OB/GYN Registry Review Flashcards

1
Q

Bony boundaries of the pelvis

A

sacrum
coccyx
innominate bones (ilium, ischium, pubic symphysis)

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2
Q

innominate bones include:

A

ilium
ischium
pubic symphysis

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3
Q

imaginary line from pubic symphysis to sacral prominence (top of sacrum)

A

linea terminalis

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4
Q

are deep and below the linea terminalis

A

true pelvis

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5
Q

The true pelvis includes:

A

bladder
small bowel
ascending and descending colon
rectum
uterus
ovaries
fallopian tubes
internal iliacs
5 muscles

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6
Q

hammock shaped muscles that give support to pelvic organs;

A

pelvic diaphragm

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7
Q

The pelvic diaphragm includes:

A

levator ani and coccygeus muscles

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8
Q

The true pelvic muscles are located posterior toL

A

bladder
vagina
rectum

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9
Q

O.P.I. muscles in the adnexa

A

obturator internus
piriformis
iliopsoas

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10
Q

The obturator internus muscle is located ____ to the bladder

A

lateral

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11
Q

The pirfiormis is located _____

A

posterolateral

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12
Q

The iliopsoas is located ____

A

anterolateral

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13
Q

appear as ovoid hypoechoic structures that elongate in the sagittal plane in the adnexa; adjacent or lateral to bladder/ovaries/uterus

A

O.P.I muscles

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14
Q

double fold of peritoneum. From lateral sides of uterus to walls of pelvis

A

broad ligaments

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15
Q

located between folds of peritoneum. Only ligaments every visualized on sono, only when there is pelvic ascites

A

round ligaments

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16
Q

contains vasculature of uterus

A

cardinal ligaments

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17
Q

______ are when fluid can collect in the pelvis

A

intraperitoneal cavities

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18
Q

The retropubic space or _______ is located ____ to the bladder

A

space of Retzius
anterior

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19
Q

lower quadrants of abdomen and lateral spaces to uterus

A

adnexa

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20
Q

The anterior cul-de-sac or ______ is located between the ____ and _____

A

vesicouterine pouch
bladder
uterus

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21
Q

The posterior cul-de-sac or ______ or ______ is located between the _____ and _____

A

rectouterine pouch
pouch of Douglas
uterus
rectum

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22
Q

The uterine arteries are branches of the:

A

internal iliac arteries

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23
Q

The ______ supply the periphery of myometrium

A

arcuate arteries

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24
Q

The _____ supply deeper into the myometrium

A

radial arteries

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25
Q

The ___ and ____ arteries supply the layers of the endo.

A

straight
spiral

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26
Q

The straight arteries feed the _____ layer of the endometrium

A

basal

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27
Q

The spiral arteries feed the _____ layer of the endometriu,

A

functional

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28
Q

The ovarian arteries originate from the ____

A

aorta

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29
Q

The ovaries receive a dual blood supply from the _____ and _____ arteries

A

ovarian
uterine

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30
Q

The uterine veins return or drain into the ______

A

internal iliac veins

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31
Q

The right ovarian vein drains into the ______

A

IVC

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32
Q

The left ovarian vein drains into the _______

A

left renal vein

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33
Q

longest vein in the pelvic vessel

A

left ovarian vein

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34
Q

The uterus is a ______peritonal organ

A

retro

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35
Q

The uterus is located _____ to the rectum

A

anterior

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36
Q

The uterus is located ____ to the bladder

A

posterior

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37
Q

The uterus is bound laterally by the ____ ligament

A

broad

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38
Q

The uterus is developed from the fusion of paired ______

A

Mullerian ducts

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39
Q

Four divisions of the uterus

A

fundus
corpus
isthmus
cervix

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40
Q

most superior and widest portion of the uterus

A

fundus

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41
Q

The fallopian tubes attaches to the _____

A

uterine cornu

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42
Q

The body of the uterus; the largest area

A

corpus

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43
Q

the lower uterine segment of the uterus in pregnancy

A

isthmus

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44
Q

internal and external os.

