Eyes | Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

aque/o

A

water

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2
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

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3
Q

palpebr/o

A

eyelid

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4
Q

conjunctiv/o

A

conjunctiva

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5
Q

cor/o

A

pupil

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6
Q

pupill/o

A

pupil

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7
Q

corne/o

A

corneo

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8
Q

kerat/o

A

cornea

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9
Q

cycl/o

A

ciliary body or muscle of the eye

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10
Q

dacry/o

A

tears, tear duct

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11
Q

lacrim/o

A

tears

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12
Q

ir/o, irid/o

A

iris (covered portion of the eye around the pupil)

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13
Q

kerat/o

A

cornea

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14
Q

ocul/o

A

eye

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15
Q

ophthalm/o

A

eye

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16
Q

opt/o, optic/o

A

eye, vision

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17
Q

palpebr/o

A

eyelid

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18
Q

papill/o

A

optic disc; nipple like

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19
Q

phac/o, phak/o

A

lens of the eye

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20
Q

retin/o

A

retina

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21
Q

scler/o

A

sclera (white of the eye); hard

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22
Q

uve/o

A

uvea; vascular layer of the eye

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23
Q

vitre/o

A

glassy

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24
Q

ambyl/o

A

dull, dim

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25
Q

dipl/o

A

double

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26
Q

glauc/o

A

gray

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27
Q

mi/o

A

smaller, less

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28
Q

mydr/o

A

widen, enlarge

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29
Q

nyct/o

A

night

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30
Q

phot/o

A

light

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31
Q

presby/o

A

old age

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32
Q

scot/o

A

darkness

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33
Q

xer/o

A

dry

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34
Q

-opia

A

vision

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35
Q

-opsia

A

vision

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36
Q

-tropia

A

to turn

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37
Q

intravenous injection of fluorescein (a dye) followed by serial photographs of the retina through dilated pupils

A

fluorescein angioraphy

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38
Q

visual examination of the interior of the eye

A

ophthalmoscopy

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39
Q

examination of anterior ocular structures under microscopic magnification

A

slit lamp microscopy

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40
Q

clarity of vision is assessed

A

visual acuity test

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41
Q

measurement of the area (peripheral and central) within which objects are seen when the eyes are fixed, looking straight ahead without movement of the head

A

visual field test

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42
Q

removal of the entire eyeball

A

enucleation

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43
Q

surgical repair of the cornea

A

keratoplasty

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44
Q

intense, precisely focused light beam (argon laser) creates an inflammatory reaction that seals retinal tears and leaky retinal blood vessels

A

laser photocoagulaton

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45
Q

use of an excimer laser to correct errors of refraction

A

LASIK

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46
Q

ultrasonic vibrations break up the lens, which is then aspirated through the ultrasonic probe

A

phacoemulsification

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47
Q

suture of a silicone band to the sclera over a detached portion of the retina

A

scleral buckle

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48
Q

removal of the vitreous humor

A

vitrectomy

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49
Q

acous/o

A

hearing

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50
Q

audi/o

A

hearing; sense of hearing

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51
Q

audit/o

A

hearing

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52
Q

aur/o, auricul/o

A

ear

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53
Q

cochle/o

A

cochlea

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54
Q

mastoid/o

A

mastoid process

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55
Q

myring/o

A

eardrum, tympanic membrane

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56
Q

ossicul/o

A

ossicle

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57
Q

ot/o

A

ear

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58
Q

salping/o

A

eustachian tube, auditory tube

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59
Q

staped/o

A

stapes (third bone of the middle ear)

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60
Q

tympan/o

A

eardrum, tympanic membrane

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61
Q

vestibul/o

A

vestibule

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62
Q

-acusis, - cusis

A

hearing

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63
Q

-meter

A

instrument to measure

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64
Q

-otia

A

ear condition

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65
Q

testing the sense of hearing

A

audiometry

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66
Q

surgical insertion of a device that allows sensorineural hearing: impaired persons to understand speech

A

cochlear implant procedure

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67
Q

measurement of the temperature of the tympanic membrane by detection of infrared radiation from the eardrum

A

ear thermometry

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68
Q

visual examination of the ear canal with an otoscope

A

otoscopy

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69
Q

test of ear conduction using a vibration source (tuning fork)

A

tuning fork tests

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70
Q

vibrating fork against the patient’s mastoid bone and in front of the auditory meatus

