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Sonographic Topics > OB/GYN Registry Review part 2 > Flashcards

OB/GYN Registry Review part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

damage that is done from PID

A

chronic PID

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2
Q

history of STDs
fever
chills
pelvic pain/tenderness
purulent vaginal discharge
vaginal bleeding
dyspareunia
leukocytosis

A

acute PID

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3
Q

endometritis
pyosalpinx or hydrosalpinx
free fluid CDS
complex adnexal masses

A

acute PID

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4
Q

chronic pelvic or abdominal pain
infertility
palpable adnexal mass
irregular menses
vaginal discharge

A

chronic PID

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5
Q

hydrosalpinx
adhesions seen as echogenic bands within tube
complex adnexal masses

A

chronic PID

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6
Q

confined to uterus. Evidence of endometritis. Thickened endo, heterogeous with maybe blood or pus; comet tail/reverb artifacts classic

A

stage 1 PID

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7
Q

spread into tubes and adnexa, evidence of salpingitis, hydrosalpinx, or pyosalpinx. Hyperemia of tube may also be documented

A

stage 2 PID

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8
Q

severe progression of infection in adnexa. Bilateral complex adnexal masses known as TOA. Once it’s reached this stage, it will always remain chronic.

A

stage 3 PID

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9
Q

PID progression into adnexa. Adhesions develop between tubes and ovaries leading to fusion

A

tubo-ovarian complex

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10
Q

The first trimester is weeks __-__

A

1-13

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11
Q

Fertilization usually occurs in the ____

A

ampulla

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12
Q

Fertilzation usually occurs with ___ hours of ovulation

A

24

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13
Q

Once conception occurs, the fertilized egg is termed a:

A

zygote

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14
Q

At 3-4 days after fertilization, the cluster of cells of the zygote is called the:

A

morula

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15
Q

By day 5, 1st time cell differentiation takes place and it is now a _____

A

blastocyst

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16
Q

outer ring of trophoblastic cells begin to produce HCG.

A

trophoblaster

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17
Q

Endometrium prepares for implantation and becomes decidualized called the:

A

decidual reaction

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18
Q

The outer layer of the trophoblast will eventually become the ____ and ______

A

chorion
placenta

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19
Q

inner cell mass that will develop into embryo, amnion, cord, and yolk sacs

A

embryoblast

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20
Q

Implantation occurs __-__ days after fertilization

A

7
9`

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21
Q

Finger-like projections of the trophoblast called ______ form links into decidualized endometrium

A

chorionic villi

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22
Q

Implantation is complete by day ___ from LMP

A

28

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23
Q

HcG levels double every ___ hours until __ weeks

A

48
9

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24
Q

earliest visible sign of pregnancy is a ______

A

decidualized endo

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25
Q

By ____-____ mIU/mL HCG the gestational sac should be seen by TV

A

1000
2000

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26
Q

By _____ mIU/mL the gestation sac should be seen by TA

A

3500

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27
Q

Mean sac diamater length equation

A

lenth + width + height divided by 3

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28
Q

The gestation sac grows by __ mm per day

A

1

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29
Q

The first definitive sign of IUP is:

A

gesational sac with yolk sac

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30
Q

The gestational sac with yolk sac should be visualized by a MSD of __ mm

A

10

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31
Q

The gestational sac should be located in the space of the chorionic cavity between the amnion and chorion

A

extraembryonic coelem

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32
Q

The _______ is responsible for producing AFP, angiogenesis, and hematopoeisis.

A

Secondary yolk sac

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33
Q

The secondary yolk sac connects to the embryo by the _____

A

vitelline duct

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34
Q

The _______ visualized as a round, anechoic with thin echogenic rim and measuring <6mm

A

secondary yolk sac

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35
Q

“double bleb sign”

A

enlarged yolk sac next to amnion

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36
Q

Enlarged yolk sac indicates:

A

impending demise

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37
Q

By __ weeks the fetal pole is visualized

A

6

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38
Q

The fetal pole must be seen by MSD of ___ mm

A

25

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39
Q

Most reliable estimation of gestational age

A

CRL

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40
Q

Starting at 6 weeks, the fetal pole grows __ mm per day

A

1

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41
Q

Calculation of gestational age from CRL

A

CRL (cm) + 6.5 = GA (in weeks)

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42
Q

Cardiac activity must be noted by __ mm CRL

A

5

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43
Q

formation of limb buds and fetal head appears larger than body

A

7 weeks

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44
Q

cystic structure noted within the head at 8 weeks

A

rhombencephalon

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45
Q

The rhombencephalon evetually develops into the _____

A

fourth ventricle

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46
Q

_______ is a normal migration of midge bowel into the base of the umbilical cord.

A

physioloigical bowel herniation

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47
Q

Physiological bowel herniation should be completed by ___ weeks

A

12

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48
Q

embryonic phase has ended and is now referred to as a FETUS

A

10 weeks

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49
Q

Fetal limbs and facial profile/cranium should be clearly evaluated and normalized. May also be documented: heart, stomach, cord insert, and possibly bladder

A

11 weeks

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50
Q

Within the fetal head, lateral ventricles filled with echogenic ______ on either side of the ______

A

choroid plexus
falx cerebri

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51
Q

By the end of the 1st trimester, see as well-defined, cresent shaped and slightly echogenic mass of tissue.

A

placenta and umbilical cord

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52
Q

The placenta and umbilical cord are formed by _____ (maternal) and _____ (fetus)

A

decidual basalis
chorion frondosum

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53
Q

First trimester screening happens between:

A

11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days

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54
Q

the fluid filled layer between the fetus and skin layer and should never measure more than 3mm

A

nuchal transclucency

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55
Q

NT may also be enlarged with trisomy __

A

13

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56
Q

The CRL should measure between ___-___ mm

A

45
84`

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57
Q

a pregnancy located anywhere other than the central uterine cavity

A

ectopic pregnancy

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58
Q

Most common cause of pelvic pain with positive pregnancy test

A

ectopic pregnancy

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59
Q

The most common location of an ectopic pregnacny

A

ampulla of the fallopian tube

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60
Q

Most dangerous ectopic pregnancy

A

interstitial

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61
Q

IUP and coexisting ectopic

A

heterotopic pregnancy

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62
Q

pain
bleeding
palpbale mass
lower than expected hCG
low hematocrit
should pain

A

ectopic pregnancy

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63
Q

extrauterine GS “live” ectopic
complex adnexal mass or adnexal ring sign
free or complex fluid in pelvis
pseudogestational sac
poor decidual reaction in endometrium

A

ectopic pregnancy

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64
Q

gestational trophoblastic disease also known as

A

molar pregnancy

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65
Q

abnormal combination of male and female gametes resulting in rapid proliferation of trophoblastic cells (what will form the placenta)

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

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66
Q

Trophoblasts produce:

A

HCG

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67
Q

placenta grows out of control, takes over, and undergoes degeneration become complex with cystic changes

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

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68
Q

most common GTD

A

complete hydatidform mole

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69
Q

absence of fetus or gestational sac. Benign with malignant potential. Contained within myometrium, clear defined borders.

A

complete hydatidform mole

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70
Q

coexisting IUP/GS and possibly fetus. minimal malignant potential

A

partial hydatidform mole

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71
Q

molar pregnancy that becomes malignant and invades into myometrium, through uterine wall into peritoneum

A

invasive molar (chorioadenoma destruens)

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72
Q

most malignant progressive form with possible mets to lung (most common), liver, and brain

A

choriocarcinoma

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73
Q

hyperemesis
markedly elevated HCG
bleeding
enlarged uterus
hypertension

A

GTD

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74
Q

large complex mass with uterus “vesicular snowstorm”
multiple cystic areas throughout “swiss cheese”
loss of myometrium or borders if invasive
bilateral theca lutein cysts

A

GTD

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75
Q

An anembryonic pregnancy is also known as:

A

blighted ovum

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76
Q

large gestational sac without yolk sac or embryo based on sac size

A

anembryonic pregnancy

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77
Q

GS >10mm + no YS

A

anembryonic pregnancy

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78
Q

GS >25mm + no FP

A

anembryonic pregnancy

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79
Q

death of embryo or fetus

A

fetal demis

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80
Q

Demise is confirmed by a fetal pole > __ mm with no ____

A

5
cardiac activiity

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81
Q

termination of pregnancy before viability whether elective or not

A

abortionm

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82
Q

miscarriages are also known as:

A

spontaneous abortions

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83
Q

spotting
low fetal heart rate

A

threatened miscarriagesp

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84
Q

spotting
low HCG
intact demise

A

missed abortion

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85
Q

heaving bleeding
+ HCG
retained products of conception

A

incomplete abortion

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86
Q

bleeding
- HCG
normal endometrium

A

complete abortion

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87
Q

cramping/spotting
low lying GS

A

inevitable abortion

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88
Q

implies the miscarriage is still in process and there are retained products of conception with internal flow within the cavity

A

incomplete miscarriage

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89
Q

miscarriage is done, cavity is empty, endo is thin

A

complete miscarriage

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90
Q

bleed between endometrium and gestational sac

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

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91
Q

crescent-shaped hypoechoic or medium level echoes area adjacent to the sac

A

subchorionic hemorrage

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92
Q

may appear as round masslike area within the myometrium but will disappear within 30 minutes

A

contractions

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93
Q

most common pelvic mass in 1 trimester

A

corpus luteum of pregnancy

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94
Q

physiologic, functional cyst that maintains endo by secreting progesterone, maintained by HCG, usually 2-3 cm but may grow large up to 10 cm

A

corpus luteum of pregnancy

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95
Q

The second trimester is weeks __-__

A

13
26

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96
Q

The quadruple screen

A

HCG
AFP
estriol
inhibin A

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97
Q

HCG, estriol, and inhibin A are produced by the ______

A

placenta

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98
Q

AFP is produced by the _____

A

fetujs

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99
Q

“open” or protruding fetal abnormalities will show elevated ___

A

AFP

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100
Q

Most common cause of abnormal serum screening

A

incorrect dates

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101
Q

baby is parallel to mother

A

longitudinal lie

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102
Q

head presenting or closest to cervix

A

cephalic or vertex

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103
Q

feet first

A

complete breech

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104
Q

buttocks closest to the cervix

A

frank breech

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105
Q

one leg closest to the cervix

A

footling breech

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106
Q

fetus lie is perpendicular to mother

A

transverse lie

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107
Q

Long baby and clockwise

A

cephalic

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108
Q

long baby and counter

A

breech

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109
Q

trans baby and clockwise

A

head right

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110
Q

trans baby and counter

A

head left

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111
Q

spine to stomach is

A

clockwise

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112
Q

The heart is initially __ tubes that fuse and fold to form ___ chambers

A

2
4

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113
Q

The heart begins to contract at ___ days gestation (5 weeks)

A

36

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114
Q

The heart is detected on US by CRL of __mm

A

5

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115
Q

NL heart rate first trimester

A

120-180

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116
Q

The heart is fully formed by ___ weeks

A

10

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117
Q

The apex of the heart is angled to the ____ of midline at a 45 degree angle from the ______.

A

left
spine

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118
Q

The heart occupies ___ of the chest

A

1/3

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119
Q

________ is confirmed with imageing of fetal lie, stomach and apex pointing to the left of fetus

A

situs solitus

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120
Q

normal cardiac position

A

levocardia

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121
Q

abnormal cardiac situs, apex pointing to the right of the chest

A

dextrocardia

122
Q

chamber closest to spine (posterior) and descending aorta is _____

A

left atrium

123
Q

Chamber closest to the sternum (anterior) is the ______

A

right ventricle

124
Q

The left and right ventricles are separated by the _______

A

interventricular septum

125
Q

The left and right atria are separated by the _____ which opens at ______

A

atrial septum
Foramen Ovale

126
Q

The moderator band is located within the ______

A

right ventricle

127
Q

The left atrium opens into the left ventricle through the _____

A

mitral valve

128
Q

The right atrium opens into the right ventricle through the ______

A

tricuspid valve

129
Q

LVOT should outflows onto to ____

A

aorta

130
Q

The ___ side of the heart and ____ supplies blood to most of the body

A

left
aorta

131
Q

Three bypasses of the fetal heart

A

ductus venosus
foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus

132
Q

______ carries oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus

A

umbilical vein

133
Q

The umbilical vein travels superiorly into the liver and connects to the ______

A

left portal vein

134
Q

Some of the blood bypasses the liver via the ______ and goes into the ____

A

ductus venosus
IVC

135
Q

The IVC and SVC drain into the _____

A

right atrium

136
Q

Some of the blood travels through the ______ into the left atrium

A

foramen ovale

137
Q

The blood that continues from the right atrium through the ______, into right ventricle, and out through MPA

A

triscupid valve

138
Q

From the MPA, some of the blood is shunted via the _______ into the aorta to bypass the lungs

A

ductus arteriosus

139
Q

Blood returning to the heart through pulmonary veins drains into the _____

A

left atrium

140
Q

Blood from the left atrium continues through _____, into left ventricle, and out through the aorta.

A

mitral valve

141
Q

Deoxygenated blood returns to the placenta through the ______ that branch from the internal iliac arteries.

A

umbilical arteries

142
Q

umbilical vein to IVC shunt

A

ductus venosus

143
Q

right atrium to left atrium shunt

A

right atrium to left atrium

144
Q

MPA to aorta shunt

A

ductus arteriosus

145
Q

small or absent left ventricle; may be caused by aortic atresia, aortic stenosis, coarctation

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

146
Q

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome has a connection with trisomy ___

A

13

147
Q

Small or absent right ventricle; caused from pulmonary stenosis or triscupid atresia

A

hypoplastic right heart

148
Q

accumulation of fluid in 2 fetal body cavities, can be caused by heart failure, tumors, syndromes, and others

A

hydrops fetalis

149
Q

opening or hole in the ventricular septum

A

ventricular septal defects

150
Q

most common cardiac defect

A

ventricular septal defects

151
Q

VSDs are associated with trisomy ___

A

21

152
Q

absence of a segment of atrial septum

A

atrial septal defects

153
Q

also known as endocardial cushion defect or AV canal defect

A

atrioventricular septal defects

154
Q

lack of development of central part of heart.

A

atrioventricular septal defects

155
Q

AVSDs are associated with trisomy ___

A

21

156
Q

Tricuspid valve is incorrectly positioned apically within the RV. Commonly associated with triscupid regurgitation, ASDs, tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of great vessels, and coarctation.

A

Ebstein anomaly

157
Q

combination of the following 4 findings:
overriding aorta
VSD
Pulmonary stenosis
RV hypertrophy

A

Tetraology of Fallot

158
Q

Most common fetal cardiac tumor

A

rhabdomyoma

159
Q

echogenic tumors within the myometrium. Associated with tuberous sclerosis, cardiac failure, fetal hydrops

A

rhabdomyoma

160
Q

calcification of papillary muscle or chordae tendonae usually seen in left ventricle

A

echogenic intracardiac focus

161
Q

EIF is a “soft marker” for trisomy

A

21

162
Q

heart located outside the chest through defect in sternum; associated with Pentalogy of Cantrell; elevated AFP

A

ectopia cordis

163
Q

Great vessels

A

aorta and MPA

164
Q

Aorta arises from RV and MPA arises from LV

A

transposition of the great vessels

165
Q

narrowing of aorta arch

A

coarctation of the aorta

166
Q

commonly located between left subclavian artery and ductus arteriosus; assocated findings are RV and MPA enlargement