A

cervix

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45
Q

The ______ opens into the vaginal canal (most inferior part)

A

external os

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46
Q

The external os is surrounded by ______

A

vaginal fornix

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47
Q

Three layers of the uterus

A

serosa
myometrium
endometrium

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48
Q

The serosa layer is also known as the

A

perimetrium

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49
Q

Outermost layer of the uterus

A

serosa/perimetrium

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50
Q

muscular layer of the uterus

A

myometrium

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51
Q

mucosal layer of the layers consisting of the basal and functional layers

A

endometrium

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52
Q

prominent uterus due to maternal hormone stimulation. Cervix is enlarged with approximate 2:1 ratio (double the size) to the body

A

neonatal uterus

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53
Q

uterus is tubular in shape
: body = cervix

A

prepubertal uterus

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54
Q

increase in fundal diameter = pear shaped uterus

A

pubertal uterus

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55
Q

during the reproductive years the fundus of the uterus measures between __ and __ cm

A

6
8

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56
Q

decreased uterine size (4-6 cm)

A

menopausal uterus

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57
Q

body of uterus tilts forward; 90 degree angle with cervix

A

anteverted uterus

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58
Q

body of uterus folds forward; comess in contact with the cervix

A

anteflexed uterus

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59
Q

body of uterus tilts back and comes in contact with back of cervix

A

retroflexed uterus

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60
Q

body of uterus tilts back without a bend

A

retroverted uterus

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61
Q

oviducts, uterine tubes, salpinges

A

fallopian tubes

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62
Q

Fallopian tubes are between __-__ cm long

A

7
12

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63
Q

The fallopain tubes extend from the ____ within the broad ligaments to the ____

A

cornu
adnexa

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64
Q

Means of fertilization and transportation to the uterus

A

fallopian tubes

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65
Q

Tiny, hairlike structures, located inside the fallopian tubes that move back and forth to aid in the movement of the fertilized ovum

A

cilia

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66
Q

5 segments of the fallopian tube

A

interstitial, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum, fimbria

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67
Q

The most proximal portion of the fallopian tubes; where the tube attaches to the cornu

A

interstitial

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68
Q

“bridge” of the fallopian tubes that connects the interstiital portion to the ampulla portion

A

isthmus

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69
Q

The longest and most tortuous segment of the fallopian tube

A

ampulla

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70
Q

The most common location of fertilization and ectopics

A

ampulla

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71
Q

distal and widest portion of the fallopian tubes

A

infundibulum

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72
Q

fingerlike extensions at the end of the infundibulum that draw the unfertilized egg into the tube

A

fimbria

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73
Q

The ovaries are ______, _____ organs

A

intraperitoneal
endocrine

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74
Q

The ovaries and surrounded by ____ muscles and _____ vessels

A

OPI
internal iliac

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75
Q

The _____ ligament supports the ovary from the lateral side of the uterus to the ovary

A

ovarian

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76
Q

The _____ ligament supports the ovaries from the lateral pelvic side walls

A

suspensory

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77
Q

The ovaries produce _____ and ____

A

estrogen
progesterone

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78
Q

The ovaries and stimulated by ____ and ___

A

FSH
LH

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79
Q

The outer cortex of the ovary is the side of:

A

oogenesis/follicles

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80
Q

The medulla of the ovaries houses the

A

vasculature
lymphatics

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81
Q

Ovarian volume equation

A

L x H x W x 0.523

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82
Q

The dominant follicle of the ovary

A

Graafian

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83
Q

Thecal internal cells of follicles produce _____

A

estrogen

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84
Q

Ovum is inside of the ______ of dominant follicle (seen as a daughter cyst within dominant follicle_

A

cumulus oophorus

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85
Q

Ovulation will occur within ___ hours of seeing cumulus oophorus within the dominant follicle

A

36

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86
Q

The ___ ruptures the Graafian follicle

A

LH

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87
Q

The Graafian follicle is replaced by the ______

A

corpus luteum

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88
Q

The corpus luteum releases _____

A

progesterone

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89
Q

When the corpus luteum regresses, the ______ takes its place

A

corpus albicans

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90
Q

The hypothalamus releases _____ to regulate release of hormones by the anterior pituitary gland.

