon laser trabeculopasty (ALT)2. selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT)3. laser iridotomy 4. trabeculectomy5. beta blockers
227
Progressive deterioration or breakdown of the macula
macular degeneration
228
In macular degeneration, ___ vision may disappear altogether when advance
central
229
Macular degeneration does not affect ___ vision
peripheral
230
____ macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in white people in the US
age-related
231
What are 2 types of macular degeneration?
1. non-exudative (dry)2. wet
232
Type of MD where there are atrophic changes in the macula and drusen deposits are present
non-exudative or dry macular degeneration
233
Type of MD where there is presence of abnormal blood vessels beneath the retina; can cause hemorrhage
wet
234
What causes macular degeneration?
degenerative changes in the pigment of the epithelium
235
T or F. There is no medical cure for MD
T
236
How is dry macular degeneration treated?
vitamin supplements especially vitamins C & E
237
How is wet macular degeneration treated?
1. traditional laser photocoagulation2. photodynamic therapy3. injection of antiangiogenic factors
238
Pathologic alterations of the retinal blood vessels and the pathologic proliferation of retinal vessels
diabetic retinopathy
239
What are the effects on retina associated with dr?
1.microaneurysm2. hemorrhages3. dilation of retinal veins4. neovascularization (formation of abnormal new vessels)
240
Diabetic retinopathy occurs about __ to __ years after the onset of diabetes mellitus
8 to 10 years
241
What is the main cause of diabetic retinopathy?
Poor management of diabetes (however, all persons with diabetes are susceptible)
242
What are the 3 treatments for diabetic retinopathy?
1. laser coagulation2. vitrectomy (vitreous hemorrhage/proliferative disease)3. maintaining tight blood glucose control
243
Retinal detachment is the elevation or separation of the retina from the ___
choroid
244
What are the 2 main symptoms of retinal detachment?
1. light flashes2. floaters
245
Retina is associated with which 2 diseases?
1. myopia2. diabetic retinopathy
246
What causes retinal detachment?
fluid leaking under the retina through a retinal tear, retinal atrophy, ocular trauma
247
T or F> Irreversible blindness is likely if left untreated in patients with retinal detachment
T
248
How is retinal detachment treated?
1. photocoagulation and cryotherapy if no significant detachment has occurred2. surgery
249
Inflammation of the uveal tract including the iris, ciliary body and choroid
uveitis
250
Which autoimmune disorders cause uveitis?
1. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis2. ankylosing spondylitis
251
Which infections cause uveitis
syphillis, TB, toxoplasmosis, histoplasmosis, IBS
252
___ agents can reduce uveitis pain associated with ciliary inflammation
cycloplegic agents
253
Abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs
exophthalmos
254
What are 5 causes of exophthalmos?
1. ENLARGED extraocular muscles2. RETROBULBAR mass, hemorrhage or inflammation3. EDEMA of soft tissue that lines the bony orbit of the eye4. all THYROID conditions
255
How is severe exophthalmos treated?
surgical decompression of the orbit
