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Sonographic Topics > Chapter 29: The Fetal Genitourinary System > Flashcards

Chapter 29: The Fetal Genitourinary System Flashcards

1
Q

The fetal urinary bladder fills and empties approximately every:

A

30 minutes

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2
Q

What is the canal connecting the fetal bladder with the allantois?

A

urachus

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3
Q

Which of the following is associated with sirenomelia?
a. ADPKD
b. bilateral renal agenesis
c. infantile polycystic disease
d. MCDK

A

b

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4
Q

What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed after 20 weeks gestation?

A

7mm

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5
Q

Which of the following is considered a sonographic marker for Down syndrome?
a. megacystis
b. urethral atresia
c. ureterocele
d. pyelectasis

A

d

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6
Q

Which of the following is not part of Potter syndrome?
a. abnormal facial features
b. horseshoe kidneys
c. pulmonary hypoplasia
d. bilateral renal agenesis

A

b

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7
Q

What is a common cause of a bladder outlet obstruction in the male fetus?

A

posterior urethral valves

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8
Q

During an 18-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. The other kidney appears to be normal. Which of the following would be an associated finding?
a. megacystis
b. ovarian dysgenesis
c. hypospadias
d. normal amniotic fluid

A

d

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9
Q

The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the:

A

neuroblastoma

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10
Q

The “keyhole sign” would be seen in all of the following situations except:
a. urethral atresia
b. prune belly syndrome
c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease
d. posterior urethral valves

A

c

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11
Q

What is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric sonogram?

A

hydronephrosis

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12
Q

The “lying down” adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except:
a. unilateral renal agenesis
b. bilateral renal agenesis
c. Potter syndrome
d. pyelectasis

A

d

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13
Q

The birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined defines:

A

ambiguous genitalia

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14
Q

What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed before 20 weeks gestation?

A

7 mm

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15
Q

Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except:
a. omphalocele
b. spina bifida
c. encephalocele
d. imperforate anus

A

c

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16
Q

The renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in adulthood is:

A

autosomal dominant polycystic disease

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction?

A

UPJ obstruction

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18
Q

Bladder exstrophy describes:
a. absence of the cloaca
b. protrusion of the bladder into the umbilicus
c. external position of the bladder
d. enlargement of the bladder

A

c

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19
Q

Which of the following would result in compensatory hypertrophy?
a. unilateral renal agenesis
b. bilateral renal agenesis
c. pelvic kidney
d. horseshoe kidneys

A

a

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20
Q

Which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction?
a. posterior urethral valves
b. fetal ovarian cyst
c. pelciectasis
d. pelvocaliectasis

A

a

21
Q

Which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts?
a. MCDK disease
b. obstructive cystic dysplasia
c. hydonephrotic syndrome
d. ARPKD

A

d

22
Q

The “lying-down” adrenal sign describes the sonographic findings of:

A

renal agenesis

23
Q

The “I” in OEIS complex stands for:

A

imperforate anus

24
Q

Another name for pelviocaliectasis is:

A

hydronephrosis

25
Q

Which of the following best describes hypospadias?
a. OEIS complex in the presence of a hydrocele
b. The chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra
c. The underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele
d. an abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

A

d

26
Q

The “keyhole” sign describes the sonographic findings of a(n):
a. enlarged bladder and dilated urethra
b. bilateral renal agenesis
c. unilateral renal agenesis
d. dilation of the renal pelvis and proximal ureter

A

a

27
Q

What is the term for enlargement of the urinary bladder?

A

megacystis

28
Q

Numberous noncommunicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. What is the most likely etiology of these masses?

A

MCDK

29
Q

Fluid surrounding the fetal testicle is referred to as:

A

hydrocele

30
Q

Fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys describes:

A

horseshoe kidneys

31
Q

The syndrome associated with an occipital encephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactyly is:

A

Meckel-Gruber Syndrome

32
Q

Which of the following is not a component of prune belly syndrome?
a. Megacystis
b. undescended testes
c. dilated urinary bladder and urethra
d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy

A

d

33
Q

OEIS complex is also referred to as:

A

cloacal exstrophy

34
Q

Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the:

A

renal pelvis and calices

35
Q

The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the:

A

pelvis

36
Q

Pyelectasis refers to:

A

dilation of the renal pelvis

37
Q

Prune belly syndrome is caused by:

A

an enlarged bladder

38
Q

All of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except:
a. bilateral MCDK disease
b. unilateral renal agenesis
c. bilateral renal agenesis
d. ARPKD

A

a

39
Q

What is the most common fetal renal tumor?

A

mesoblastic nephroma

40
Q

The type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver and pancreatic cysts is:

A

ADPKD

41
Q

Having more than the normal number of digits is:

A

polydactyly

42
Q

Cryptorchidism describes:

A

undescended testicles

43
Q

An obstruction at the UVJ would lead to dilation of the:

A

ureter and renal collecting system

44
Q

Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the:

A

pelvis

45
Q

Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly?
a. horseshoe kidneys
b. pelvic kidneys
c. renal agenesis
d. duplex collecting system

A

d

46
Q

Failure of the kidneys to form is called:

A

renal agenesis

47
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged, echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios?
a. ARPKD
b. MCDK
c. Renal cystic dysplasia
d. ADPDK

A

a

48
Q
A

Sonographic Topics (35 decks)

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