A

gonadrotropin releasing hormone

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91
Q

The pituitary gland releases _____

A

FSH

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92
Q

stimulates ovaries to develop follicles and maturation of the dominant follicle

A

FSH

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93
Q

The follicles produce _____

A

estrogen

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94
Q

As the dominant follicle reaches maturity, there is a peak in _____ levels

A

estrogen

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95
Q

The peak in estrogen levels signs the pituitary gland to release the ____ surge

A

LH

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96
Q

The LH surge stimulates the rupture of the dominant follicle -

A

ovulation

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97
Q

The ruptured dominant follicle is known as the _____

A

corpus luteujm

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98
Q

The corpus luteum secretes _____ and small amounts of _____

A

progesterone
estrogen

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99
Q

The endometrium is directly affected by ______ and _____

A

progesterone
estrogen

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100
Q

______ thickens the endometrium

A

estrogen

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101
Q

______ maintains the thickened endometrium and prepares for implantation

A

progesterone

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102
Q

If no pregnancy occurs, the corpus luteum regresses and ______ levels drop.

A

progesteron

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103
Q

When the ______ decreases, the endometrium begins to slough off and menses begin

A

progesterone

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104
Q

follicular phase of ovary

A

days 1-14

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105
Q

FSH stimulates follicle development and dominant follicle matures increasing to about 2.5-2.7 cm until ovulation around day 14. Follicles release estrogen

A

follicular phase of ovary

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106
Q

menstrual phase of endometrium

A

days 1-5

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107
Q

menses and shedding of endometrium (no specific appearance)

A

menstrual phase of endometrium

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108
Q

proliferative phase of endometrium

A

days 6-14

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109
Q

The endometrium changes so much during this phase, so we must use ___ and ___ depending on where we are in this phase

A

early proliferative
late proliferative

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110
Q

immediately following menses, endometrium is thin, echogenic and measures no more than 4mm

A

early proliferative phase of endometrium

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111
Q

The late proliferative phase is also known as the

A

periovulatary phase

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112
Q

The endometrium will reach 6-10 mm and appears as a “3 line sign”

A

late proliferative phase of endometrium

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113
Q

The echogenic rim of the three line sign is the _____

A

basal layer

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114
Q

The hypoechoic border of the three line sign is the _______

A

functional layer

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115
Q

ovulation occurs of day __

A

14

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116
Q

LH surges cause rupture of the dominant follicle, releasing ovum. Free fluid may settle in the posterior cul de sac

A

ovulation

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117
Q

When calculating the ovulation day=

A

subtract 14 from the number of total cycle days

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118
Q

luteal phase of the ovary

A

days 15-28

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119
Q

Graafian follicle becomes corpus luteum which produces progesterone to maintain endo thickness., Towards the end of the phase corpus luteum regresses if no fertiliation

A

luteral phase of ovary

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120
Q

progesterone maintains endos thickness to prepare for implantation. Endo appears thick and echogenic and measures 7-16mm.

A

secretory phase of endo

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121
Q

Menses normally begins day ___ due to the progesterone drop

A

28

122
Q

Follicular goes with ____

A

proliferative

123
Q

ovulation goes with _____

A

late proliferative

124
Q

Luteal goes with _____

A

secretory

125
Q

of pregnancies

A

gravida

126
Q

of pregnancies carried to term

A

para

127
Q

transabdominal prep

A

full bladder

128
Q

transvaginal prep

A

empty bladder

129
Q

a-

A

without/none

130
Q

dys-

A

abnormal/painful

131
Q

hyper-

A

increased

132
Q

hypo-

A

decreased

133
Q

oligo- l

A

less

134
Q

poly-

A

many

135
Q

sub-

A

under

136
Q

intra-

A

inside

137
Q

inter-

A

between

138
Q

hydro-

A

fluid

139
Q

hemato-

A

blood

140
Q

meno-

A

heavy

141
Q

metro-

A

irregular

142
Q

-menorrhea

A

menses

143
Q

-rrhagia

A

bleeding

144
Q

-uria

A

urination

145
Q

-pareunia

A

intercourse

146
Q

-plasia

A

growth

147
Q

-genesis

A

formation

148
Q

-oma

A

mass

149
Q

-itis

A

infection

150
Q

-colpos

A

vagina

151
Q

-metra

A

uterus

152
Q

-salpinx

A

fallopian tubes

153
Q

“middle pain” in the middle of the cycle, near ovulation

A

Mittelschmerz

154
Q

failure to have menses by the age of 16. Never reached menarche.

A

primary amennorhea

155
Q

menses stopped

A

secondary amennorhea

156
Q

incomplete, abnormal fusion or lack of formation of paired Mullerian ducts. May be associated with menstrual disorders, infertility, and OB complications

A

congenital malformation

157
Q

There is an increased risk of congenital malformations of the uterus with fetal exposure to ____

A

DES

158
Q

drug given to treat threatened miscarriages in the 70s

A

DES

159
Q

Most commonly associated uterine congenital malformation with exposure to DES is:

A

T shaped uterus

160
Q

mildest of call uterine congenital malformations; normal contour, slight indentation of fundal endometrium

A

arcuate uterus

161
Q

AKA Bircornus unicollis; 1 endo cavity that divides into 2 at the fundus, “Y” shaped. Uterine fundus has a concave contour.

A

bicornuate uterus

162
Q

normal uterine contour with 2 separate endo cavities

A

supseptate uterus

163
Q

most common congenital uterine anomaly

A

septate uterus

164
Q

2 completely separate endo cavities; uterine contour is concave at fundus

A

septate uterus

165
Q

complete lack of fusion. 2 vaginas, cervices, and uteris

A

didelphys

166
Q

lack of formation of one duct. single horn

A

unicornuate uterus

167
Q

congenital malformations of vagina

A

vaginal atresia and imperforate hymen

168
Q

The most common cause of pain and primary amennorhea in an adolscent girl

A

imperforate hymen

169
Q

distention of uterus, vagina, or both with anechoic or complex fluid. fluid accumulated proximal to level of blockage

A

sonographic findings of vaginal atresia and imperforate hymen

170
Q

absent or closed vagina; so it cannot be distended. Only uterus and cervix will be distended with fluid or blood

A

vaginal atresia

171
Q

Vaginal atresia is associated with:

A

hydrometra or hematometra

172
Q

closed hymen, everything above it can be extended

A

imperforate hymen

173
Q

imperforate hymen is associated with:

A

hydrocolpos
hydrometracolpos
hematometracolpos

174
Q

invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium

A

adenomyosis

175
Q

focal mass like adenomyosis

A

adenomyoma

176
Q

Adenomyosis has an increased risk in patients with ____

A

fibroids

177
Q

dysmennorhea
menometrrohagia
pelvic pain
dyspareunia
multiparous

A

adenomyosis

178
Q

enlarged uterus with diffusely heterogeneous myometrium
thickening of the posterior uterus
small cystic spaces scattered throughout myo (linear striations”

A

adenomyosis

179
Q

fibroid or myoma

A

leiomyoma

180
Q

benign smooth muscle tumor of the uterus

A

leiomyoma

181
Q

most common benign gyn tumor

A

leiomyoma

182
Q

leading cause of hysterectomy and gyn surgery

A

leiomyomaL

183
Q

Leiomyomas are stimulated by _____

A

estrogen

184
Q

abnormal bleeding
pelvic distention
pressure
infertility
urinary frequency

A

leiomyoma

185
Q

hypoechoic mass with poor through transmission; bulky enlarged uterus

A

leiomyoma

186
Q

most common leiomyoma

A

intramural

187
Q

leiomyoma located within the muscle wall of the uterus. May make the whole uterus bulky but not not directly change the controu

A

intramujral

188
Q

growth under the serosal layer, distorts the outer contour of the uterus

A

subserosa leiomyoma

189
Q

Adjacent to endo and distorts contour of endo. Most likely to cause bleeding issues.

A

submucosal leiomyoma

190
Q

A type of subserosal myoma that grows out and attaches by a stalk. May resemble adnexal masses. Most likely cause abdominal distension or pelvic pressure

A

peducunculated leiomyoma

191
Q

malignant form of fibroids

A

leiomyosarcoma

192
Q

Leiomysarcomas are associated with a rapid increase in growth. There are most commonly found in ______ and _____ women.

A

perimenopausal
postmenopausal

193
Q

most common female malignany under the age of 50

A

cervical carcinoma

194
Q

May present as a heterogenos, enlarged cervix or focal mass within the cervix

A

cervical carcinom,a

195
Q

common and usually incidental finding. Benign retention cysts within the cervix. Usually simple but may contain debris or septations. Asymptomatic

A

Nabothian cysts

196
Q

small cyst located along the vaginal wall. asymptomatic

A

gartner duct cyst

197
Q

When the myometrial walls are separating at the csection scar

A

csection dehiscence

198
Q

placed in the uterine cavity to prevent implantation of the fertilized ovum

A

IUD

199
Q

echogenic linear echo with posterior shadowing or reverberation artifact noted centrally within the endometrial cavity

A

IUD

200
Q

IUD Copper 7, Copper T, Mirena, Skyla all appear:

A

linear

201
Q

Lippes loop IUD appears:

A

5 equally spaced dots with posterior shadowing

202
Q

thickening of the endometrium

A

endometrial hyperplasia

203
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia results from _________

A

unopposed estrogen stimulation

204
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia may be secondary to ____

A

PCOS

205
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia is most likely diagnosed in a ______ patient with a thickened endometrium

A

post menopausal

206
Q

postmenopausal bleeding
uterine bleeding
history of PCOS
hormone regulation therapy or tamoxifen treatment

A

endometrial hyperplasia

207
Q

abnormal thickening on the endo
heterogeneous mass with cystic changes

A

endometrial hyperplasia

208
Q

normal limits of endometrium in the early proliferative phase of menstrual cycle

A

4-6 mm

209
Q

Normal limits of endometrium in the late proliferative phase of menstrual cycle

A

6-10 mm

210
Q

Normal limits of endometrium in the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle

A

less than or equal to 16 mm

211
Q

most common gyn malignancy

A

endometrial carcinoma

212
Q

endometrial carcinoma is a type of ______

A

adenocarcinoma

213
Q

linked with nulliparity, obesity, chronic anovulation, estrogen-producing ovarian tumors, tamoxifen, and HRT

A

endometrial carcinoma

214
Q

postmenopausal bleeding
uterine bleeding
elevated CA-125

A

endometrial carcinoma

215
Q

abnormal thickening of the endo/heterogenous with cystic changes
enlarged heterogenous uterus
polypoidal mass within endo with increased vascularity
low resistance flow

A

endometrial carcinoma

216
Q

small nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

A

endometrial polyps

217
Q

most likely reason for abnormal bleeding/ thick endo in reproductive age patient

A

endometrial polyps

218
Q

intermenstrual bleeding
menometrrohagia
infertility
may be asymptomatic

A

endometrial polylpsf

219
Q

single polyp: focal thickening of endo
multiple polpys: diffuse thickening
echogenic nodules with vascular stalk

A

endometrial polyps

220
Q

thinning (atrophy) of endo in postmenopausal patients

A

endometrial atrophy

221
Q

most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding

A

endometrial atrophy

222
Q

thin endometrium less than or equal to 4mm
possibly intracavitary fluid

A

endometrial atrophy

223
Q

adhesions or synechaie within the uterine cavity as result of scar formation after surgery, D&C

A

Asherman syndrome

224
Q

amennorhea or hypomennorhea
hx of miscarriages or surgery

A

Asherman syndrome

225
Q

thin endo with echogenic regions/scarring
On SIS- webb-like or stringy appearance and visualization of the synechaie

A

Asherman Syndrome

226
Q

PCOS is an ____ disorder

A

endocrine s

227
Q

hormonal imbalance and chronic anovulation. Menstrual cycle if unable to function normally, follicles do not mature leading to anovulation

A

PCOS

228
Q

most common cause of infertility

A

PCOS

229
Q

stenin-leventhal (hirsutism, obesity, amennorhea or hypomennorhea, infertility)

A

PCOS

230
Q

bilaterally enlarged ovaries with multiple small follicles along periphery “string of pearls”; secondary endometrial hyperplasia

A

PCOS

231
Q

ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus into the adnexa

A

endometriosis

232
Q

The endometrial implants attach anywhere in the pelvic/abdominal cavity and localize forming blood-filled cysts called _____ or _____

A

endometriomas
chocolate cysts

233
Q

Most common location of endometriosis

A

ovaries

234
Q

dysmennorhea
dyspareunia
chronic pelvic pain
painful bowel movements
infertility
nulliparity
reproductive age

A

endometriosisj

235
Q

cystic mass with low-level echoes, anechoic, or complex with posterior enhancement
may demonstrate fluid-fluid level

A

endometriosis

236
Q

most common adnexal mass

A

follicular cysts

237
Q

Graafian follicle that fails to rupture and continues to enlarge >3cm. May also be due to hyperstimulation from infertility treatment such as clomid or perganol

A

follicular cysts

238
Q

most common adnexal mass in pregnancy

A

corpus luteal cyst

239
Q

Cyst that is typically hemorrhagic and has a “lacy” appearance

A

corpus luteal cyst

240
Q

located adjacent to ovary. Typically <2cm and asymptomatic. NOT physiologic

A

paraovarian cysts

241
Q

found only with elevated levels of HCG. May coincide with gestational trophoblastic disease or associated with multiple gestations due to high HCG

A

theca lutein cysts

242
Q

Bilaterally enlarged multilocated ovarian cysts “grape clusters”; no normal ovarian parenchyma

A

theca lutein cysts

243
Q

most common benign ovarian tumor

A

cystic teratoma

244
Q

A cystic teratoma is also known as a

A

dermoid

245
Q

Germ cell tumor most often seen in reproductive age; retained of unfertilized ovum that is composed of 3 layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm); may include tissues, bones, hair, fat, sebum, cartilage, teeth, etc.

A

cystic teratoma/dermoid

246
Q

The most common complication of a cystic teratoma

A

ovarian torsion

247
Q

complex, cystic, solid mass
“tip of the icebery”, posterior shadowing
Dermoid plug: poor thru transmission
dermoid mesh: produced by hair, numerous line echoes

A

cystic teratoma

248
Q

most common solid benign tumor

A

fibroma

249
Q

Most likely tumor to be associated with Meigs syndome

A

fibroma

250
Q

The _____ is NOT associated with estrogen production

A

fibroma

251
Q

solid hypoechoic mass with poor through transmission

A

fibroma

252
Q

ascites and pleural effusion in the presence of a benign ovarian tumor

A

meigs syndrome

253
Q

transitional cell tumor that are small, solid, and unilateral with calcifications

A

Brenner tumor

254
Q

The _____ and _____ tumor do not produce estrogen

A

fibroma
Brenner

255
Q

sex cord stromal tumors, which are frequently related to hormone production, in these cases estrogen

A

thecoma and granulosa cell tumors

256
Q

Unopposed estrogen stimulation leads to ______ and possibly _____

A

endometrial hyperplasia
carcinoma

257
Q

most common estrogenic tumor

A

Granulosa cell tumor

258
Q

unilateral and typically postmenopausal; growers larger and faster than the thecoma; 10-15% chance of developing endometrial carcinoma due to consistent estrogen stimulation = bleeding

A

granulosa cell tumor

259
Q

In pediatrics, the ______ causes pseudoprecocious puberty, has a malignant potential

A

granulosa cell tumor

260
Q

most often seen in postmenopausal patient with postmenopausal bleeding. Generally unilateral and hypoechoic

A

thecoma

261
Q

2 types of cystadenomas

A

serous
mucinous

262
Q

50-70% are benign
large and typically bilateral cysts with septations
serous

A

serous cystadenoma

263
Q

larger than serous and usually unilateral
septations and presence of internal debris helps to distinguish
mucinous

A

mucinous cystadenoma

264
Q

most common ovarian malignancy

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

265
Q

similar to serous cystadenoma but with more prominent papillary projections (mural wall nodules/irregularities) and thicker septations

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

266
Q

will present with intraperitoneal extensions of mucin-secreting cells that appear to similar to complex ascites

A

mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

267
Q

complex ascites

A

pseudomyxoma peritonei

268
Q

weight loss
pelvic pressure/swelling
abnormal bleeding
elevated CA-125
acute abdominal pain with torsion or supture

A

cystadenocarcinoma

269
Q

cystic mass with thick septations and papillary projections with internal vascularity
abnormal decreased resistance flow patterns

A

cystadenocarcinoma

270
Q

metastasis from GI tract (usually stomach/gastric)
bilateral ovarian masses and ascites
Patient may be asymptomatic or have weight loss and pelvic pain

A

Krukenburg tumor

271
Q

Sex-cord stromal tumor associated with virilization.
patient presents with abnormal menstruation and hirsutism
most commonly found in women younger than 30
may be benign or malignant

A

Sertole-Leydig tumor

272
Q

The Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor is also known as

A

androblastoma

273
Q

Most common malignant germ cell tumor

A

dysgerminoma

274
Q

most often seen in young patients and may be found in pregnancy; Children present with precocious puberty; elevated hcg in nongravid female

A

dysgerminoma

275
Q

development of masculine qualities and physical characteristics

A

virilization

276
Q

male version of dysgerminoma

A

seminoma

277
Q

tumor marker for dysgerminoma

A

elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase

278
Q

The yolk sac tumor is also known as:

A

endodermal sinus tumor

279
Q

second most common malignant germ cell tumor

A

yolk sac tumor

280
Q

characterized by rapid growth, presents in females less than 20 years old, and elevated AFP in non-gravid female

A

yolk sac tumor

281
Q

results from ovary twisting on its mesenteric connection and cutting off blood supply t

A

ovarian torsion

282
Q

Ovarian torsion can be complete or partial since the ovary has:

A

dual blood supply

283
Q

Ovarian torsion most commonly happens on the ____ side

A

right

284
Q

Ovarian torsion is most commonly caused by:

A

ovarian mass or cyst

285
Q

enlarged heterogenous ovary within diminished or lack of blood flow; hemorrhagic cyst or tumor may be present

A

ovarian torsion

286
Q

______ is determined by the demands of the organs

A

resistance

287
Q

Malignant masses have ____ resistance

A

low

288
Q

Abnormal patterns expected with malignancy

A

resistive index <0.4
elevated velocity >15 cm/s
absence of diastolic notch

289
Q

Normal ovarian flow is _____ resistive (less diastole) during menstrual and early proliferative phases because the demands for blood are low.

A

higher

290
Q

The most accurate time to Doppler the the ovary

A

menstrual and early proliferative phase

291
Q

The non-gravid uterus is normally ____ resistance as there is an overall low demand for blood supply.

A

high

292
Q

abnormal connections between arterial and venous channels

A

arteriovenous malformations

293
Q

Most likely to be formed after pregnancy or miscarriage of D/C

A

arteriovenous malformations

294
Q

On Pulsed Wave Doppler in the presence of an arteriovenous malformation, the flow will be ____ velocity, _____, and ____ resistance

A

high
turbulent
low

295
Q

higher resistance = ____ diastolic flow

A

less

296
Q

lower resistance = _____ diastolic flow

A

more

297
Q

infection of the upper genital tract

A

PID

298
Q

most common initial clinical presentation of PID is:

A

vaginitis

299
Q

Most common cause of PID is:

A

STDs

300
Q

active infection/inflammation of PID

A

acute PID

301
Q
A
302
Q
A