A

coarctation of aorta

167
Q

fluid located around the heart; associated with hydrops

A

pericardial effusion

168
Q

fluid surrounding the lungs; associated with hydrops or other chest pathology

A

pleural effusion

169
Q

“bat wing” sign

A

bilateral pleural effusions

170
Q

underdevelopment of the lungs

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

171
Q

Most common cause of chest mass causing pulmonary hypoplasia is ______

A

diaphragmatic hernia

172
Q

most common chest mass

A

diaphragmatic hernia

173
Q

most common reason for cardiac malpositioning

A

diaphragmatic hernia

174
Q

Most common chest mass causing pulmonary hypoplasia

A

diaphragmatic hernia

175
Q

A diaphragmatic hernia is most common on the ____ side

A

left

176
Q

A ______ hernia containing stomach, bowel, and left lobe of liver

A

Bochdalek

177
Q

A right sided hernia through the ______ may allow enite liver into chest. The heart will be pushed to the left.

A

foramen of Morgagni

178
Q

A congenital pulmonary airway malforation is also known as

A

cystic adenomatoid malformation

179
Q

mass consisting of abnormal bronchial and lung tissue; causes displacement of heart to contralateral to side; normally regresses spontaneously or if large, can lead to hydrops or pulmonary hypoplasia

A

cystic adenomatoid malformation

180
Q

most common type of cystic adenomatoid malformation. Macrocystic, large visualized cysts

A

Type I

181
Q

Cystic adenomatoid malformation mixed, cystic, and solid appearing

A

type 2

182
Q

cystic adenomatoid malforation microcystic, cysts are too small to be visualized, entire mass is echogenic

A

type 3

183
Q

echogenic mass of nonfunctiong lung tissue with own blood supply

A

pulmonary sequestration

184
Q

The skull is made up of ___ cranial bones connected by _____

A

8
sutures

185
Q

The opening in the base of cranium that allows passage of spinal canal

A

Foramen magnum

186
Q

two hemispheres divided by the interhemispheric fissue

A

cerebrum

187
Q

The cerebrum contains ___ and ___

A

sulci
gyri

188
Q

The cerebrum is covered by 3 layers of meninges:

A

pia mater
arachnoid
dura mater

189
Q

a double fold of dura mater which separates the two hemispheres

A

falx cerebri

190
Q

seen as an echogenic line perpendicular to beam in axial plane

A

falx cerebri

191
Q

Box-shaped, midline brain structure seen between frontal horns of lateral ventricles

A

Cavum Septum Pellucidum

192
Q

The ____ does not communicate with the ventricular system

A

CSP

193
Q

The CSP closes after ___ weeks

A

37

194
Q

2 lobes of ____ located on either side of falx

A

thalamus

195
Q

The ______ connects the 2 lobes of the thalamus together and the ____ travels within

A

massa intermedia
3rd ventricle

196
Q

produces and transports CSF to cushion the brain

A

Ventricular system

197
Q

Lateral ventricles contain ______ which produce CSF

A

choroid plexus

198
Q

CSF flows to third ventricle via the ______

A

foramen of Monro

199
Q

The third ventricle connects to the fourth ventricle through the _____

A

aqueduct of Sylvius

200
Q

From the fourth ventricle, CSF flows through openings called ______ and _______ into cisterna magna and then subarachnoid space

A

foramina of Luschka
foramen of Magendie

201
Q

Imaged superior to level of thalamus

A

lateral ventricles

202
Q

Normal lateral ventricle measurement

A

<10 mm

203
Q

2 lobes that are joined by cerebellar vermis forming dumbbell shape. The fourth ventricle travels between.

A

cerebellum

204
Q

posterior fossa of brain, largest cistern in head

A

cisterna magna

205
Q

normal measurement of cisterna magna

A

2-10mm

206
Q

Nuchal thickness to should be measured:

A

outer cranium to outer skin

207
Q

Normal nuchal thickness

A

<6mm

208
Q

level of thalamus: may be included: CSP, falx, third ventricle, lateral ventricles; not included: cerebellum, cisterna magna, orbits

A

HC

209
Q

most accurate for gesetational age in second trimester

A

HC

210
Q

BPD proper measurement

A

outer to inner

211
Q

indicates head shape; ratio of BPD/OFD

A

cephalic index

212
Q

<0.75 cephalic index

A

dolichocephaly (flattened)

213
Q

0.75 to 0.85 cephalic index

A

mesocephaly (normal)

214
Q

> 0.85 cephalic index

A

brachycephaly (circular)

215
Q

enlargement of the ventricles

A

ventriculomegaly

216
Q

most common brain abnormality

A

ventriculomegaly

217
Q

Ventriculomegaly due to obstruction

A

hydrocephaly

218
Q

LV >10mm at atrium and “dangling choroid” sign

A

hydrocephaly

219
Q

most common cause of hydrocephalus is

A

aqueductal stenosis

220
Q

narrowing of cerebral aqueduct causing dilatation of third and left ventricle

A

aqueductal stenosis

221
Q

ventriculomegaly + dilated 3rd ventricle

A

aqueductal stenosis

222
Q

cerebral tissue is replaced by fluid; no cerebral hemispheres; only brain stem/ basal ganglia present

A

hydranencephaly

223
Q

varying degrees of absence of midline and fusion of non-midline brain structures starting anteriorly; associated with midline facial defects

A

holoprosencephaly

224
Q

Holoprosencephaly has a strong association with trisomy:

A

13

225
Q

minimal fusion; absent CSP/CC; fused frontal horns; rest intact, “heart-shape” frontal horns

A

lobar holoprosencephaly

226
Q

partial fusion LV and thalami, partial falx, absent CSP/CC, “butterfly shaped LV”

A

semilobar holoprosecenphaly

227
Q

most severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

alobar

228
Q

no midline separation of hemispheres. Midline brain structures are absent and non-midline are fused. Absence of CC, CSP, 3rd ventricle, and falx. “Horse-shoe shaped” monoventricle, fused thalami; FATAL

A

alobar holoprosencephaly

229
Q

one eye

A

cyclopia

230
Q

no eyes

A

anophthalmia

231
Q

closed spaced eyes

A

hypothalmia

232
Q

1 nostril and hypotelorism

A

cebocephaly

233
Q

no nose, proboscis, hypotelorism

A

Ethmocephaly

234
Q

absence of defect of the cerebellar vermis causing fourth ventricle to dilate and cisterna magna to enlarge. Cerebellar lobes will be splayed and fourth ventricle between them. Often associated with other midline brain defects

A

Dandy-Walker Malformation

235
Q

cisterna magna > 10mm, dilated 4th ventricle, splayed cerebellar lobes “key-hole appearance”

A

Dandy-Walker Malformation

236
Q

enlarged cisterna magna >10mm but no keyhole sign (normal 4th ventricle)

A

mega cisterna magna

237
Q

arteriovenous malformation: connection between an artery and vein, anechoic tubular mass midline brain with turbulent color flow patterns. Associated with CHF and Hydrops

A

Vein of Galen Aneurysm

238
Q

both sides with rim/dangling choroids

A

hydrocephaly

239
Q

fluid filled cranium with no rim

A

hydranencephaly

240
Q

horseshoe

A

alobar holoprosencephaly

241
Q

butterfly

A

semilobar holoprosencephaly

242
Q

heart frontal horns

A

Lobar holoprosencephaly

243
Q

Key-hole

A

Dandy walker Malformation

244
Q

Central tube with color

A

Vein of Galen

245
Q

Absence of corpus callosum

A

agenesis of corpus callosum

246
Q

Agenesis of corpus callosum is associated with trisomies

A

13
18

247
Q

frequently encountered on routine sonos. Usually regress by third trimester

A

choroid plexus cysts

248
Q

Choroid plexus cysts are a soft marker for trisomy

A

18

249
Q

fluid-filled clefts within cerebrum

A

schizencephaly

250
Q

cyst that communicates with ventricular system caused by hemorrhage, ischemia, vascular occlusion

A

porencephaly

251
Q

“smooth brain”, no sulci/gyri with the cortex, only diagnosed in the third trimester

A

lissencephaly

252
Q

No sulci/gyri within the cortex

A

agyria

253
Q

most common intracranial tumor

A

teratoma

254
Q

neural tube fails to close or form properly
increased risk with maternal diabetes, valproic acid, folate deficiency

A

neural tube defects

255
Q

Most common NTDs

A

anencephaly
spina bifida

256
Q

Open defects have an increased:

A

AFP

257
Q

absence of cranial vault above the eyes; can be with or without brain

A

acrania

258
Q

Acrania shows elevated ____

A

AFP

259
Q

no cerebral hemispheres

A

anencephaly

260
Q

normal amount of brain tissue with no skull, will appear as a misshapen head with no hyperechoic bone surrounding head

A

exencephaly

261
Q

neural tube fails to close and there is a gap between the vertebrae/splaying of the vertebral laminae

A

Spina bifida

262
Q

2 types of spina bifida

A

occulta (closed)
aperta (open)

263
Q

covered by skin and no herniation of spinal cord outside of body, defect in vertebrae only. Normal AFP. Postnatal: sacral dimple, lipoma, excessive hair

A

spina bifida occulta

264
Q

most common spina bifida

A

spina bifida aperta

265
Q

not covered by skin and result in herniation of spina contents; elevated AFP

A

spina bifida aperta

266
Q

contain meninges only, cystic appearance

A

meningoceles

267
Q

most common; contains meninges and nerve roots, more complex in appearance

A

myelomeningocele

268
Q

Presence of open spina bifida; pulls down on spinal contents causing cranial malformations

A

Arnold Chiari II malformation

268
Q

Lemon shaped head
Banana cerebellum
Obliterated cisterna magna

A

Arnold-Chiari II malformation

268
Q

Herniation of intracranial contents through opening in skull

A

Ceohalocele/encephalocele

268
Q

Most common place for cephalocele/encephalocele herniation

A

Occipital

269
Q

Cephalocele associated with

A

Meckel-Gruber syndrome

270
Q

“Star gazer”

A

Ineincephaly

271
Q

Hyper extension of neck; closed NTD. AFP may be normal

A

Ineincephaly

272
Q

one orbit. lateral to medial edge of orbit

A

ocular diameter

273
Q

between the 2 eyes. medial (inner) sides of both eyes

A

interocular diameter

274
Q

both eyes. lateral edges of both orbits

A

binocular diameter

275
Q

no orbits;

A

anophthalmia

276
Q

anophthalmia is associated with trisomy:

A

13

277
Q

one fused eye

A

cyclopia

278
Q

cyclopia is assocated with trisomy:

A

13

279
Q

closely spaced eyes

A

hypotelorism

280
Q

Hypotelorism is associated withtrisomy:

A

13

281
Q

far apart orbits

A

hypertelorism

282
Q

small orbits

A

microphthalmia

283
Q

often seen with eye abnormalities; false nose/ projection replacing or above nose

A

proboscis

284
Q

abnormal/incomplete close of the lip and/or palate; can be unilateral, bilateral, midline, or eccentric. May be isolated or associated with holoprosencephaly and trisomy 13 and amniotic band syndrome

A

cleft lip and palate

285
Q

Nuchal thickening is associated with trisomy

A

21

286
Q

> 6mm measurement of nuchal fold posterior neck 18-23 weeks

A

nuchal thickening

287
Q

Flattened or absent nasal bone is associated with trisomy

A

21

288
Q

large tongue/protuberance of tongue

A

macroglossia

289
Q

macroglossia is associated with trisomy

A

21

290
Q

small mandible and recessed chin

A

micrognathia

291
Q

Micrognathia is associated with trisomy

A

18

292
Q

Cystic hygromas are associated with:

A

Turners syndrome

293
Q

abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid under the skin. Most common within neck, but may be seen in the axilla; often leads to hydrops

A

cystic hygroma

294
Q

The axial skeleton consists of:

A

cranial and spinal bones

295
Q

The appendicular skeleton consists of:

A

limbs and pelvis

296
Q

Long bones

A

femur and humerus

297
Q

The _____ of the long bones should not be included in measurement

A

epiphysis

298
Q
A

Sonographic Topics (35 decks)

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