A

rinne test

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71
Q

tuning fork is placed on the center of the forehead

A

weber test

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72
Q

AD

A

right ear

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73
Q

AS

A

left ear

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74
Q

AU

A

both ears

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75
Q

AOM

A

acute otitis media

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76
Q

EENT

A

eyes, ears, nose, throat

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77
Q

ENT

A

ears, nose, throat

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78
Q

EOM

A

extraocular moveemnt

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79
Q

HD

A

hearing distance

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80
Q

HEENT

A

head, eyes, ears, nose, throat

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81
Q

IOL

A

intraocular lens

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82
Q

IOP

A

intraocular pressure

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83
Q

OD

A

right eye

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84
Q

OS

A

left eye

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85
Q

OU

A

both eyes

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86
Q

PERRLA

A

pupils equal, round, react to light and accommodation

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87
Q

SOM

A

serous otitis media

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88
Q

VA

A

visual acuity

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89
Q

VF

A

visual field

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90
Q

What are the four functions of the senses?

A
  1. detect stimuli from internal and external environments2. help maintain homeostasis3. pleasure4. protection
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91
Q

Awareness of body position, posture, movement, etc.

A

proprioception

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92
Q

Mostly found in the skin that detects pain, touch, pressure, temperature, proprioception

A

general senses

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93
Q

Found in the head, encompasses taste (gustation), smell (olfaction), hearing, equilibrium (balance), vision

A

special senses

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94
Q

These senses respond to chemicals in saliva or air

A

taste and smell

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95
Q

What are the two main destinations of smell in the brain?

A
  1. olfactory cortex (frontal lobe)2. hypothalamus, amygdala, other limbic regions
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96
Q

Smells are consciously interpreted/identified here

A

olfactory cortex (frontal lobe)

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97
Q

Smells where emotional responses to odors occur

A

hypothalamus, amygdala, other limbic regions

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98
Q

Smells that trigger sympathetic fight or flight response

A

danger/fear smells

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99
Q

Smells that trigger salivation

A

appetizing smells

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100
Q

Taste is transported by which 3 cranial nerves?

A
  1. facial nerve VII2. glossopharyngeal nerve IX3. vagus nerve X
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101
Q

Where is the main destination of taste in the brain?

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system

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102
Q

Mouth also contains which 3 receptors?

A
  1. thermoreceptors2. mechanoreceptors3. nociceptors
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103
Q

-esthesia

A

sensation

104
Q

-algesia

A

pain

105
Q

-osmia

A

smell

106
Q

-geusia

A

taste

107
Q

The ear is responsible for which two major senses?

A

hearing and equilibrium

108
Q

What are the three parts of the ear?

A
  1. outer ear2. middle ear3. inner ear
109
Q

What makes up the outer ear?

A

pinna and external auditory canal or auricle and meatus

110
Q

What two structures protect the outer ear?

A
  1. tiny hairs lining auditory canal2. ceruminous glands
111
Q

Modified sweat glands that produce earwax

A

ceruminous glands

112
Q

What makes up the middle ear?

A
  1. tympanic membrane or eardrum2. three ossicles3. pharygotympanic tube or auditory tube
113
Q

Transmits sound from the outer ear to the middle ear

A

tympanic membrane or eardrum

114
Q

What are three ossicles?

A
  1. malleus - hammer2. incus - anvil 3. staples - stirrup
115
Q

Connects middle ear to pharynx and equalizes pressure on both sides of the tympanic or membrane responsible for swallowing or yawning

A

pharyngotympanic tube or auditory tube

116
Q

Intricate system of fluid filled passageways hollowed out of the temporal bone; also called the labyrinth

A

inner ear

117
Q

Structure that is the hearing mechanism

A

organ of Corti

118
Q

What is the pathway between the external ear and the brain?

A

External ear → tympanic membrane → ossicle: malleus → ossicle: incus → ossicle: stapes → oval window → cochlea (organ of corti) → round window → vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII) → temporal lobe

119
Q

Equilibrium is controlled by the _____ and _____

A

Controlled by the semicircular canals and vestibule

120
Q

audi/o

A

hearing

121
Q

acous, acus, cus

A

sound/hearing

122
Q

ot/o

A

ear

123
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane

124
Q

tympan/o

A

tympanic membrane

125
Q

salping/o

A

tube, eustachian tube

126
Q

staped/o, stapedi/o

A

stapes

127
Q

labyrinth/o

A

labyrinth

128
Q

vestibul/o

A

vestibule

129
Q

cochle/o

A

cochlea

130
Q

Three planes of movement concerned mainly with rotational movements

A

semicircular canals

131
Q

Refractive error, also called farsightedness, where distant objects are clear while near objects are blurry

A

hyperopia

132
Q

In hyperopia, light entering the eye is focused ____ the retina rather than ____ the retina

