Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sonographic Topics > OB/GYN Registry Review Part 4 > Flashcards

OB/GYN Registry Review Part 4 Flashcards

1
Q

_____ twinning will always be:

A

dichorionic/diamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

early division <4 days results in:

A

dichorionic/diamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most common division is between __-__ days

A

4
8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Division between 4 and 8 days results in:

A

monochorionic/diamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Late division >8 days results in:

A

monochorionic/monoamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

two completely separate gestational sacs within the uterine cavity in the first trimester

A

dichorionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Twin peak (labda or delta sign)

A

dichorionic/diamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

thin membrane inserting like a T into placenta which means one shared placenta T sign

A

monochorionic/diamniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Monochorional twins share one placenta so there’s increased risk of ____ and ____

A

fetal shunting
growth issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

fetal shunting through vessels in the placenta

A

Twin to Twin Transfusion syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Donor twin gives blood to other, eventually suffering from ____ and ____ in TTTS

A

anemia
IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The recipient twin receives too much blood and can suffer from _____ and ____ due to the overload of blood going to the heart in TTTS

A

hydrops
CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1st initial sonographic indication of TTTS

A

discordant fetal growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The donor twin in TTTS signs:

A

smaller/IUGR
oligohydramnios
anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The recipient twin in TTTS signs:

A

larger
polyhydramnios
hydrops/CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most severe type of TTTS

A

stuck twin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Oligohydramnios is so severe that the donor twin appears to be stuck to the side of the uterine wall

A

Stuck twin (TTTS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Acardiac twinning is also known as ____

A

TRAP sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TRAP sequence is:

A

twin reversed arterial perfusion syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

abnormal anastamosis of placental vessels that support the growth of parasitic or acardiac twin

A

TRAP sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

One normal fetus and one abnormally developed fetus with no heart

A

TRAP sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The pump twin in TRAP sequence maintains:

A

the growth of the parasitic twin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The pump twin in TRAP sequence has a mortality rate of __% secondary to polyhydramnios and prematurity.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The acardiac twin in TRAP sequence demonstrates:

A

absent upper body, absent heart, and hydrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Conjoined twins only happen in;

A

monochorionic/monoamniotic twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Occurs when zygote splits >13 days

A

conjoined twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most common types of conjoined twins

A

thoracopagus
omphalopagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

thoracopagus

A

conjoined at the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

omphalopagus

A

conjoined at the abdomen

30
Q

_____ twins have a greater chance of survival in cause of one twin demise, especially earlier on in the first trimester

A

dichorionic

31
Q

fetal death in 1st trimester and is maintained, not reabsorbed. May eventually become vanishing

A

fetus papyraceus

32
Q

death of a twin in the early 1st trimester and is reabsorbed

A

vanishing twin

33
Q

______ fetal demise will often lead to death of other twin

A

monochorionic

34
Q

Fetal demise in the second trimester of monochorionic can lead to:

A

twin embolization syndrome

35
Q

demised twin begins to breakdown and vascular products can travel through common vascular channels with shared placenta.

A

twin embolization syndrome

36
Q

The _____ and ____ are usually affected in twin embolization syndrome

A

central nervous system
kidneys

37
Q

The normal placenta is __-__ cm thick

A

2
4

38
Q

The major function of the placenta is an ____ organ

A

excretory

39
Q

The _____ exchanges gases and wastes products with nutrients and oxygen and is the means of nutrition and respiration.

A

placenta

40
Q

The maternal side of the placenta

A

decidua basalis

41
Q

The fetal side of the placenta

A

chorion frondosum

42
Q

functional unit of placenta

A

lobes of chorionic villi termed cotyledons

43
Q

2 discs of equal size joined together by an isthmus of placental tissue

A

bilobed

44
Q

additional small lobe separate from the main placental mass but connect by vascular connections. No placental tissue connection

A

accessory lobe/succenturiate lobe

45
Q

curled up placental contour appearing appearing as a shelf. Curled edges, do not lay flat or smooth along wall. Increased risk of abnormal placental development and future abruption

A

circumvallate placenta

46
Q

pools of maternal venous blood. Sonolucent areas within placental mass. Will not fill in with color, but can be “swirling” in B-mode

A

venous lakes/maternal lakes/placental lakes/lacunae

47
Q

Advanced maturation of the placenta can be indications of maternal complications leading to:

A

placental insufficiency
asymmetrical IUGR

48
Q

Grade 0 placenta

A

homogenous, smooth texture. No indentations in the chorionic plate. Smooth borders (1st tri to early 2nd tri)

49
Q

Grade 1 placenta

A

subtle indentations in chorionic plate, small random hyperechoic foci (2nd tri to early 3rd tri)

50
Q

Grade 2 placenta

A

larger, comma-like indentations alter chorionic plate, larger calcifications in basal plate (late 3rd tri)

51
Q

Grade 3 placenta

A

post dates/advanced. Complete indentations chorionic to basal plate. Irregular calcifications with shadowing. Related to drug abuse and preeclampsia. may cause IUGR if early gestation

52
Q

-previa

A

presenting/before

53
Q

placenta is implants within the LUS and covers/near to internal os

A

placenta previa

54
Q

most likely cause of painless vaginal bleeding in 2nd/3rd trimester

A

placenta previa

55
Q

Placenta previa can only by diagnosed __ weeks onward due to possible placental migration

A

20

56
Q

internal os is completely covered by placental tissue

A

complete placenta previa

57
Q

edge of placenta touches internal os

A

marginal placenta previa

58
Q

edge of placenta is within 2cm of internal os

A

low-lying placenta

59
Q

general term for abnormal adherence of placenta to myometrium

A

placenta accreta

60
Q

loss of basal plate or myometrial/serosal layer, multiple placental lacunae, and increased peripheral vascularity

A

placenta accreta

61
Q

Most common (accreta, increta, or percreta)

A

accreta

62
Q

Placenta _____ invades the myometrium

A

increta

63
Q

Placenta ____ penetrates through the uterus and breach serosal layer

A

percreta

64
Q

premature separation of placenta from uterine wall

A

placental abruption

65
Q

hypoechoic or anechoic region between placenta and uterine wall at level of basal plate

A

placental abruption

66
Q

most severe abruption, entire retroplacental hematoma

A

complete placental abruption

67
Q

A few centimeters of separation (abruption)

A

partial

68
Q

placental edge, lifting the chorionic membrane from the wall (abruption)

A

marginal

69
Q

most common placental tumor

A

chorioangioma

70
Q

Most common location of chorioangioma

A

adjacent to umbilical cord insertion at placenta

71
Q
A

Sonographic Topics (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions