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Sonographic Topics > OB/GYN Registry Review part 3 > Flashcards

OB/GYN Registry Review part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

leg contains the ____ and ____

A

tibia
fibula

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2
Q

The forearm contains the ____ and ____

A

radius
ulna

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3
Q

at least three of the associated defects

A

VACTERL association

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4
Q

VACTERL

A

vertebral defects
anorectal atresia
cardiac defects
tracheoesophageal atresia
renal anomalies
limb defects

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5
Q

abnormal curvature laterally or S-shaped spine

A

scoliosis

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6
Q

abnormal posterior curvature of the spine

A

kyphosis

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7
Q

associated with amniotic band, limb body wall complex, and VACTERL

A

scoliosis and kyphosis

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8
Q

limb body wall complex is also known as:

A

body stalk anomaly

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9
Q

fatal condition caused by vascular occlusion, amnion rupture, or embryonic dysgenesis, elevated AFP

A

limb body wall complex

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10
Q

appears as if front of abdomen is stuck to placental wall due to very short of absent cord. Body wall defects, limb defects, craniofacial defects, marked scoliosis

A

limb body wall complex

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11
Q

dwarfism

A

achondroplasia

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12
Q

autosomal dominant. Most common non-lethal dysplasia

A

heterozygous achondroplasia

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13
Q

autosomal recessive and fatal dysplasia

A

homozygous achondroplasia

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14
Q

macrocrania, frontal bossing, trident hand, rhizomelia,

A

achondroplasia

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15
Q

prominent forehead

A

frontal bossing

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16
Q

space between third and fourth digits

A

trident hand

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17
Q

proximal limbs are much shorter than distal l

A

rhizomelia

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18
Q

rare, lethal condition; absent mineralization/ossification of bones, especially noted in pelvis, spine, and cranium. NO shadowing, micromelia, fractures. polyhydramnios

A

achondrogenesis

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19
Q

“imperfect bone formation”. Brittle bone disease. results in multiple fractures in utero and under-ossified bones.

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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20
Q

refers to the ability of compressing cranium with probe pressure

A

soft skull

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21
Q

Type ___ osteogenesis imperfect is always fatal

A

II

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22
Q

Most common lethal dysplasia

A

thanatophoric (death bearing) dysplasia

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23
Q

abnormal shaped bone growth

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

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24
Q

“cloverleaf skull”, bell-shaped chest, telephone receiver bowed long bones

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

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25
Q

Caudal regression syndrome is also referred to as

A

sacral agenesis

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26
Q

absence of sacrum and coccyx

A

caudal regression syndrome

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27
Q

defects in lumbar spine and lower limbs; strong association with uncontrolled maternal (pre-gestational) diabetes/diabetes mellitus

A

caudal regression syndrome

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28
Q

Mermaid syndrome. Fusion of lower extremities. Bilateral renal agenesis often accompanies this disoder

A

Sirenomeliag

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29
Q

germ cell tumor seen as complex mass extending posteriorly and inferiorly from distal spine. More commonly seen in females. Malignant potential

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

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30
Q

clubfoot is associated with trisomy

A

13

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31
Q

talipes equinovares

A

clubfoot

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32
Q

medial inversion of foot. Bottom of foot and metatarsals appear in the same plane as the tibia and fibula

A

clubfoot

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33
Q

Rockerbottom foot is associated with trisomy:

A

18

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34
Q

rounded bottom of foot, normal foot/ankle angle

A

rockerbottom foot

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35
Q

Sandal gap is associated with trisomy

A

21

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36
Q

space between big two and second digit

A

sandal gap

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37
Q

absent radius, hypoplastic ulna, missing thumb

A

radial ray defect

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38
Q

polydactyly is associated with trisomy

A

13

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39
Q

Clinodactyly is associated with trisomy

A

18

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40
Q

Syndactyly is associated with

A

triploidy

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41
Q

sticky bands of amnion result from rupture of the amnion. fetal parts can be caught and causes amputations and odd facial clefts.

A

amniotic band syndrome

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42
Q

Fetal kidneys produce:

A

amniotic fluid

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43
Q

GI abnormalities most often result in

A

polyhydramnios

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44
Q

The stomach is _____ to the diaphragm

A

inferior

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45
Q

The stomach should empty of fill every ___ minutes

A

30

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46
Q

Cord insertion is just _____ to the level of the kidneys, should be smooth with no herniations or mass

A

inferior

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47
Q

absence of a section of the esophagus

A

esophageal atresia

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48
Q

Esophageal atresia is associated with trisomy

A

18

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49
Q

“double bubble” sign demonstrating fluid filled stomach and fluid filled proximal duodenum

A

duodenal atresia

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50
Q

Duodenal atresia is associated with trisomy

A

21

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51
Q

most common type of colonic atresia that leads to bowel obstruction

A

anorectal atresia

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52
Q

functional bowel obstruction caused by the absence of nerves within bowel wall

A

Hirschsprung disease

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53
Q

Echogenic bowel is associated with trisomy __ and cystic fibrosis

A

21

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54
Q

Most common malignant abdominal mass in neonates. Adrenal gland tumor. Mass superior to kidney.

A

Neuroblastoma

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55
Q

Most common abnormality of the liver

A

hepatomegaly

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56
Q

Hepatomegaly is associated with:

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

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57
Q

herniation of bowel through an opening on the right side of cord insertion. Not covered by a membrane or skin. Highly elevated AFP. Usually isolated.

A

gastroschisis

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58
Q

Persistent herniation of bowel and possibly other organs into the base of the umbilical cord after 12 weeks. Always midline and covered by membrane. AFP may be normal

A

Omphalocele

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59
Q

Omphaloceles are associated with trisomies

A

13
18

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60
Q

Fetal kidneys form in the

A

pelvis

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61
Q

The fetal kidneys rise to the renal fossas by __ weeks

A

9

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62
Q

By __ weeks, the kidneys are fully functional

A

10

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63
Q

At __ weeks, the kidneys produce urine

A

12

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64
Q

The bladder can be seen by ___ weeks

A

13

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65
Q

The kidneys can be seen by ___ weeks

A

15

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66
Q

After ___ weeks, the majority of amniotic fluid is made of up fetal urine

A

16

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67
Q

_____ abnormalities are the most frequent cause of oligohydramnios

A

renal

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68
Q

Most common renal anomaly

A

duplicated collecting system

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69
Q

failure of kidney to form; unilateral or bilateral

A

renal agenesis

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70
Q

“lying down” adrenal sign, adrenal gland is flattened and parallel to spine
absence of renal arteries coming off of aorta

A

renal agenesis

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71
Q

______ renal agenesis: fluid and bladder will be normal

A

unilateral

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72
Q

______ renal agenesis: NO BLADDER and NO FLUID

A

bilateral (Potters syndrome)

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73
Q

2 kinds of polycystic kidney disease:

A

autosomal recessive PKD
autosomal dominant PKD

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74
Q

infantile polycystic kidney disease

A

autosomal recessive PKD

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75
Q

adult polycystic kidney disease

A

autosomal dominant PKD

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76
Q

ARPKDis ______ and will be _____

A

nonfunctional, fatal

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77
Q

ARPKD is associated with:

A

Meckel-Gruber syndrome
occipital encephalocele

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78
Q

ADPKD does not affect the function of the kidneys until:

A

late adulthood

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79
Q

bilateral, echogenic kidneys
non-functioning kidneys
absent bladder
oligohydramnios
fatal

A

ARPKD

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80
Q

may be normal
bilateral, enlarged echogenic kidneys
functioning kidneys
normal bladder/normal fluid
cysts develop as an adult

A

ADPKD

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81
Q

can be unilateral or bilateral; large cysts affecting the entire kidney
kidney appears to fill abdomen
affected kidney is non functional

A

multicystic dysplastic renal dysplasia

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82
Q

caused by early renal obstruction. unilateral or bilateral, kidney becomes small and echogenic with peripheral renal cysts, Non-functional disease

A

obstructive cystic dysplasia

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83
Q

most common fetal abnormality

A

hydronephosis

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84
Q

any obstruction to normal succession of urine flow will result in back up and cause dilation _____ to obstruction

A

proximal

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85
Q

Dilatation of the renal pelvis >4mm in second trimesteer

A

pyelectasis

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86
Q

dilatation of the renal pelvis > 7mm in the third trimester

A

pyelectasis

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87
Q

most common cause of hydronephrosis

A

ureteropelvic junction

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88
Q

UPJ causes dilatation of:

A

renal pelvis only

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89
Q

least common cause of hydro. Kidneys and ureter obstruction

A

ureterovesicular junction

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90
Q

everything bladder up dilated

A

bladder outlet obstruction

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91
Q

_______ causes bladder outlet obstruction in male fetus

A

posterior urethral valve

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92
Q

leads to massively dilated bladder. “keyhole” sign; dilated bladder; and dilatered posterior urethra. Dilation of ureters and kidneys will occur eventually.

A

bladder outlet obstruction

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93
Q

megcystis

A

dilated bladder

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94
Q

absent abdominal musculature, undescended testis, urinary tract abnormalities, also referred to as Eagle-Barret syndrome

A

Prune Belly Syndrome

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95
Q

bladder located outside of the pelvis. lower abdominal mass inferior to umbilicus.

A

bladder exstrophy

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96
Q

bladder, intestines, genitalia outside of the pelvis.

A

cloacal extrophy

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97
Q

most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is a

A

female with clitoromegaly

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98
Q

abnormal curvature of the penis

A

hypospadias

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99
Q

35 years or older at EDD

A

advanced maternal age

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100
Q

analysis of fetal chromosomes

A

karyotyping

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101
Q

single defect leading to development of other defects

A

sequency

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102
Q

group of clinically observable findings that often exist together

A

syndrome

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103
Q

nonrandom occurrence of at least 3 associated defects

A

association

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104
Q

any structure feature that is abnormal

A

anomaly

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105
Q

any abnormal number of chromosomes

A

aneuploidy

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106
Q

normal chromosomes

A

euploid

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107
Q

two complete sets of chromosomes. Humans have 23 pairs = 46 chromosomes

A

diploid

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108
Q

three complete sets = 69 chromosomes

A

triploid

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109
Q

only only of an individual chromosome (45 chromosomes)

A

monosomy

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110
Q

three copies of one individual chromosome one extra = 47 chromosomes

A

trisomy

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111
Q

mixed pattern aneuploid

A

mosaic

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112
Q

samples placental for aspiration of trophoblastic cells
Earliest procedure done TA or TV between 10-12 weeks
fetal loss rate 0.8%

A

chorionic villi sampling

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113
Q

samples amniotic fluid.
15 weeks onward
US guided TA
Fetal loss rate 0.5%

A

amniocentesis

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114
Q

percuteaneous umbilical cord sampling. samples fetal blood. After 17 weeks
US guidance
samples through umbilical cord near insertion into placenta. Fetal loss rate 0.1%

A

Cordocentesis

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115
Q

Most common aneuploid

A

trisomy 21

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116
Q

occurs in 1 in 800 births

A

trisomy 21

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117
Q

elevated HCG and inhibin A
Low AFP, estriol, and PAPP-A

A

trisomy 21

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118
Q

absent nasal bone is associated with

A

trisomy 21

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119
Q

flattened profile is associated with

A

trisomy 21

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120
Q

thickened NF is associated with

A

trisomy 21

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121
Q

macroglossia is associated with

A

trisomy 21

122
Q

echogenic intracardiac focus is associated with

A

trisomy 21

123
Q

Cardiac defects is associated with

A

trisomy 21

124
Q

Duodenal atresia is associated with:;

A

trisomy 21

125
Q

echogenic bowel is associated with

A

trisomy 21

126
Q

short limbs are associated with

A

trisomy 21

127
Q

sandal gap feet are associated with

A

trisomy 21

128
Q

Trisomy 21 is also referred to as

A

Downs syndrome

129
Q

Trisomy 18 is also referred to as

A

Edward Syndome

130
Q

All lab values decreased in this trisomy

A

18

131
Q

choroid plexus cysts are associated with

A

trisomy 18

132
Q

strawberry skull is associated with

A

trisomy 18

133
Q

micrognathia is associated with

A

trisomy 18

134
Q

omphalocele is associated with

A

trisomy 18

135
Q

esophageal atresia is associated with

A

trisomy 18

136
Q

clenched hands (clinodactyly) is associated with

A

trisomy 18

137
Q

Rockerbottom feet is associated with

A

trisomy 18

138
Q

Cardiac defects are associated with trisomy

A

18

139
Q

Trisomy 13 is also known as

A

Patau’s Syndrome

140
Q

Holoprosencephaly is associated with

A

trisomy 13

141
Q

facial abnormalities is associated with

A

trisomy 13

142
Q

microcephaly is associated with

A

trisomy 13

143
Q

polydactyly is associated with

A

trisomy 13

144
Q

omphalocele is associated with

A

trisomy 13

145
Q

cardiac defects is associated with

A

trisomy 13

146
Q

clubfeet is associated with

A

trisomy 13

147
Q

Turners syndrome is also known as

A

Monosomy X

148
Q

Low AFP and estriol
with hydrops: low HCG and inhibin A
low PAPPA-A

A

Turners syndrome

149
Q

females, cystic hygroma, increased NT, renal anomalies, cardiac defects, nonimmune hydrops

A

Turners Syndrome

150
Q

3 sets with a total of 69 chromosomes, Usually fatal early

A

triploid

151
Q

high HCG (with molar)

A

triploidy

152
Q

partial molar
small, low set ears
syndactyly (fused digits)
IUGR
cardiac defects
theca-lutein cysts

A

Triploidy

153
Q

PKD, encephalocele, microcephaly, polydactyly

A

Meckle-Gruber

154
Q

bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, facial abnormalities

A

Potter syndrome

155
Q

Macroglossia, large organs

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann

156
Q

Omphalocele, ectopia cordis, sternal and diaphgragmatic defects

A

Pentalogy of Cantrell

157
Q

Vertebra, anorectal, cardiac, trachea, esophageal, renal, limbn

A

VACTERL

158
Q

limb amputations, facial clefts, gastroschisis, skeletal defects

A

amniotic band

159
Q

abdominal wall defects, scoliosis, facial, and limb defects

A

limb body wall

160
Q

IUGR, microcephaly, microophthalmos, cardiac defects, hypospadias

A

Fetal alcohol

161
Q

cloverleaf skull due to craniosynostosis (premature fusion of sutures_

A

Kleebattschadel

162
Q

heart and upper extremity malformations

A

Holt-Oram

163
Q

Ears, mandible, and palate malformations

A

Treacher-Collins

164
Q

median gestational age of delivery for twins

A

36 weeks

165
Q

arise from 2 separate eggs that were fertilized

A

dizygotic

166
Q

arise from 1 zygote that splits

A

monozygotic

167
Q

most common type of twinning

A

dizygotic

168
Q

chorion forms the:

A

gestational sac and placenta

169
Q

the innner membrane and goes with yolk sac

A

amnion

170
Q

Dizygotic will always be ______

A

dichorionic/diamniotic

171
Q

results from single ovum that splits

A

monozygotic

172
Q

Early division <4 days results in ______

A

dichorionic/diamniotic

173
Q

Most common division, 4-8 days:

A

monochorionic/diamniotic

174
Q

Late division >8 days results in:

A

monochorionic/monoamniotic

175
Q

can be seen as two completely separate gestational sacs within the uterine cavity

A

dichorionic

176
Q

Dichorionic/diamniotic is associated with the _____ sign

A

twin peak (lambda/delta)

177
Q

Monochorionic/diamniotic is associated with the ____ sign

A

T

178
Q

Monochorionic share one placenta so there is increased risk of ______ and ______

A

fetal shunting
growth issues

179
Q

Fetal shunting through vessels in the placenta

A

Twin to Twin transfusion syndrome

180
Q

the donor twin suffers from _____ and _____ in TTTS.

A

IUGR
anemia

181
Q

Recipient twin suffers from _____ and _____ in TTTS

A

hydrops
CHF

182
Q

1st initial sonographic indication of TTTS:

A

discordant fetal growth

183
Q

donor twin TTTS

A

smaller/IUGR
oligohydramnios
anema

184
Q

recipient twin TTTS

A

larger
polyhydramnios
hydrops/CHF

185
Q

most severe type of TTTS

A

stuck twin

186
Q

abnormal anastamosis of placental vessels that support the growth of parasitic or acardiac twin

A

TRAP sequence

187
Q

one normal fetus and an abnormally developed fetus with no heart, fetus maintains the growth of the parasitic twin

A

acardiac twin

188
Q

The pump twin in TRAP sequence has a mortality rate of 50% secondary to ______ and ______.

A

polyhydramnios
prematurity

189
Q

The acardiac twin in TRAP sequence demonstrates ______, _____, and ______

A

absent upper body
absent heart
hydrops

190
Q

conjoined twins are only ________

A

monochorionic/monoamniotic

191
Q

most common conjoined twins

A

thoracopagus omphalopagus

192
Q

fetal death in 1st trimester and is maintained, not reabsorbed

A

fetus papyraceus

193
Q

Death of a twin in the early first trimester and is reabsorbed

A

vanishing twin

194
Q

Fetal deminse in the 2nd trimester of monochorionic gets can lead to:

A

twin embolization sydrome

195
Q

Normal placental thickness

A

2-4 cm

196
Q

exchanges gas and waste products with nutrients and oxygen. means of nutrition and respiration; major function of an excretory organ

A

placenta

197
Q

maternal side of placenta

A

decidua basalis

198
Q

fetal side of placenta

A

chorion frondosum or chorionic plate

199
Q

functional unit of placenta; lobes of chorionic villi

A

cotyledons

200
Q

2 discs of equal size joined together by an isthmus of placental tissue

A

bilobed placenta

201
Q

additional small lobe separate from the main placental mass but connected by vascular connections. No placental tissue connection

A

accessory/succenturiate lobe

202
Q

curled up placental contour appearing as a shelf. curled edges, do not lay flat or smooth along wall. Increased risk of abnormal placental development and future abruption

A

circumvallate placenta

203
Q

pools of maternal venous blood. sonolucent areas within placental mass. will not fill in with color but can be “swirling in B-mode

A

venous lakes/maternal lakes/ placental lakes/ lacunae

204
Q

Advanced maturation of the placenta can be an indication of maternal complications leading to ______ and _____

A

placental insufficiency
asymmetrical IUGR

205
Q

Grade 0 placenta

A

homogenous, smooth echotexture. No indentations in chorionic plate. Smooth borders

206
Q

Grade 1 placenta

A

subtle indentations in chorionic plate, small random hyperechoic foci

207
Q

Grade 2 placenta

A

larger comma-like indentations alter chorionic plate, larger calcifications in basal plate

208
Q

Grade 3 placenta

A

post dates/advanced. Complete indentations chorionic to basal plate. Irregular calcifications with shadowing. Related to drug abuse and preeclampsia. May cause IUGR if early gestation

209
Q

placenta is implants within the LUS and covers/near to internal os

A

placenta previa

210
Q

Most likely cause of painless vaginal bleeding in 2nd and 3rd trimester

A

placenta previa

211
Q

internal os is completely covered by placental tissue

A

complete previa

212
Q

edge of placenta touches internal os

A

marginal previa

213
Q

edge of placenta is within 2 cm of internal os

A

low-lying placenta

214
Q

general term for abnormal adherence of placenta to myometrium

A

accreta

215
Q

loss of basal plate or myometrial/serosal layer, multiple placental lacunae, and increased peripheral vascularity

A

accreta

216
Q

placenta adhered to wall

A

accreta

217
Q

placenta invades myometrium

A

placenta increta

218
Q

penetrates through uterus and breach serosal layer

A

placenta percreta

219
Q

Premature separation of placenta from uterine wall. high risk of fetal death

A

placental abruption

220
Q

bleeding, pain, tenderness, trauma, decreased hematocrit

A

placental abruption

221
Q

hypoechoic or anechoic between placenta and uterine wall at level of basal plate

A

placental abruption

222
Q

most severe type of abruption; entire retroplacental hematoma

A

Complete abruption

223
Q

few centimeters of separation between placenta and uterine wall

A

partial abruption

224
Q

placental edge, lifting the chorionic membrane from wall

A

marginal placental abruption

225
Q

most common placental tumor

A

chorioangioma

226
Q

most common location for chorioangioma

A

adjacent to umbilical cord insertion at placenta

227
Q

The umbilical cord contains:

A

2 arteries and 1 vein

228
Q

The bmilical cord is surrounded by ______

A

Wharton’s jelly

229
Q

The umbilical cord is developed from ______ and _____

A

yolk sac
vitelline duct

230
Q

______ carry deoxygenated blood bback to placenta

A

arteries

231
Q

The placental cord insertion normally inserts in the:

A

central part of the placenta

232
Q

battledore placenta

A

marginal cord insertion

233
Q

cord insertion within 2 cm of the placenta

A

marginal cord insertion

234
Q

insertion in the membranes beyond the placental edge and insert into side of hterine wall

A

velamentous/membranous cord insertion

235
Q

fetal vessels implanted across the internal os. May rupture as cervix dilates.

A

vasa previa

236
Q

cyst of cord adjacent to vessels. Usually near placenta. May be seen as free floating cord with “bubble” inside of adjacent to cord vessels.

A

allantoic cyst

237
Q

cyst of cord near fetal abdomen

A

omphalomesenteric cyst

238
Q

most common tumor of cord, Solid hyperechoic masses, Near placenta

A

hemangioma

239
Q

_____ is determined by the deamnds of the organ

A

resistance

240
Q

When an organ requuires or wants more blood, the volume flow is increased by:

A

lowering the resistance

241
Q

Uterine arteries gravid uterus
_____ volume flow
____ resistance

A

high
low

242
Q

The umbilical artery doppler assesses for _____ and ______

A

placental resistance
fetal well-being

243
Q

_____ is the means of respirations and nutrition

A

placenta

244
Q

Increased placental resistance indicates ______

A

placental insufficiency

245
Q

EFW below 10th percentile. Biometry measures 2 weeks below expected gestational age.

A

IUGR

246
Q

_____ is used to evaluate for IUGR

A

AC

247
Q

entire fetus is evenly small. Usually starts earlies and related to a fetal syndrome

A

symmetric IUGR

248
Q

“brain-sparing” head biometery may be WNL. Results in abnormal HC/AC ratio. Gerneally presents later (2nd trimester and on) and related to maternal complications, placental insufficiency and abnormal dopplers.

A

asymmetric IUGR

249
Q

The MCA Doppler is used to assess:

A

fetal hypoxia or anemia

250
Q

Anemia reduces ______, making blood less vscious.

A

hemoglobin

251
Q

Directs blood from placenta to fetus

A

umbilical vein/ductus venosus

252
Q

______ should be steady, minimally phasic with constant flow towards the fetus.

A

umbilical vein

253
Q

dividing the uterus in 4 quadrants and measuring the largest pocket of fluid in each quadrant

A

amniotic fluid index

254
Q

AFI normal range:

A

5-24

255
Q

Amniotic fluid progressively increases until ___ weeks, then slowly decreases

A

28

256
Q

Maximum vertical pocket excluding fetal parts and cord

A

Deepest vertical pocket

257
Q

BPP criteria

A

fetal breathing
gross fetal movements
fetal tone
amniotic fluid

258
Q

The most accurate measure of lung maturity is performed by _____ to measure the lecithin/Sphingomyelin ratio AKA L/S ratio

A

amniocentesis

259
Q

overlapping skull bones/collapsing brain

A

Spaulding sign

260
Q

air air trapped in abdomen and lungs and increased echogenicity

A

Roberts sign

261
Q

Features of 2nd 3rd trimester fetal demise

A

spaulding sign
roberts sign
exaggerated curvature of spine

262
Q

fluid found in 2 fetal cavitiies

A

hydrops

263
Q

fluid around the heart

A

pericardial effusion

264
Q

fluid around the lungs

A

pleural effusion

265
Q

fluid in the abdominal cavity

A

ascites

266
Q

edema of the skin (thickness >5mm)

A

subcuteaneous edema/anasarca

267
Q

Hydrops is associated with ______ and ______

A

polyhydramnios
placentomegaly

268
Q

Cause of immune hydrops

A

Rh isoimmunization/ Rh incompatability

269
Q

antibodies destroy the fetus’ red blood cells leading to fetal anemia and hydrops

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

270
Q

caused by any other reason for hydrops

A

non-immune hydrops

271
Q

TORCH

A

toxoplasmosis
other infections
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes simplex

272
Q

group of infections that cross the placenta causing damage to the fetus

A

TORCH

273
Q

IVC syndrome. When gravid uterus compresses IVC lowering blood pressure and causing patient to feel dizzy, sweaty, and nauseous

A

Supine hyvolemic syndrome

274
Q

presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and proteinuria

A

preeclampsia

275
Q

long-standing, uncontrolled preeclampsia causing headaches and seizures

A

eclampsia

276
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

hemolysis
elevated liver enzymes
low platelets

277
Q

higher risk of maternal complications of miscarriage and toxemia. Also increased risk of congenital anomalies: heart, skeletal, syndromes, etc

A

pregestational diabetes mellitus type 1 or 2

278
Q

most common type of diabetes with pregnancy and resolves after birth. Major risk is macrosomia.

A

gestational diabetes

279
Q

EFW greater than the 90th percentile

A

macrosomia

280
Q

neonate weights >4500g

A

macrosomia

281
Q

painless premature dilation of the cervix
normal at least 3 cm in length

A

incompetent cervix

282
Q

onset of labor before 37 weeks

A

pre-term labor

283
Q

premature rupture of membranes prior to the onset of labor. oligohydramnios

A

PROM

284
Q

Normal post partum uterus returns to non-gravid size __-__ weeks after delivery

A

6
8

285
Q

Part of placenta may be left behind. C/o post partum vaginal bleeding. seen as echogenic intracavitary mass within the endometrium or thickened irregular endometrium

A

retained products of conception

286
Q

results from c-section. complex mass adjacent to scar between LUS and posterior bladder wall

A

Bladder flap hematoma

287
Q

fever, increased WBC, tenderness. associated with poor nutrition and hygiene, anemia, c-section, prolonged labor. No specific sonographic findings if no abscess.

A

infection/abscess

288
Q

complex fluid collection

A

abscess

289
Q

_______ imaging angle is best for smooth interfaces such as visualizing an interventricular septum or amniocentesis needle

A

perpendicular

290
Q

reducing acoustic exposure by limiting use of controls that increase output and considering overall scan time

A

ALARA

291
Q

velocity scale is also known as:

A

pulse repetition frequency

292
Q

_____ the scale for slower flow or when not sensitive enough

A

Decrease

293
Q

_____ the scale when it’s aliasing

A

Increase

294
Q

Multiple gestations are at an increased risk of:

A

preeclampsia
preterm delivery
low birth weight
fetal anomalies
miscarriage
perinatal death

295
Q

Medial gestational age of delivery for twins

A

36 weeks

296
Q

arise from 2 separate eggs that were fertilized

A

dizygotic twinning

297
Q

arise from 1 zygote that splits

A

monozygotic twinning

298
Q

_____ twinning is more common

A

dizygotic

298
Q

The chorion forms the ____ and ____

A

gestational sac
placenta

299
Q

the inner membrane and goes with the yolk sac

A

amnion

300
Q
A

Sonographic Topics (35 decks)

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