A

light focused behind the retina rather than on the retina

133
Q

In hyperopia, the eyeball is abnormally ___ measured from front to back

A

short

134
Q

Hyperopia requires the eye’s _____ to reposition the viewed object on the retina, therefore sharpening the image

A

internal lens

135
Q

Refractive error also called nearsightedness where

A

near objects are clear while distant objects are blurry

136
Q

In myopia, light entering the eye is focused ___ of the retina causing blurred vision

A

light is focused in front of the retina

137
Q

In myopia, the eyeball is abnormally ___ as measured from front to back

A

long

138
Q

In myopia, images viewed cannot be ____ by the eye’s internal lens

A

sharpened

139
Q

Refractive error which causes some images to appear clear while other images appear blurred

A

astigmatism

140
Q

In astigmatism, ___ focusing of light rays enter the eey

A

irregular

141
Q

In astigmatism, the cornea is ___ and not ___, causing light rays to be unevenly focused across the retina

A

egg shaped and not spherical

142
Q

Refractive error in which the eye’s internal lens can’t focus on near objects due to loss of _____

A

elasticity

143
Q

Presbyopia is related to ____; usually starts in people in their mid-40s

A

aging

144
Q

Involuntary, repetitive and rhythmic movements of one or both eyes and associated with blurred or decreased vision

A

nystagmus

145
Q

Type of nystagmus that always necessitates a complete neurologic evaluation

A

acquired nystagmus

146
Q

What are the 2 types of nystagmus?

A
  1. congenital 2. acquired
147
Q

Type of nystagmus that manifests before 6 months to 1 year of age and is the most common type

A

congenital

148
Q

Type of nystagmus that results when a disease process produces lesions in the brain or inner ear

A

acquired

149
Q

List some causes for nystagmus

A
  1. brain tumors2. cerebrovascular lesions3. abnormal development of the nervous system4. alcohol/drug use
150
Q

How is congenital nystagmus treated?

A

Kestenbaum procedure

151
Q

The Kestenbaum procedure is used to treat congenital nystagmus where the eyes are surgically rotated towards the _____ of the eye

A

null point

152
Q

How is acquire nystagmus treated?

A

treating underlying cause

153
Q

Visual defect of misalignment where eyes fail to look in the same direction at the same time

A

strabismus

154
Q

What are the 2 types of strabismus?

A
  1. convergent strabismus or esotropia2. divergent strabismus or exotropia
155
Q

Type of strabismus better known as cross-eye where both eyes turn inward

A

convergent/esotropia

156
Q

Type of strabismus better known as wall-eye where both eyes turn outward

A

divergent/exotropia

157
Q

What is the main symptom of acquired strabismus?

A

diplopia or double vision

158
Q

What disorder is associated with strabismus when present in childhood?

A

amblyopia or lazy eye

159
Q

Strabismus is caused by weakness in the ____ stimulating the muscles that control eye position

A

nerves

160
Q

Strabismus can also be caused by conditions elsewhere in the body in the ___, ___ or ___

A

brain, cranial nerves, muscles. Ex: HTN, temporal arteritis, muscular dystrophy, aneurysm, intracranial lesions

161
Q

Strabismus should be treated immediately because early intervention is key. Examples of treatment are corrective glasses, surgery to restore the eye-muscle balance, and covering the ___ eye in order to force the patient to use the ___ eye

A

fixing eye, deviating eye

162
Q

Acute, focal inflammatory infections of the sebaceous glands of the eyelids

A

hordeolum or stye

163
Q

Which glands of the eyelids are affected by hordeolum

A

sebaceous glands

164
Q

Hordeolum are associated with and secondary to _____

A

blepharitis

165
Q

What is the only cause of hordeolum?

A

staphylococcal infection

166
Q

Small, firm, non-mobile, painless subcutaneous nodule on the margin or body of the eyelid

A

chalazion

167
Q

In chalazion there is a blockage of fluid originating from one of the ____ glands which lubricate the eyelid margin

A

meibomian

168
Q

Any inflammation or infection of the cornea

A

keratitis

169
Q

Keratitis is diagnosed by examining the cornea using a _____

A

slit lamp

170
Q

Keratitis is an infection resulting from the ___ virus, especially likely in people w/ URI and facial cold sores

A

herpes simplex virus

171
Q

What are other causes for keratitis

A
  1. certain bacteria/fungi2. contact lens wear3. corneal trauma4. corneal exposure to dry air or intense light
172
Q

In keratitis, prompt treatment decreases the risk of ulceration which can cause what?

A

Ulceration can erode the cornea and form of scar tissue

173
Q

Inflammation of the margins of the eyelids involving hair follicles/glands

A

blepharitis

174
Q

Blepharitis is usually secondary to ___ of the eyelid’s sebaceous glands

A

seborrhea

175
Q

What is the main symptom of blepharitis?

A

redness, crusting eyelid, itching, burning

176
Q

What are two types of blepharitis?

A
  1. ulcerative 2. non-ulcerative
177
Q

Type of blepharitis caused by staphylocococcal infection

A

ulcerative

178
Q

Type of blepharitis caused by allergies or exposure to smoke, dust, chemicals

A

non-ulcerative

179
Q

Chronic blepharitis may lead to ___ and ___

A

corneal and conjunctival inflammation

180
Q

Lower eyelid margins turn inward

A

entropion

181
Q

Entropion may cause ___ and ___ defects

A

conjunctivitis and ephithelial defects

182
Q

Entropion causes the lashes to rub the ___ and ___

A

conjunctiva and cornea

183
Q

How is entropion treated?

A

minor surgical procedure

184
Q

Lower eyelid margins evert from the eyeball

A

ectropion

185
Q

Ectropion exposes the ____ lining

A

conjunctival membrane lining

186
Q

Type of ectropion that can be caused by scars on the eyelid or cheek that contract and pull the eye down

A

cicatricial ectropion

187
Q

Ectropion left untreated can cause development of ___ and permanent damage to the ___

A

corneal ulcers, damage to the cornea

188
Q

What causes both ectropion and entropion?

A
  1. aging2. loss of elasticity
189
Q

Permanent drooping of the upper eyelid which partially or completely covers the eye

A

blepharoptosis

190
Q

Blepharoptosis can be caused by weakness of the _____ nerve or of the muscle that raises the eyelid

A

third cranial nerve

191
Q

Diseases like ___ and ___ can cause blepharoptosis

A

muscular dystrophy and myasthenia gravis

192
Q

Blepharoptosis is treated with an operation to elevate the eyelid ___

A

position

193
Q

If patient with blepharoptosis has myasthenia gravis, they are treated with ____

A

systemic medication

194
Q

Inflammation of the conjunctiva

A

conjunctivitis

195
Q

What is the layman’s term for conjunctivitis

A

pink-eye

196
Q

The mucous membrane covering the anterior portion of the eyeball and lines the eyelids

A

conjunctiva

197
Q

What is present in infectious conjunctivitis?

A

watery or hyperpurulent discharge

198
Q

What are 3 causes of pink eye?

A
  1. viral or bacterial infection from contaminated fingers/towels2. irritation from allergies or chemicals3. sexual contact with someone with an STI
199
Q

Infection of the cornea with painful loss of surface epithelium

A

corneal abrasion or ulcer

200
Q

Abrasions and ulcerations stain with _____, which make them easily detectable

A

fluorescein

201
Q

Characterized by an opaque area on the cornea that represents the infiltrate of immune cells

A

corneal ulcers

202
Q

What causes corneal abrasions and ulcers?

A
  1. foreign bodies trapped between cornea and eyelid2. ocular trauma 3. poorly fitting contact lenses
203
Q

How are corneal abrasions treated?

A

They heal spontaneously

204
Q

How are corneal ulcers treated?

A

immediate intensive broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy

205
Q

Inflammation of the episclera characterized by redness and irritation in ONE portion of the eye

A

episcleritis

206
Q

T or F. Episcleritis is usually associated with other concomitant systemic diseases

A

F

207
Q

Inflammation of the deeper sclera (white outermost covering of the eyeball) characterized by intense redness in one or more areas of the sclera

A

scleritis

208
Q

What causes scleritis?

A

autoimmune disorders:rheumatoid arthritis, Crohns, ulcerative colitis

209
Q

What happens if scleritis is left untreated?

A

Perforation of the globe and loss of the eye can occur

210
Q

How is scleritis treated?

A

scleroplasty

211
Q

Opacified natural lens of the eye

A

cataract

212
Q

What causes cataracts?

A
  1. aging2. prematurity3. diabetes4. high dose corticosteroid use
213
Q

How are cataracts treated?

A

Depends on many factors but usually surgery when they begin to interfere with the lifestyle of the patient

214
Q

What are the specific surgical procedures to treat cataracts?

A
  1. phacoemulsification (most common: no sutures)2. extracapsular surgery (removed in one piece)
215
Q

In extracapsular surgery and phacoemulsification, the ____ is left in place to support an artificial lens

A

posterior capsule

216
Q

Posterior membrane becomes cloudy after surgery; a laser can be used to make an opening in the center of the cloudy membrane. What is this procedure called?

A

YAG capsulotomy

217
Q

Damage to the optic nerve in the presence of elevated ocular pressure

A

glaucoma

218
Q

Glaucoma is one of the major causes of ____

A

blindness

219
Q

What are the 2 types of glaucoma

A
  1. Chronic open-angle2. Acute angle-closure
220
Q

Most common and most treatable form of glaucoma; obstruction occurs in the trabecular meshwork

A

chronic open angle

221
Q

Type of glaucoma that can cause complete blindness; the trabecular meshwork is covered by the root of the iris or adhesions betweenthe iris and the cornea

A

acute angle-closure

222
Q

What are the 3 risk factors for glaucoma?

A
  1. age older than 602. nearsightedness3. african-american descent
223
Q

How is glaucoma detected?

A
  1. intraocular pressure readings2. optic nerve evaluations
224
Q

List some causes of glaucoma.

A
  1. ocular trauma2. overuse of tropical steroids3. family history4. aging5. diabetes mellitus obesity
225
Q

Medication is given to glaucoma patient to decrease ____ and increased ____

A

Decrease aqueous humor and increased uveoscleral outflow

226
Q

What are the 5 procedures used to treat glaucoma?

A
  1. argon laser trabeculopasty (ALT)2. selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT)3. laser iridotomy 4. trabeculectomy5. beta blockers
227
Q

Progressive deterioration or breakdown of the macula

A

macular degeneration

228
Q

In macular degeneration, ___ vision may disappear altogether when advance

A

central

229
Q

Macular degeneration does not affect ___ vision

A

peripheral

230
Q

____ macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in white people in the US

A

age-related

231
Q

What are 2 types of macular degeneration?

A
  1. non-exudative (dry)2. wet
232
Q

Type of MD where there are atrophic changes in the macula and drusen deposits are present

A

non-exudative or dry macular degeneration

233
Q

Type of MD where there is presence of abnormal blood vessels beneath the retina; can cause hemorrhage

A

wet

234
Q

What causes macular degeneration?

A

degenerative changes in the pigment of the epithelium

235
Q

T or F. There is no medical cure for MD

A

T

236
Q

How is dry macular degeneration treated?

A

vitamin supplements especially vitamins C & E

237
Q

How is wet macular degeneration treated?

A
  1. traditional laser photocoagulation2. photodynamic therapy3. injection of antiangiogenic factors
238
Q

Pathologic alterations of the retinal blood vessels and the pathologic proliferation of retinal vessels

A

diabetic retinopathy

239
Q

What are the effects on retina associated with dr?

A

1.microaneurysm2. hemorrhages3. dilation of retinal veins4. neovascularization (formation of abnormal new vessels)

240
Q

Diabetic retinopathy occurs about __ to __ years after the onset of diabetes mellitus

A

8 to 10 years

241
Q

What is the main cause of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Poor management of diabetes (however, all persons with diabetes are susceptible)

242
Q

What are the 3 treatments for diabetic retinopathy?

A
  1. laser coagulation2. vitrectomy (vitreous hemorrhage/proliferative disease)3. maintaining tight blood glucose control
243
Q

Retinal detachment is the elevation or separation of the retina from the ___

A

choroid

244
Q

What are the 2 main symptoms of retinal detachment?

A
  1. light flashes2. floaters
245
Q

Retina is associated with which 2 diseases?

A
  1. myopia2. diabetic retinopathy
246
Q

What causes retinal detachment?

A

fluid leaking under the retina through a retinal tear, retinal atrophy, ocular trauma

247
Q

T or F> Irreversible blindness is likely if left untreated in patients with retinal detachment

A

T

248
Q

How is retinal detachment treated?

A
  1. photocoagulation and cryotherapy if no significant detachment has occurred2. surgery
249
Q

Inflammation of the uveal tract including the iris, ciliary body and choroid

A

uveitis

250
Q

Which autoimmune disorders cause uveitis?

A
  1. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis2. ankylosing spondylitis
251
Q

Which infections cause uveitis

A

syphillis, TB, toxoplasmosis, histoplasmosis, IBS

252
Q

___ agents can reduce uveitis pain associated with ciliary inflammation

A

cycloplegic agents

253
Q

Abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs

A

exophthalmos

254
Q

What are 5 causes of exophthalmos?

A
  1. ENLARGED extraocular muscles2. RETROBULBAR mass, hemorrhage or inflammation3. EDEMA of soft tissue that lines the bony orbit of the eye4. all THYROID conditions
255
Q

How is severe exophthalmos treated?

A

surgical decompression of the orbit